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Microbio: Virology Flashcards

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1
Q

what does a naked virus have in it

A

just the capsid and the nucleic acid

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2
Q

two types of enveloped virus

A

can have an icosahedral capsid and a helical capsid

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3
Q

what is the envelope on viruses made of?

A

lipid bilayer

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4
Q

viral recombination

A

genetic crossing over or exchange of genes between 2 chromosomes within regions of base homology

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5
Q

viral reassortment

A

this is when viruses with segmented genomes like influenza exchange segments. causes worldwide pandemics like flu

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6
Q

viral complementation

A

if 1 of 2 viruses that infects a cell has a mutation and can’t a protein, the non mutated virus will help out and get proteins made that are functional and can serve both viruses.

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7
Q

viral phenotypic mixing

A

this is when two viruses like A and B infect a cell at the same time. if genome A gets coated with viral surface proteins from B, the hybrid virus will have the infectivity of the B virus. However, the progeny from this infection have a type A coat that is encoded by its type A genetic material.

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8
Q

why are live vaccines useful

A

get humoral and cell mediated immunity

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9
Q

what kind of immune from killed/inactivated vaccines

A

only humoral immunity

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10
Q

examples of live vaccines

A

smallpox, yellow fever, chickenpox (VZV), sabin polio virus, MMR, influenza (intra nasal)

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11
Q

examples of killed vaccines

A

rabies, influenza (injected), salk polio, and HAV vaccines. remember RIP Always

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12
Q

can you give MMR to patients with HIV

A

Yes- if they do not have signs of immuno-deficiency

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13
Q

recombinant vaccines

A

HBV (antigen is recombinant HBsAg), HPV (6,11,16,18)

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14
Q

DNA viruses

A

all are dsDNA except for parvo virus which is “part of a virus” and is ssDNA

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15
Q

DNA viruses- linear or circular

A

all are linear except papilloma, polyoma and hepadnaviruses

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16
Q

RNA viruses

A

all are ssRNA except reoviridae (reovirus)

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17
Q

which RNA ssDNA viruses are positive strand:

A

“I went to a retro toga party where I drank flavored corona and ate hippy California pickles”.

retro virus
togavirus
flavavirus
coronavirus
hepevirus
calicivirus
picornavirus
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18
Q

which naked viral material is infectious

A 
most dsDNA (except poxviruses and HBV)
positive stranded ssRNA
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19
Q

which naked viral material is not infectious

A

naked nucleic acids of negative strand ssRNA and dsRNA are not infectious. they require polymerases contained in the complete virion.

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20
Q

where does DNA virus replicate

A

in the nucleus (except pox virus)

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21
Q

where does RNA virus replicate

A

all replicate in the cytoplasm (except influenza virus and retroviruses)

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22
Q

which viruses have envelopes

A

DNA:
PAPP: papillomavirus, adenovirus, parvovirus, polyomavirus,

RNA:
CPR: Calicivirus, picornavirus, reovirus, and hepevirus.

“give Papp smears and CPR to hippies”

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23
Q

where do enveloped viruses get their envelope

A

almost all get it from exiting the cell in the cell membrane.

heperpesviruses get it from nuclear material material.

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24
Q

DNA virus characteristics

A

in general, they are

1) HHAPPPy viruses… hepadna, herpes, adeno, pox, parvo, papilloma, polyoma
2) double stranded (except parvo- ssDNA)
3) are linear (except papilloma, polyoma, hepadna- circular)
4) are icosahedral (except pox- complex)
5) replicate in the nucleus (except pox which carries its own DNA dependent RNA polymerase)

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25
Q

shape of papiloma virus

A

DNA virus that is an exception to the rule that most are linear. it is CIRCULAR and SUPERCOILED

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26
Q

shape of polyoma virus

A

DNA virus that is an exception to the rule that most are linear. it is CIRCULAR AND SUPERCOILED

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27
Q

hepadna virus

A

DNA virus that is an exception to the rule that most are linear. it is CIRCULAR AND INCOMPLETE

