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Microbio Exam 3 Flashcards

To pass this fucking class lol

1
Q

What are Gram Positive Cocci?

A

Staphylococcus
Streptococcus

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2
Q

What are Gram negative Cocci?

A

Neisseria

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3
Q

Name two features of Staphylococcus

A

Grapelike clusters
Catalase Positive

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4
Q

Name Two Features of Streptococcus

A

Chains
Catalase Negative

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5
Q

What is the coagulase positive staphyloccous

A

S. aureus

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6
Q

What is the coagulase negative Staphylococcus

A

S. epidermidis
S. saprophyticus

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7
Q

What can S. Aureus cause

A

Folliculitis
Furuncle
Carbuncle
Impegito

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8
Q

What else can Staphylococcus cause?

A

Toxigenic diseases such as food intoxication, staphylococcal scaled skin syndrome, and toxic shock syndrome

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9
Q

What toxin induces bright red flush, blisters, then slow decaudation of the epidermis

A

Exfoliation Toxin

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10
Q

Toxemia leading to shock and organ failure is called

A

Toxic Shock Syndrome

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11
Q

What is the almost always nosocomial normal flora that only causes diseases when it enters the bloodstream

A

S. epidermidis

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12
Q

What is the almost always community acquired UTI in young, sexually active women?

A

Staphylococcus/S. Saprophyticus

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13
Q

What are the classification systems based on the cell walls and the systems based on how it affects the blood

A

First system is called Lancefield classification, Second system is called hemolysis

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14
Q

What is hemolysis?

A

Hemolysis is a classification of how a gram-positive bacteria affects the bloodstream based on how well it eradicates/limits RBC function

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15
Q

What are the B bacteria hemolysis capable of?

A

Breaking down red blood cells, eliminating them entirely

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16
Q

What are A hemolysis bacteria capable of?

A

Partial and incomplete breakdown red blood cells, turning them green

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17
Q

S pyogenes is a

A

Group A-Beta

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18
Q

S. agalactiae is a

A

Group B-Beta

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19
Q

S. pneumoniae

A

N/A - Alpha

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20
Q

The important virulence factor in streptococcus pyogenes

A

M-Protein

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21
Q

What facilitates the spread of streptococcus through tissues

A

Hyaluronidase

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22
Q

What can stimulate fever, rash, and shock?

A

Pyrogenic toxins

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23
Q

What causes superficial lesions to break and form highly contagious crust; often in epidemics in school children

A

Impetigo

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24
Q

What is Streptococcal pharyngitis

A

Strep Throat

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25
Q

What are other diseases caused by S. pyogenes (there are four)

A

Scarlet Fever, Septicemia
Pneumonia, Streptococcal toxic shock syndrome

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26
Q

What follows overt or subclinical pharyngitis in children, causing extensive valve damage in the heart?

A

Rheumatic fever

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27
Q

What is the long term complication of Group A infections that can cause kidney damage and could become chronic?

A

Acute glomerulonephritis

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28
Q

What is the exotoxin that is a superantigen that causes dissolving skin tissue?

A

Necrotizing fasciits

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29
Q

What is the only group B disease that regularly resides in human vagina and is only serious in pregnant women?

A

Streptococcus agalactiae

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30
Q

What is the most serious infection of alpha-hemolysis streptococci that affects the heart

A

Subacute endocarditis

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31
Q

What causes plaque on teeth

A

Streptococcus mutans

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32
Q

What causes 60-70% of all bacterial pneumonias as well as meningitis

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

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33
Q

What are the two gram negative cocci human pathogens

A

Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Neisseria meningitidis

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34
Q

What are the virulence factors of gonorrhea (two)

A

Fimbriae and an IgA protease

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34
Q

What causes gonorrhea

A

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

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35
Q

What causes yellowish discharge, scarring and infertility in men affected by gonorrhea

A

Urethritis

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36
Q

What are the virulence factors for Neisseria meningitis

A

capsules, adhesive fimbriae, IgA protease, endotoxins

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37
Q

What are the medically important gram positive bacilli? (four)

A

Bacillus
Crostridium
Corynebacterium
Listeria

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38
Q

What are the endospore forming bacilli (Two)

A

Bacillus
Clostridium

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39
Q

What is the dense survival unit that develops in a vegetative cell in response to nutrient depravation or other unfavorable conditions?

