Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

FA Microbiology > Microbio: Gram Negative > Flashcards

Microbio: Gram Negative Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

gram negative stain

A

pink in color

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

gram negative oxidase positive, comma shaped

A

campylobacter, vibrio cholera, helicobacter pylori

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

gram negative diplococci

A

Neisseria meningitidis and Neisseria gonorrhea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

how to distinguish neisseria meningitis from neisseria gonorrhea

A

minigitidis- maltose fermenter

gonorrhea- non maltose fermenter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

gram negative coccoid rods

A 
these are often times called "coccoid rolds" 
haemophilus influenzae
pasturella
brucella
bordetella pertussis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

gram negative rods- how to tell them apart?

A

lactose fermenter or not

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

lactose fermenting gram negative rods

A

can be fast fermenter and slow fermenter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

fast fermenting gram negative, lactose fermenting rods

A

Klebsiella and Ecoli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

slow fermenting gram negative, lactose fermenting rods

A

serratia, cirtobacter and others

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

non lactose fermenting gram negative rods can be separated based on…

A

oxidase positivity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

oxidase negative gram negative rods

A

Shigella, salmonella, proteus, yersinia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

oxidase positive gram negative rods

A

pseudomonas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

lactose fermenting enteric bacteri

A

grow pink colonies on Mac Conkey agar. things like citrobacter, klebsiella, E coli, Enterobacter and Serratia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

E coli on MacConkey agar

A

grows pink because it produces a beta galactosidase and this breaks down lactose into glucose and galactose. EMB agar- lactose fermenters are usually purple or black but Ecoli has purple colonies with a green metallic sheen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

can penicillin be used on gram negative bugs?

A

not on gram negative bacili because the gram negative outer membrane layer inhibits entry of the penicillin G an vancomycin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Neisseria

A

gram negative diplococci. both of the species ferment glucose and produce IgA proteases. N gonorrhea is often intracellular (within the nuetrophils)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what is the difference betwen N meningitidis and N gonorrhea

A

M ferments maltose and G does not

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

which Neisseria species has a capsule

A

N Meningitidis. polysaccharide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Is there a vaccine for the Neisseria species

A

Yes for N. meningitidis (not for type B)

and No for N. Gonorrhea bc there is antigenic variation of pilus proteins really fast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

diseases caused by N meningitidis

A

meningitis and meningococcemia. can also cause Waterhouse Friedrichson syndrome- bleeding and necrosis of the adrenal gland.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

diseases caused by N. gonorrhea

A

gonorrhea, septic arthritis, neonatal conjunctivitis, PID, and Fitz Hugh Curtis syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

treatment of N gonorrhea

A

ceftriaxone and (azithromycin or doxycycline) for possible chlamydia co infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

treatment for N. Meningitidis

A

cetriaxone or Penicillin G

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Haemophilus influenzae

A

small gram negative coccobacillary rod. aerosol transmission. most disease is caused by the capsular type B. produces an IgA protease. culture on chocolate agar with factor V and X

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

medium required for H influenza

A

needs chocolate agar with factor V (NAD+) and X (hematin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

diseases caused by H influenza

A

NOT influenza

epiglottitis (cherry red throat in children), meningitis, otitis media and pneumonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

how to treat mucosal infections from H influenza

A

usually caused by the non typeable strains. treat with amoxicillian +/- clavulanate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

how to treat H influenza infections

A

ceftriaxone. rifampin prophalxais in close contacts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

H influenza vaccine

A

one of the three vaccines that has the B capsular polysaccharide conjugated to a protein. here it is conjuagted to the diptheria toxoid in general. given between ages 2months- 18 months.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

legionella- features?

A

gram negative rod that does not gram stain well

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

what stain should you use for legionella?

A

silver stain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

what kind of medium do you need for legionella

A

charcoal yeast extract culture with iron and cysteine added

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

how do you detect legionella?

A

antigen in the urine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

how is legionella transmitted?

A

usually airborne to water source habitat like air conditioning or water heaters. no person to person trnasmission.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

treatment for legionella

A

macrolide or quinolone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

two diseases caused by legionella infection

A

legionaries disease and pontiac fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

legionaries disease

A

severe pneumonia, fever, GI and CNS symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

pontiac fever

A

caused by an infection with legionella. causes mild flu like symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

what important lab finding do you see in legionella infection?

A

hyponatremia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

features of pseudomonas aeruginosa

A

aerobic gram negative rod. non lactose fermenting, oxidase positive.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

what kind of pigment does pseudomonas produce

A

blue green pigment called pyocyanin. has a grape like odor.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

which two bugs inhibit protein synthesis with an exotoxin that causes a decrease in elongation factor 2 (EF2)?