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28
Q

features of herpesvirus

A

DNA, double stranded, linear, enveloped

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29
Q

HSV1

A

causes mostly oral lesions. some genital

can cause spontaneous temporal lobe encephalitis, keratoconjunctivis

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30
Q

HSV2

A

genital lesions (some oral)

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31
Q

HSV3

A

VZV- chicken pox, zoster (shingles), vaccine available

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32
Q

HSV4

A

EBV- mononucleosis. can also cause Burkitt lymphoma and Hodgkin lymphoma

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33
Q

HSV5

A

CMV- infection in immunocompromised patients. things like AIDS retinitis, transplant patients, congenital defects

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34
Q

HSV6

A

roseola (exanthem subitum). usually a fever and then a rash. usually in children

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35
Q

HSV7

A

less common cause of roseola

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36
Q

HSV8

A

Kaposi sarcoma

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37
Q

features of Hepadnavirus

A

DNA, double stranded (partially), circular, enveloped.

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38
Q

disease caused by hepadnavirus

A

HBV- acute or chronic hepatitis B. vaccine available.

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39
Q

what does the hep B vaccine contain

A

hep B surface antigen

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40
Q

is hepadnavirus a retrovirus

A

no, but it contains reverse transcriptase

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41
Q

adenovirus features

A

non enveloped, double stranded, and linear.

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42
Q

disease caused by adenovirus

A

febrile pharyngitis, acute hemorrhagic cystitis, pneumonia and conjunctivitis

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43
Q

parvovirus features

A

non enveloped, single stranded, linear.

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44
Q

which is the smallest DNA virus

A

parvovirus

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45
Q

disease from parvo virus

A

B19 virus- aplastic crises in sickle cell disease (bone marrow stops making RBCs), slapped cheeks rash in children, erythema infectiosum (5th disease), RBC destruction in the fetus causing hydrops fetalis and death. pure RBC aplasia and rheumatoid arthritis symptoms in adults.

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46
Q

papillomavirus features

A

no envelope, double stranded and circular.

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47
Q

Papillomavirus disease

A

HPV- warts (1,2,6,11), CIN, cervical cancer (16,18), vaccine available

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48
Q

polyomavirus features

A

No envelope, circular double stranded DNA

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49
Q

polyomavirus diseases

A

JC virus- can cause progressive multifocal leukoenceophalopathy (PML)

BK virus- transplant patients, commonly targets kidney)

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50
Q

Poxvirus features

A

Enveloped, double stranded, lienar DNA

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51
Q

largest DNA virus

A

Pox virus

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52
Q

disease from pox virus

A

smallpox
cowpox- milkmaid blisters (target like lesions on hand)
molluscum contagiosum- flesh colored dome lesions with central umbilicated dimple

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53
Q

most common cause of sporadic encephalitis in the US

A

HSV1

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54
Q

where does herpesvirus (HSV1) hang out?

A

trigeminal ganglia.

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55
Q

how is herpes virus transmitted

A

respiratory secretions, saliva

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56
Q

which herpes virus causes neonatal herpes

A

HSV2

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57
Q

where does HSV2 hang out

A

sacral ganglia

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58
Q

where does HSV3 or varicella zoster hang out

A

in the dorsal root or trigeminal ganglia

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59
Q

most common cause of complication in shingles

A

post herpetic neuralgia

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60
Q

how is HSV3 transmitted

A

respiratory secretions

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61
Q

symptoms of mononucleosis

A

fever, hepatosplenomegaly, pharyngitis, and lymphadenopathy (especially posterior cervical nodes)

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62
Q

what types of cells does EBV infect

A

B cells. can see on peripheral smear. when looking at the smear, the atypical cells are reactive cytotoxic T cells.

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63
Q

what is the monospot test

A

heterophile antibodies detected by agglutination of sheep or horse RBCs

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64
Q

what types of cancer are associated with EBV

A

Hodgkin lymphoma, Burkitt lymphoma, nasopharyngeal carcinoma

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65
Q

symptoms of mono but negative mono spot test?

A

CMV infection causing mononucleosis (always has a negative monospot test)

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66
Q

CMV infected cells on histology

A

classic owl eye where the center is dark, then the white around it and then dark around that.