A

endospore

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40
Q

What are some general characteristics of Bacillus

A

Gram Positive
Endospore Forming
Rods
Mostly Saprobic
Aerobic, facultative anaerobes
Primary habitat is soil

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41
Q

What are the two species of medical importance in Bacillus and what is the motility of them?

A

Anthracis - nonmotile
Cereus - Motile

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42
Q

What are the four types of Anthrax?

A

Cutaneous
Gastrointestinal
Pulmonary
Injectional

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43
Q

What is Bacillus cereus most commonly associated with

A

foods, mainly rice that is undercooked

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44
Q

What are some general characteristics of clostridium

A

Gram Positive
Forms endospores
Anaerobic (dies in presence of oxygen)
Synthesize organic acids, alcohols, exotoxins

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45
Q

What is the most frequent clostridium involved in soft tissue and would infections

A

Clostridium perfringens

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46
Q

What is the localized death of muscle cell fibers caused by clostridium perfringens

A

Myonecrosis

47
Q

What is the removal of diseased tissue / myonecrosis

A

Debridement

48
Q

What causes tetanus or lockjaw

A

Clostridium tetani

49
Q

What causes c-dif, a disease that produces the exotoxin that damages intestines

A

Clostridium difficile

50
Q

What is the intoxication associated with inadequate food preservation?

51
Q

What is the spore-forming anaerobe, commonly inhabiting soil and water

A

Clostridium Botulinum

52
Q

What happens when spores enter wound and cause food poisoning symptoms

A

Wound botulism

53
Q

What are non-spore forming gram-positive bacteria that are resistant to cold, heat, salt, ph extremes, and biles

A

Listeria monocytogenes

54
Q

What is caused by association with dairy products, poultry, and meat

A

Listeriosis

55
Q

What causes Diphtheroid, a very serious respiratory condition

A

Corynebacterium Diphtheriae

56
Q

What are the two stages of Diphtheria

A
  1. Local infection in the upper respiratory tract infection (primary infection)
  2. Diphtherotoxin production and toxemia, Targeting heart and nerves
57
Q

What are the general characteristics of Mycobacterium

A

Gram-positive
acid-fast
Irregular bacteria
Strict Aerobes
Produce Catalase (reduces hydrogen peroxide)

58
Q

Mycobacterium is a _______

A

Acid-Fast Bacilli

59
Q

What are the clinical methods of detecting TB (tuberculosis)

A
  1. Tuberculin sensitivity (Mantoux test)
    In vireo TB test
    Chest x-ray
    Acid-fast Staining
    Cultural isolation and biochemical testing
60
Q

What causes leprosy/Hansen’s diseases

A

Mycobacterium leprae

61
Q

What is the cause of dissimilated mycobacterial infection in aids

A

Mycobacterium avium complex bacilli

62
Q

What are the two forms of leprosis?

A

Tuberculoid
Lepromatous

63
Q

What causes Bacilli ulcers

A

Mycobacterium ulcerans

64
Q

What causes turberculosis

A

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

65
Q

pseudomonas is a _______ pathogen

A

opportunistic

66
Q

Brucella and Francisella are _____ pathogens

67
Q

Bordetella and Legionella are ______ pathogens

A

(mainly) human

68
Q

What are some characteristics of Pseudomonas aeruginosa

A

Common cause of nosocomial (hospital-borne) infections in hosts with burns, neoplastic disease, cystic fibrosis that causes complications such as pneumonia, UTI, abscesses, otitis, and corneal disease. Multidrug resistant and grapelike odor.

69
Q

What causes tularemia, a zoonotic disease of mammals endemic to rabbits and primary vector is ticks?

A

Francisella tularensis

70
Q

What causes pertussis or whooping cough, and what is the reservoir and transmission?