A

pseudomonas aeriginosa and corynbacteria diptheria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

does pseudomonas produce endotoxin or exotoxin?

A

both! endotoxin gives fever and shock while exotoxin A inactivates EF2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

what disease gives chronic pneumonia in CF patients

A

pseudomonas aerginosa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

diseases associated with pseudomonas aerginosa infections

A

PSEUDO: pneumonia (especially in CF), sepsis, external otitis (swimmers ear), UTI, Drug use and diabetic osteomyelitis. also can cause hot tub folliculitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

ecthyma gangrenosum

A

this is a rapidly progressive necrotic cutaneous lesion caused by pseudomonas aerginosa. mostly seen in imuno compromised patients.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

treatment for pseudomonas infection?

A

aminoglycoside plus extended spectrum penicillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

malignant otitis externa in diabetics

A

caused by pseudomonas aeriginosa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

E coli has 3 virulence factors

A

fimbrae- cystitis and pylonephritis
K capsule- pneumonia and neonatal meningitis
LPS endotoxin- septic shock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

EIEC infection

A

I is for INVASION. microbe invades the intestinal mucosa and causes necrosis and inflammation. clinical manifestations similar to Shigela. causes dysentery.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

ETEC infection

A

T is for enteroToxins. heat labile and heat stabile enterotoxins. no inflammation and no invasion. T is also for Traveler’s diarrhea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

EPEC infection

A

P is for pediatrics. usually seen in kids.

adheres to the apical surface, flattens villi and prevents absorption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

EHEC infection

A

classic- O157H7- most common serotype. Shiga like exotoxin that produces a hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS: thrombocytopenia, anemia, and acute renal failure). get mechanical hemolysis (schistocytes formed) and decreased renal blood flow. microthrombi consume platelets. does not ferment sorbitol (distinguishes it from other types).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Klebsiella features

A

fast fermenter (lactose) with E.coli.

intestinal flora that can cause lobar pneumonia in alcoholics and diabetics when aspirated.

abundant polysaccharide capsules. causes red “current” jelly sputum.

can also cause nosocomial UTIs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

does salmonella or shigella have a flagella

A

salmonella (swims like a salmon)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

how does salmonella spread

A

hematogenously

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

how does shigella spread

A

cell to cell transmission. NOT HEMATOGENOUS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

salmonella reservoirs

A

many of them

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

shigella reservours

A

only humans and primates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

does salmonella or shigella produce H2S gas?

A

salmonella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

are antibiotics better for salmonella or shigella?

A

shigella. abx can actual lengthen the time of fecal excretion of the organism in salmonella

62
Q

what type of cell response is seen in salmonella

A

monocytes after invasion

63
Q

what type of cell response is seen in shigella

A

PMNs after invasion

64
Q

which of salmonella or shigella more commonly causes bloody diarrhea

A

shigella more commonly does. both can

65
Q

which of salmonella or shigella can ferment lactose?

A

neither

66
Q

which of salmonella or shigella are oxidase negative

A

both

67
Q

bug that causes typhoid fever

A

salmonella typhi. rose red spots on the abdomen, fever, headache, and diarrhea. can remain in the gallbladder and use a carrier state.

68
Q

campylobacter jejuni characteristics

A

this is a gram negative, comma shaped, oxidase positive organism. fecal oral transmission through foods. poultry, meat, unpasteurized milk. comma or s shaped. grows at 42 degrees. “camp likes the hot fire”.

69
Q

what disease does infection with campylobacter jejuni often come before?

A

Guillane Barre syndrome (ascending paralysis migrating from hands and feet toward the trunk, with weakness) and reactive arthritis.

70
Q

what infection gives rice water diarrhea

A

most commonly vibrio cholera. it does through an enterotoxin that permanently activates Gs, increasing cAMP.

71
Q

vibrio cholera characteristics

A

comma shaped organism that is gram negative and oxidase positive. grows in alkaline media.

72
Q

Helicobacter pylori characteristics

A

comma shaped, oxidase positive organism. it is also catalase and urease positive. so it is catalase, urease and oxidase positive. creates an alkaline environment.

73
Q

diseases caused by helicobactery pylori

A

gastritis, peptic ulcers (most commonly duodenal). risk factor for gastric adenocarcinoma and lymphoma.

74
Q

how to diagnose h pylori infection

A

urease breath test or fecal antigen testing.

75
Q

triple therapy for H pylori infection

A

PPI + clarithromycin + amoxicillin/metronidazole (flagyl)

76
Q

what usually transmits Yersnina enterolitica?