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67
Q

where does CMV become latent

A

mono-nuclear cells

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68
Q

Roseola

A

this is a disease caused by HSV6 or 7. high fevers that last for several days that can cause seizures. then a diffuse macular rash. transmitted by saliva.

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69
Q

Kaposi sarcoma

A

HSV8. neoplasm of endothelial cells. seen in HIV/AIDS and transplant patients. Dark, violaceous flat and nodular skin lesions which are endothelial growth.

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70
Q

how is HSV8 transmitted

A

sexual contact

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71
Q

how to test in general for HSV

A

tzanck test- taking a smear of an opened skin vesicle on a genital wart and looking for multi-nucleated giant cells.

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72
Q

Cowdry A inclusions

A

can be seen in cells infected with HSV. often the owl eye is associated with CMV

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73
Q

reovirus features

A

this is a non enveloped, double stranded linear icosaheral capsule.

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74
Q

diseases caused by reoviruses

A

coltivirus - colorado tick fever

rotavirus- #1 cause of fatal diarrhea in children

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75
Q

picornavirus

A

non enveloped, single stranded, linear DNA, icosahedral capsule

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76
Q

diseases caused by picornavirus

A 
PERCH:
poliovirus
echovirus- aseptic meningitis
rhinovirus- common cold
coxsackie virus - aseptic meningitis, herpangia *mouth blisters, fever), hand foot and mouth disease, myocarditis
HAV- acute viral hep A.
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77
Q

hepevirus features

A

no envelope, single stranded, positive linear, icosahedral shaped capsid

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78
Q

hepevirus diseases

A

hep E

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79
Q

calciviruse features

A

no envelope, single stranded, positive linear DNA, icosahedral.

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80
Q

calciviruses disease

A

norovirus

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81
Q

flavivirus features

A

enveloped, single stranded positive linear DNA

82
Q

diseases caused by flaviviruses

A

HCV, Yellow fever, fengue, St Louis encephalitis, West nile virus

83
Q

togaviruse fetures

A

enveloped, single stranded linear positive DNA

84
Q

toga viruses diseases

A

rubella, eastern equine encephalitis and western equine encephalitis

85
Q

retrovirus features

A

enveloped, single stranded positive linear DNA, can be icosahedral or conical (HIV)

86
Q

diseases caused by retroviruses

A

have reverse transcriptase.
HTLV- T cell leukemia (adult T cell leukemia)
HIV

87
Q

corona viruses

A

enveloped, single stranded, positive linear DNA, helical capsid

88
Q

disease caused by corona virus

A

coronavirus- common cold and SARS

89
Q

orthomyxovirus fetures

A

enveloped, single stranded linear, negative DNA (8 segments) helical

90
Q

diseases caused by orthomyxovirus

A

influenza virus

91
Q

features of paramyxovirus

A

enveloped, single stranded, linear negative non segmented DNA. helical capsid.

92
Q

diseases caused by paramyxovirus

A

Parainfluenza- croup
RSV- bronchiolitis in babies, treat with ribavirin
Measles, Mumps

93
Q

rhabdovirus fetures

A

enveloped, single stranded, negative linear, helical capsid

94
Q

disease from rhabdovirus

A

rabies

95
Q

filovirus features

A

enveloped, single stranded, linear DNA negative, helical capsid

96
Q

diseases from filovirus

A

ebola/marburg hemorraghic fever- often fatal

97
Q

arenavirus features

A

enveloped single stranded, negative, circular DNA in 2 segments. helical capsid

98
Q

disease caused by arenavirus

A

LCMV- lymphocytic choriomeningitis virus

Lassa fever encephalitis- spread by mice

99
Q

bunyaviruse features

A

enveloped, single stranded, circular 3 segments, helical capsid.

100
Q

diseases caused by bunyaviruses

A

california encephalitis, sandfly/rift valley fever, crimean congo hemorrhagic fever, hantavirus

101
Q

delta virus features

A

enveloped, single stranded, negative circular, uncertain capsid

102
Q

disease caused by delta virus

A

HDV - defective virus that requires HBV co infection

103
Q

how does a negative stranded virus work?

A

it must take the negative strand and then transcribe a positive strand to go with it. virion brings it own RNA dependent RNA polymerase to do this.

104
Q

pneumonic for negative stranded RNA viruses

A 
Always Bring Polymerase Or Fail Replication
Arenyvirus
Bunyavirus
Paramyxovirus
Orthomixovirus
Filovirus
Rhabdovirus
105
Q

Which RNA viruses are segmented

A 
BOAR
Bunyavirus
Orthomyxovirus (influenza)
Arenavirus
Reovirus
106
Q

how does picornovirus work?

A

so this gives polio, echovirus, rhinovirus, coxsackie virus and HAV.

RNA is translated into 1 large polypeptide that is cleaved by proteases into functional viral proteins. can cause aseptic viral meningitis (echovirus), meningitis. all except rhinovirus are fecal-oral spread

107
Q

rhinovirus

A

this is a type of picornavirus that is a single stranded RNA non enveloped virus. common cause of the common cold. has >100 serologic types. acid labile- destroyed by acid in stomach so never get GI infection

108
Q

Yellow fever

A

you get this from flavivirus.

109
Q

how is yellow fever transmitted

A

aedes mosquitos

110
Q

reservoir for yellow fever

A

monkey or human

111
Q

symptoms of yellow fever

A

high fever, black vomit and jaundice

112
Q

rotavirus

A

this is a type of reovirus, which is a non enveloped, double stranded RNA virus. most important cause of global diarrhea in infants.

113
Q

when do you see rotavirus infections

A

in the US- cause of acute diarrhea in day care centers, kindergartens especially in the winter

114
Q

damage to the body done by rotavirus

A

decreased absorption of Na and loss of K

115
Q

influenza

A

caused by the segmented, enveloped, negative single stranded RNA virus orthomyxovirus. 8 segment genome.

116
Q

viral features of influenza virus to help it enter cells

A

contains hemagglutinin (promotes viral entry) and neuraminidase (promotes progeny virion release). rapid genetic changes can be see

117
Q

what is an issue with influenza which explains pandemics

A

genetic or antigen shift. segments undergo high frequency recombination. sudden shift= deadly

118
Q

genetic shift of influenza causes…

A

pandemics

119
Q

genetic drift of influenza causes…

A

epidemics

120
Q

genetic drift of influenza

A

this is more minor changes based on random mutation

121
Q

rubella

A

this is from the togavirus which is an enveloped, single stranded positive linear RNA virus.

122
Q

rubella symptoms

A

fever, postauricular (right behind the ear) and other lymphadenopathy, and fine rash. rash starts with fine macules on the face and spreads to involve trunk and extremities

123
Q

rubella disease that is congenital

A

much more serious that regular rubella. it causes “blueberry muffin” appearance rash.

124
Q

croup

A

caused by paramyxovirus- enveloped, negative single stranded rna. specifically caused by parainfluenza virus

125
Q

how do paramyxoviruses infect respiratory system

A

all contain a surface F or fusion protein which causes respiratory epithelial cells to fuse and form multinucleated cells.

126
Q

use of Palivizumab in infants

A

this can be used to bind to the F protein and prevent pneumonia caused by RSV (respiratory syncicial virus) infection in premature infants. this is a type of paramyxovirus.

127
Q

measles caused by…

A

this is caused by the paramyxoviruse.

128
Q

classic exam findings in measles

A

Koplik spots (red spots in the mouth with a white or blue center) and descending maculopapular rash. spreads downward and includes the limbs (can distinguish from rubella).

129
Q

possible sequelae of measles

A

sub acute sclerosing panencelphalitis, encephalitis, and giant cell pneumonia

130
Q

3 C’s of measles

A

cough, coryza (runny nose), conjunctivitis

131
Q

mumps is caused by…

A

caused by a paramyxovirus

132
Q

symptoms of mumps…

A

parotitis (inflamamtion of parotid glands), orchitis (inflammation of testes) and aseptic meningitis.

133
Q

sequelae of mumps if not treated

A

can cause sterility, especially after puberty

134
Q

rabies is caused by…

A

this is caused by the rhabdovirus, which is a single stranded, enveloped, negative linear RNA virus

135
Q

histologic findings in rabies

A

bullet shaped virus with negri bodies found in Purkinje cells of cerebellum and in hippocampal neurons.