A

Bordetella pertussis

reservoir - humans
Transmission - Direct contact or inhalation of aerosols

71
Q

What are the virulence factors of Bordetella pertussis

A

-Receptors that recognize and bind to ciliated respiratory epithelial cells
Toxins that destroy and dislodge ciliated cells lead to buildup of mucus and blockage of airways

72
Q

What are the three stages of Bordetella pertussis

A
  1. Catarrhal stage (common cold)
  2. Paroxysmal stage - Violent coughing sieges
  3. Convalescence stage
73
Q

What is the disease widely distributed in water, in close association with amoebas that has men at +50 at high risk (especially those in the HVAC industry)

A

Legionella pneumophila

74
Q

What are coliforms?

A

lactose fermenters

75
Q

The meaning of H is

A

flagellar antigen

76
Q

The meaning of K is

A

Capsule and/or fimbrial antigen

77
Q

The meaning of O is

A

The somatic or cell wall antigen

78
Q

Not all species carry ______ or _____ antigens but all have ____

A

Not - H or K
All - O

79
Q

E-Coli causes

A

70%~ of traveler’s diarrhea
50-60% of UTIs

80
Q

What inhabit of respiration tract that has a large capsule, cause of nosocomial pneumonia, meningitis, bacteremia, wound infection, UTI and is opportunistic as well as drug-resistant

A

Klebsiella pneumoniae

81
Q

What are the two true enteric pathogens

A

Salmonellooses and Shigelloses

82
Q

Typhoid fever is caused by _____ with ____ reservoir and _____ transmission

A

Salmonella typhi, human, fecal-oral

83
Q

Salmonellosis other than typhoid fever are called

A

Enteric fever

84
Q

Salmonella enteritis is all _______ in origin but ____ can become carriers

A

Zoonotic in nature but humans can become carriers

85
Q

What is the common incapacitating dysentery

A

Shigellosis

86
Q

What caused the plague

A

Yersinia pestis

87
Q

What is humans developing plague through contact with wild animals

A

Sylvatic plague

88
Q

Urban plague is

A

Developing the plague through contact (human contact?)

89
Q

hemophiles is ______ loving

90
Q

What causes acute bacterial meningitis

A

H. influenzae

91
Q

What is the chancroid, soft chance STI that requires factor X

A

H. ducreyi

92
Q

What are the features of spirochetes

A

Gram-negative human pathogens
Free living saprobes, commensal of animals
Not primary pathogens

93
Q

What are three of the spirochete genus (that we cover)

A

treponema
Leptospira
Borrelia

94
Q

What is the cause of Syphilis, and what is the reservoir

A

Treponema pallidum

human reservoir

95
Q

What are some features of leptospirosis

A

Tiny, regular individual coils will bend or hook at one or both ends

96
Q

What are leptosomatic, a zoonosis disease

A

Leptospira interorgan

97
Q

What causes lyme disease

A

B. burgdorferi

98
Q

How is B. burgdorferi/Lyme disease transmitted?

A

through ticks

99
Q

What are the comma-shaped rods with single polar flagellum

100
Q

What is the spirochete with tight spirals and several polar flagella

A

Helicobacter

101
Q

what is the gastroenteritis from raw seafood

A

Vibrio parahaemolyticus

102
Q

What is the gastroenteritis from raw oysters

A

Vibrio vulnificus

103
Q

What is the gastric pathogen that produces urease which coverts urea into ammonium and bicarbonate

A

Helicobacter pylori

104
Q

The intracellular pathogen that rely on arthropod vector are called

A

Rickettsia

105
Q

The intracellular pathogens that alternate between elementary and reticulate bodies is called

106
Q

what lacks a cell wall and are highly pleomorphic

A

Mycoplasma

107
Q

What is the cause and vector epidemic typhus

A

R. prowazekii
Vector - Lice

108
Q

What is the cause and vector of endemic typhus

A

R. typhi
Vector - Flea

109
Q

What causes rocky mountain settled fever and what is the vector

A

R. rickettsii
Vector - Ticks

110
Q

What is the agent of cat-scratch disease

A

Bartonella_henselae

111
Q

What is the Lancefield classification based on?

112
Q

What is the severe case of Tetanus caused primarily in people with a large amount of muscle mass?

A

Opisthotonos

113
Q

The release of toxins during __________ may cause hemorrhage, coagulation, and vascular damage, leading to necrosis of tissue especially in the extremities

A

meningococcemia

114
Q

Woolsorter’s disease is

A

Bacillus anthracist / anthrax

Microbio (5 decks)

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