A

usually transmitted by pet feces like puppies, contaminated milk, or pork.

77
Q

what disease does yersinia enterolitica cause?

A

mesenteric adenitis (inflammation of abdominal nodes) that can mimic crohns or appendicitis

78
Q

what are the three important spirochetes?

A

spiral shaped bacteria with axial filaments. includes…

Borrelia, Leptospira, Treponema (BLT)

79
Q

how to visualize borrelia

A

this is the “big” spirochete so it can be seen using aniline dyes (wright or giemsa stain) in light microscopy

80
Q

how to visualize treponema

A

requires dark field microscopy

81
Q

Leptospira interrogans features

A

found in water contaminated with animal urine.

82
Q

leptospirosis

A

flu like symptoms, jaundice and photophobia with conjunctival suffision (erythema without exudate).

83
Q

who gets leptospirosis

A

surfers in the tropics like Hawaii

84
Q

Weil disease

A

severe infection with leptospira interrogans. also known as icterohemorraghic leptospirosis- severe form with jaundice, azotemia from renal and liver dysfunction, fever, hemorrhage and anemia

85
Q

what disease is caused by borrelia burgdorfi

A

lyme disease

86
Q

what is the vector that transmits lyme disease

A

Ixodes.. this is also the vector for babesia

87
Q

natural reservoir for lyme disease

A

the mouse

88
Q

rash associated with lyme disease

A

bulls eye rash called erythema migrans.

89
Q

early symptoms of lyme disease

A

erythema migrans, flu like symptoms, can have a facial nerve palsy

90
Q

late symptoms of lyme disease

A

monoarthritis (large joints), migratory polyarthritis, cardiac (AV node) block, neurologic things such as encephalopathy, facial nerve palsy, polyneuropathy.

91
Q

what is important about the facial nerve palsy that can be seen in lyme disease

A

it is most commonly bilateral

92
Q

treatment for lyme

A

doxycycline and ceftriaxone

93
Q

bacteria that causes syphilis

A

treponema palidum

94
Q

treatment for syphilis

A

Penicillin G

95
Q

primary syphilis features

A

painless chancre

dark field microscopy will show the bug

96
Q

what is serologic testing for syphillis

A

VDRL/RPR are non specific and you can confirm the diagnosis with specific test like FTA ABS

97
Q

secondary syphilis features

A

disseminated disease with constitutional symptoms like maculopapular rash on palms and soles, condylomata lata= wart like lesions on the genitals

98
Q

tertiary syphilis features

A

gummas (chronic granulomas), aortitis from vasa vasorum destruction, neurosyphilis (tabes dorsalis or general paresis), argyl robertson pupil. broad based ataxia, positive rhomberg, charcot joints, stroke without hypertension

99
Q

congenital syphilis signs

A

saber shins, saddle nose, CN VIII deafness, Hutchinson teeth, mulberry molars. to prevent, treat mother early in pregnancy as placental transmission typically occurs after the first trimester.

100
Q

argyle robertson pupil

A

prostitute pupil- accommodates but does not react. associated with tertiary syphillis

101
Q

false positive VDRL

A

reacts with beef cariolipin. many false positives including viral infections like mono or hepatitis, drugs, rheumatic fever, lupus and leprosy.

102
Q

Jarisch Herxheimer reaction

A

reaction can be seen once penicillin G is started for syphillis. it is flu like symptoms after the abx are started due to killed bacteria releasing pyrogens.

103
Q

Gardenalla vaginalis

A

gram variable rod involved in vaginosis. gray vaginal discharge with a fishy odor. non painful- this is different from vaginITIS. overgrowth from abx use or sexual activity but not sexually acquired. clue cells are seen with the bacteria under the microscope.

104
Q

treatment for vaginosis from gardenala vaginalis

A

metronidazole or clindamycin (treats anerobics)

105
Q

anaplasma source

A

ixodes tick

106
Q

bartonella transmission

A

cat scratch. this is cat scratch fever, bacillary angiomatosis

107
Q

borrelia recurrentis

A

causes relapsing fever and is transmitted through the louse (recurrent due to variable surface antigens)