136
Q

does rabies have a short or long incubation period

A

long

137
Q

treatment after a bite for rabies?

A

wound cleaning and rabies vaccine as well as possible rabies immunoglobulin

138
Q

how does rabies get to the brain

A

travels up to the CNS by migrating in a retrograde fashion up nerve axons

139
Q

early signs of rabies

A

fever, malaise

140
Q

classic later signs of rabies

A

agitation, photophobia, hyrophobia (patient is thirsty, but when presented with water they freak out and refuse to drink or swallow it but they can’t quench their thirst), then can cause paralysis and coma/death

141
Q

how do you get a rabies infection

A

bat, raccoon and skunk bites. less from dog bites in the US

142
Q

symptoms of any hepatitis virus

A

jaundice, fever, increase ALT, AST

143
Q

what type of virus causes HepA

A

RNA picornavirus

144
Q

what type of virus causes HepB

A

DNA hepadnavirus

145
Q

what type of virus causes HepC

A

RNA flavavirus

146
Q

what type of virus causes HepD

A

RNA delta virus

147
Q

what type of virus causes HepE

A

RNA hepevirus

148
Q

which hepatitis viruses are oral-fecal

A

Hep A and Hep E

149
Q

which hepatitis viruses are parenteral

A

Hep B, C, D

150
Q

which hepatitis virus is commonly associated with blood transmission

A

HepC

151
Q

which hepatitis viruses can induce a carrier state?

A

B, C, D

152
Q

which types of hepatitis increase risk for hepato-cellular carcinoma

A

Hep B, C, D

153
Q

which Hepatitis virus depends on another one for infection

A

Hep D is a defective virus and requires HepB infection either at the same time or previously

154
Q

which of the hepatitis types are naked

A

Hep A: picornavirus
Hep E: hepevirus.
becuase they are naked, they do not rely on an envelope and are not destroyed in the stomach

155
Q

DNA polymerase in HepB

A

it is special. it has both DNA and RNA dependent activities. when it enters the nucleus, the polymerase functions to complete the partial dsDNA. the host RNA polymerase transcribes mRNA from viral DNA to make viral proteins. the DNA polymerase then reverse transcribes viral RNA to DNA to form new viral packets.

156
Q

best test to detect hepA

A

anti HAV (IgM)

157
Q

presence of anti HAV (IgG)

A

means either previous infection or vaccination

158
Q

HBsAg

A

means active hepB infection

159
Q

HBsAb

A

means antibody and immunity to hep B

160
Q

HBcAg

A

this is the core antigen. it is present if they were ever infected but NOT if immunized.

161
Q

IgM core antigen for hep B

A

means acute HBV or window period

162
Q

IgG core antigen for hep B

A

means chronic infection or recovery

163
Q

HBeAg

A

this is a different antigen- the envelope antigen- indicates active viral replication and therefore high transmissibility

164
Q

antiHBe

A

this is an antibody to the envelope. indicates low transmissibility

165
Q

lab findings if immunized for Hep B

A

only one thing shoudl be positive- antibody to Hbs. antibody to the surface antigen.

166
Q

envelope antigen is present in which stages

A

acute and chronic with high infectivity

167
Q

envelope antibody (anti-HBe) is present in which stages

A

window, chronic HBV with low infectivity and recovery

168
Q

HIV

A

caused by retrovirus which is an enveloped, single stranded positive linear DNA with conical capsid

169
Q

3 structural genes in HIV

A

1) env: forms gp120 and gp 41. 120 is for attachment to host CD4 T cells and 41 is for fusion and entry
2) gag : p24- capsid protein
3) pol - reverse transcriptase, aspartate protease, integrase

170
Q

why does HIV need a reverse transcriptase

A

it has an RNA genome and the reverse transcriptase synthesizes dsDNA from the RNA and this dsDNA gets incorporated into the host genome

171
Q

gp120 and gp41 proteins in HIV

A

these are proteins that are envelope proteins. gp120 is for attachment to CD4 cells and gp41 is for fusion and entry into the cells. these proteins are acquired through budding from host cell plasma membrane.

172
Q

what does HIV virus bind to for T cell entry?

A

early in disease: CCR5
late in disease: CXCR4

both: binds CD4 as well to get into T cells

173
Q

what does HIV bind to for macrophage entry?

A

CCR5 and CD4 on macrophages

174
Q

mutation in CCR5 and its relation to HIV?

A

immunity if homozygous and slow disease progression is heterozygous

175
Q

how to diagnose HIV

A

early diagnosis is made with an ELISA which has a high sensitivity and a low specificity- lots of false positives. confirmation test with Western blot assay- very specific.

176
Q

HIV PCR test- what does it tell you

A

tells you the viral load to determine the amount of viral RNA in the plasma. can monitor drug therapy with this. high viral load= poor prognosis

177
Q

definition of AIDS diagnosis

A

CD4 <200

178
Q

HIV positive with AIDS defining illness

A

HIV positive with AIDS defining illness such as pnemocystis pneumonia. or CD4 percentage <14 percent

179
Q

what does the elisa or Western blot look for in HIV test

A

looks for antibodies to viral proteins. can be false negative in the first 1-2 months after HIV infection and false positive in babies born to infected mothers

180
Q

why do newborns often have a positive HIV test right after delivery even if not infected with HIV

A

anti gp120 antibodies can cross the placenta

181
Q

where does HIV replicate during the latent phase

A

in the lypmh nodes

182
Q

low grade fever, cough, tongue ulcer and hepatomegaly in an HIV patient…

A

think about histoplasma capsulatum infection. see oval yeast cells within macrophages

183
Q

fluffy white cottage cheese lesions in mouth and esophagus in HIV patients

A

think about C albicans. usually get oral thrush with CD4 around 400 and esophageal infection with CD4 <100

184
Q

Hairy leukoplakis on lateral tongue in HIV patients

A

EBV infection

185
Q

superficial vascular proliferation with neutrophils in HIV patient

A

Bartonella henselae (bacillary angiomatosis). side note- kind of looks like Kaposi sarcoma

186
Q

chronic watery diarrhea in HIV patient

A

cyrptosporidium infection. acid fast cysts seen in stool

187
Q

neurologic absecess with ring lesions that enhance on MRI in an HIV patient

A

toxoplasma gondii

188
Q

encephalopathy in an HIV patient

A

think about JC virus

189
Q

meningitis in an HIV patient

A

think about cryptococcus neoformans. india ink stain will reveal yeast with narrow based budding

190
Q

retinitis in HIV patients with cotton wool spots on fundoscopic exam

A

CMV infection. may see esophagitis with it

191
Q

non hodgkin lymphoma (large cell type) on the oropharynx (waldeyer ring) in an HIV patient

A

think about EBV

192
Q

primary CNS lymphoma in HIV patient

A

rule out toxoplasma. can be associated with EBV

193
Q

squamous cell carcinoma of the anus in HIV patient

A

HPV infection

194
Q

superficial proliferation of vasculature (neoplastic with lymphocytic inflammation) in HIV patient

A

this is HHV 8 or Kaposi sarcoma. make sure to differentiate from above infection with Bartonella henselae giving bacillary angiomatosis.

195
Q

interstitial pneumonia with owl eye inclusion bodies in HIV patient

A

CMV

196
Q

pleuritic pain, hemoptysis, infiltrates on imaging in HIV patients

A

aspergillus fumigatus infection

197
Q

pneumocystis pneumonia- ground glass appearance on imaging, CD4< 200 in HIV patient

A

Pneumocystic jirovecii. CD4<200

198
Q

pneumonia with CD4>200 in HIV patient

A

Strep pneumoniae

199
Q

tuberculosis like disease with CD4<50 in HIV patient

A

think about mycobacterium avium intracellular also known as MAC

200
Q

sporadic prion disease

A

Creutzfeld Jakob disease- rapidly progressive dementia

201
Q

inherited prion disease

A

Gerstmann straussler scheinker syndrome

202
Q

acquired prion disease

A

kuru

FA Microbiology (7 decks)

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