108
Q

brucella

A

disease: brucellosis/undulant fever. source is unpasturized dairy

109
Q

campylobacter

A

bloody diarrhea. from puppies, livestock, ingestion undercooked meat

110
Q

chlamydophilia psittaci

A

psitticosis, from parrots or other birds

111
Q

coxiella burnetii

A

Q fever, aerosols of cattle or sheep amniotic fluid

112
Q

ehrlicia chaffeensis

A

causes erlichiosis, from lone star ticks

113
Q

francisella tularensis

A

causes tularemia from ticks, rabbits, deer fly

114
Q

leptospira

A

leptospirosis from animal urine

115
Q

mycobacterium leprae

A

leprosy; humans with leprosy or the armidillo

116
Q

pasturella multocida

A

cellultitis, osteomylitis; animal bite from cat or dog

117
Q

Rickettsia prowazekii

A

epidemic typhus; from a louse

118
Q

rickettsia rickettsii

A

Rocky mountain spotted fever; dermacentor ticks

119
Q

Rickettsia typhi

A

endemic typhus; fleas

120
Q

Yersinia pestis

A

plague; rats and prairie dogs are the reservoirs, fleas

121
Q

how to treat all rickettsia illnesses

A

doxicycline

122
Q

things that cause rash on palms and soles

A

CARS: coxsackie virus A infection (hand foot and mouth disease), Rocky mountain spotted fever, Secondary syphilis

123
Q

where do you ind rocky mountain spotted fever?

A

mostly in the southern american states like in North Carolina.

124
Q

what is classic about the rash in rocky mountain spotted fever?

A

starts at the wrists and ankles and then spreads to trunk, palms and soles.

125
Q

classic triad of rocky mountain spotted fever

A

headache, fever, rash (vasculitis). can look like meningitis at first

126
Q

what type of organism is rickettsia

A

obligate intracellular organism that needs CoA and NAD+ because they cannot make their own ATP

127
Q

classic rash of typhus

A

this starts centrally on the TRUNK and spreads out. it SPARES the palms and soles

128
Q

organisms that can cause typus

A

fleas- R typhi, human louse R prowazekii.

129
Q

Is a rash common in erlichiosis

A

rare

130
Q

vector of erlichiosis

A

tick

131
Q

what do you see on histology with erlichiosis

A

monotcytes with morulae or berry like inclusions in the cytoplasm.

132
Q

Anaplasmosis vector

A

tick

133
Q

Anaplasmosis histology findings

A

granulocytes with morulae in cytoplasm

134
Q

what is Q fever

A

infection with Coxiella burnetti- no arthropod vector. tick feces and cattle placenta releas spores that are inhaled as aerosoles.

135
Q

how does Q fever present?

A

pneumonia

136
Q

what type of organism causes chlamydia

A

chlamydiae cannot make their own ATP. obligate intracellular organisms that cause mucosal infections.

137
Q

2 forms of chlamydia. 1) elementary bodies…

A

elementary bodies (small dense), they infect cells and enter the cell via endocytosis. then transforms into a reticulate body.

138
Q

2 forms of chlamydia 2)reticulate body…

A

the reticulate body replicates in the cell by fission and reorganizes into elementary bodies.

139
Q

lab diagnosis of chlymidia

A

cytoplasmic inclusions seen on Giemsa or flourescent antibody stained smear. the chlamydial cell wall is unusual in that it lacks muramic acid

140
Q

what disease is caused by Chlamydia trachomatis

A

reactive arthritis, follicular conjunctivitis, non-gonococcal urethritis and PID

141
Q

treatment of chlymidia infections

A

azithromycin is favored bc 1 dose treatment. can use doxycycline as well

142
Q

Types A, B, C of Chlymida trachomatis

A

chronic infection, blindness (from follicular conjunctivitis) and Africa

143
Q

Types D-K Chlymidia Trachomatis

A

Urethritis, PID, ectopic pregnancy, neonatal pneumonia (staccato cough), neonatal conjunctivitis

144
Q

Types L1, L2 and L3 chlymidia trachomatis

A

lymphogranuloma venereum- small, painless ulcers on genitals and swollen painful inguinal lymph nodes that ulcerate.

145
Q

Mycoplasma pneumoniae

A

classic cause of atypical or walking pneumonia. symptoms include insidious onset, headache, non productive cough, patchy or diffuse interstitial infiltrate. X-ray commonly looks much worse than the patient.

146
Q

what lab test is often elevated in walking or atypical pneumonia

A

IgM cold aggultinins. these can agglutinate or lyse RBCs.

147
Q

how do you grow up Mycoplasma pneumonia

A

on eaton agar with cholesterol.

148
Q

common outbreaks of Mycoplasma pnuemonia

A

in prisons and military recruits- those under 30 yrs age more commonly infected

149
Q

Treatment for Mycoplasma pneumonia

A

macrolide, doxycycline or fluoroquinolone .

150
Q

can you use penicillin for Mycoplasma pneumonia

A

No because Mycoplasma have no cell wall

FA Microbiology (7 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions