Microbial methods Flashcards

1
Q

3 features of the epidermis that lead to it being a good barrier to infection?

A

mechanical barrier, low pH, production of antimicrobial fatty acids/defensis

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2
Q

antimicrobial defensins are produced by which cell types?

A

epithelial cells in skin and mucosa

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3
Q

microbes “changing their coats” to evade immune cell recognition is called what?

A

antigenic variation

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4
Q

Does genetic rearrangement or genetic reassortment lead to antigenic shift?

A

reassortment leads to antigenic SHIFT, rearrangement (e.g. recombination, gene conversion, site-specific inversion) leads to antigenic drift

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5
Q

Protein A produced by S. aureus helps the organism do what?

A

evade phaocytosis by competitively binding to Fc portion of antibodies

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6
Q

chronic viral infections can lead to “t-cell exhaustion,” in part due to increased expression of which surface protein?

A

PD-1

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7
Q

a bacterial trait that allos them to turn on gene expression and express specific traits only when the organism grows to a high concentration is called what?

A

Quorum sensing

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8
Q

which receptor does lipoteichoic acid bind to?

A

TLR-2

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9
Q

bacterial toxins that stimulate a high number of T lymphocytes leading to massive T cell prolifeartion and potentially SIRS are called what?

A

superantigens

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10
Q

What are the 5 main types of functions provided two the infectious agent by virulence factors?

A
  1. Colonize (adhesins ) 2. Invade (invasins) 3. evade 4. suppress 5. acquire (siderophores)
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11
Q

Which cell in the GIT is not covered by mucus?

A

M-cells in Peyer’s patches

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12
Q

where in the GIT would you encounter follicle associated epithelium (FAE?)

A

Peyer’s patches

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13
Q

centrifugal turbulance is a physical barrier encountered in which portal of entry?

A

Respiratory

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14
Q

which three cell types are most often involved in “leukocyte trafficking” by infectious agents?

A

Macrophages/monocytes, lymphocytes, dendritic cells

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15
Q

what is the most common type of cell used as a target for microbes?

A

epithelial cells

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16
Q

what is the primary target of colonization and replication for Swine dysentery (B. hyodysenteriae)?

A

goblet cells of the colon and cecum

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17
Q

mucus is a strong chemoattractant for which types of bacteria?

A

spirochetes

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18
Q

what is the primary target of colonization for Mycoplasma hyopneumoniae, the causitive agent of porcine enzootic pneumonia?

A

Cilia

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19
Q

Which bacterial agent colonizes ciliated respiratory epithelial cells and uses neuraminidase to injure and destroy respiratory cilia?

A

Manheimia hemolytica

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20
Q

By which mechanism does lawsonia intracellularis enter the cells of the intestinal crypts?

A

endocytosis (phagocytosis) - escapes before phagosome-lysosome fusion occurs

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21
Q

which virus of pigs crosses the mucosal barrier by using M-cells?

A

Porcine circovirus type II - PMWS

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22
Q

receptor mediated endocytosis generally occurs on which cell surface? what about exocytosis?

A

endocytosis occurs on the apical surface, exocytosis occurs on the basolateral surface

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23
Q

which virulence factor does Leptospira use to penetrate endothelial cells and vascular walls?

A

invasive motility

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24
Q

parvovirus uses receptors expressed only on which cell surface to gain entry?

A

basolateral

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25
Q

influenza virus uses receptors expressed only on which cell surface to gain entry?

A

apical

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26
Q

sheep pox and goat pox viruses directly enter which cell type to gain entry to MALT?

A

dendritic cells

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27
Q

which bacterial disease of horses gains entry via leukocyte trafficking in mucosal associated macrophages?

A

R. equi

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28
Q

which viral disease of cattle gains entry via nerve endings and then spreads via retrograde axonal transport?

A

Bovine herpes virus 5

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29
Q

which bacterial pathogen of poultry utilizes galactosidases and glucosaminidases to reduce the viscosity of mucus making it less dense?

A

Necrotizing enteritis (Clostridium perfringes)

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30
Q

The genetic region in cattle called “BOLA” encodes which types of proteins related to immune responses?

A

MHC

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31
Q

epitheliogenesis imperfecta in horses, cattle, and pigs as well as primary ciliar dyskinesia in young dogs are both autosommal recessive hereditary diseases that increase susceptibility to infections due to decreased __________ function.

A

barrier

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32
Q

granulocytopathy is an autosomal recessive hereditary disease that leads to decreased levels of which molecule, leading to decreased ability of neutrophils to kill bacteria in the phagosome?

A

NADPH (leading to decreased hydrogen peroxide)

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33
Q

metabolic deragements in purine or pyrimidine metabolism may cause which leukocyte disorder in dogs?

A

cyclic hematopoeisis

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34
Q

which bacterium most often forms “grape like clusters” of cocci?

A

staphylococcus

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35
Q

which type of virulence factor inhibits biochemical pathways within a cell?

A

Exotoxins

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36
Q

which type of virulence factor stimulates macrophages and endothelial cells to secrete proinflammatory cytokines and NO to cause cell dysfunction and lysis?

A

Endotoxins

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37
Q

which type of virulence factor causes cell lysis?

A

hemolysins

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38
Q

how does Clostridium septicum penetrate the mucus layer?

A

it digests the mucus layer with enzymes and consumes it as a carbon source

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39
Q

Type P fimbria are used by which type of E coli?

A

Uropathogenic

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40
Q

K99 pilus adhesion is used by which type of E coli?

A

enterotoxic

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41
Q

Which type of bacteria utilizes an invasin that acts on actin filaments to promote its own endocytosis?

A

Listeria monocytogenes

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42
Q

which bacterium utilizes M protein and a hyaluronic acid capsule to evade immune recognition

A

Streptococcus pyogenes

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43
Q

which type of toxins are released from living bacteria?

A

exotoxins

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44
Q

lipoteichoic acid is released from which type of bacteria?

A

dead gram positive bacteria

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45
Q

endotoxins are released from which type of bacteria?

A

dead gram negative bacteria

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46
Q

which type of bacteria produces a diptheria-like toxin that inhibits protein synthesis?

A

Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis

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47
Q

which type of bacteria produces heat labile and stabile enterotoxins that activate ion and water pumps?

A

Enterotoxigenic e coli

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48
Q

which type of bacterial toxin utilizes SNARE protein cleavage to inactivate selective proteins?

A

Tetanus and Botulism

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49
Q

in the A-B toxin system, which part binds to the receptor and which part enters the cytoplasm?

A

A enters cytoplasm, B binds receptor

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50
Q

Which parts of LPS are toxic? which are immunogenic?

A

The lipid A component is toxic, the polysaccharide component is immunogenic

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51
Q

E coli and salmonella use which type of secretion system?

A

Type III

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52
Q

what is the function of enterobactin, a virulence factor from E coli and salmonella?

A

siderophore - scavenges bound iron and makes it available for bacteria

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53
Q

clusters of genes that encode virulence factors are called what?

A

pathogenecity islands

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54
Q

the process by which bacteria pass genes to their “offspring” during DNA replication is called what?

A

vertical gene transfer

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55
Q

the process by which bacteria pass genes to other bacteria is called what? What are three ways they can do this?

A

Horizontal gene transfer - through conjugations with plasmids, transformation (DNA are taken up by viable bacteria), or bacteriophages (bacterial viruses)

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56
Q

which is the only strain of E coli to invade mucosal enterocytes to cause cell death and a malabsorptive diarrhea?

A

EHEC

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57
Q

which strain of E coli causes secretory diarrhea due to functional enterocyte disruption?

A

ETEC

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58
Q

which strain of E coli causes osmotic diarrhea due to structural enterocyte disruption?

A

EPEC

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59
Q

which strain of E coli causes “attaching and effacement” injury to the SI?

A

EPEC

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60
Q

which strain of E coli uses a type III secretion system to inject bacterial proteins (ESPA, ESPB, ESPD) into the enterocyte?

A

EPEC

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61
Q

verotoxin is a virulence factor utilized by which strains of E coli?

A

EPEC and EHEC

62
Q

which strain of E coli uses Shiga toxins?

63
Q

what is the target cell for EHEC?

A

enterocytes of the colon

64
Q

which strain of E coli can cause septicemic colibacillosis?

65
Q

paratyphoid nodules may be seen with infection with which bacterial species?

A

Salmonella

66
Q

button ulcers are a lesion associated with the chronic form of which bacterial pathogen?

A

salmonella

67
Q

The type I secretion system used by salmonella spp. has what effect on macrophages?

A

induces apoptosis due to caspase 1 activation

68
Q

injestion of anti-trypsin in colostrum may increased the susceptibiliy to which bacterial disease?

A

Clostridium perfringes

69
Q

which bacterial pathogen secretes exotoxins such as edema factor (EF) and lethal factor (LF)?

A

Bacillus anthracis

70
Q

Which bacterial disease of horses uses virulence factors called “VAPs” to block phagosome lysosome fusion and then replicates in macrophages?

A

Rhodococcus equi

71
Q

Which bacterial disease of cattle requires iron for growth inside the phagosome of tissue macrophages?

A

Mycobacterium avium ssp. pseudotuberculosis

72
Q

What is the incubuation period of Johne’s disease?

A

> 12 months

73
Q

Which bacterial disease of swine causes massive thickening of the mucosal surface of the GIT?

A

Lawsonia intracellularis

74
Q

Which bacterial disease of swine infects mucinogen droplets within goblet cells of the cecum and colon?

A

Brachyspira hyodysenteriae

75
Q

Which bacterium produces large quantities of phospholipase C (aka beta toxin or beta lechthinase) to cause hemolysis?

A

Clostridium hemolyticum

76
Q

Which bacterial pathogen typically occurs after an animal has been infected with liver flukes?

A

Clostridium hemolyticum

77
Q

fomites containing endospores much be less than what size in order to reach the gas exchange portion of the respiratory system?

78
Q

Which bacterial respiratory pathogen utilizes the virulence factor “leukotoxin” in its pathogenesis?

A

Manheimia hemolytica

79
Q

How does Manheimia hemolytica use neuraminidase in its pathogenesis?

A

Reduces the viscosity of mucus to allow the bacterium to access cell membranes via random brownian movement and reduces the net negative surface charge to allow closer contact of the bacteria with the cell

80
Q

A dorsal diaphragmatic distribution pattern is seen in which porcine respiratory disease?

81
Q

APX toxin is synthesized and released by which respiratory pathogen of swine to cause lysis of the macrophage that it is replicating within?

A

Actinobacillus pleuropneumoniae

82
Q

which two pathogens can cause atrophic rhinitis in swine?

A

Bordetella bronchiseptica and Pasteurella multocida

83
Q

which bacterial pathogen of swine has virulence factors that include dermonecrotic toxin (DNT) and pertactin?

A

Bordetella bronchiseptica - Pasteurella multocida also has PMT toxin which is also a DNT

84
Q

What do white spotted kidney disease (E. coli), embolic nephritis (actinobacillus equuli), bacterial hepatitis (E coli and fusobacterium necrophorum), and bacterial endocarditis (E. coli) have in common?

A

All cause embolic disease

85
Q

what is the causitive agent of edema disease in pigs?

86
Q

Which E coli strains produce verotoxin (Shiga toxin 2)?

A

Hemolytic strains

87
Q

Pilli of UPEC strains bind to uroplakins expressed on which type of cell?

A

Specialized transitional epithelial cell (umbrella cell)

88
Q

Name 4 virulence factors used by E coli in the pathogenesis of necrohemorrhagic cystitis

A

Capsular (K antigen), exotoxins (LT and ST toxins, shiga like toxin), P and S fimbriae for adhesion, siderophores

89
Q

What is the target cell for renal leptospirosis?

A

proximal tubular epithelial cell

90
Q

what is the causitive agent of contagious bovine pyelonephritis?

A

Corynebacterium, truperella, e coli

91
Q

Which clostridial toxin is an important virulence factor in the pathogenesis of pulpy kidney disease?

A

E-toxin (pore forming permease)

92
Q

Phospholipase D and mycolic acid are virulence factors of which bacterial agent? What are their functions?

A

Corynebacterium pseudotuberculoss - Phospholipase D increases vascular permeability to facilitate systemic spread (the bacteria replicates within macrohages), and it injures cell membranes leading to macrophage and neutrophil dysfunction. The mycolic acid is a waxy coating that induces inflammation and prevents phagosome-lysosome fusion.

93
Q

which clostridium disrupts neurotransmitter release at myoneuronal junctions? which at neural-neural junctions?

A

Myoneuronal = botulinum, neural-neural = tetani

94
Q

which clostridial toxin goes hematogenously and which goes via retrograde axonal transport?

A

botulinum = hematogenous, tetani = retrograde axonal transport

95
Q

free tetanus toxin binds to the cell membrane of which type of neurons (inhibitory or excitatory?)

A

inhibitory

96
Q

Disruption of the synaptic cleft fusion complex prevents release of which neurotramitters for botulism and tetanus?

A

Achetylcholine for botulism and GABA for tetanus

97
Q

Where in the CNS does L monocytogenes localize to?

A

The brainstem

98
Q

what is the function of the virulence factor listerolysin O?

A

immune evasion

99
Q

which pathogen uses actin-based motility via virulence factor ActA?

100
Q

Which bacterial disease has been shown to activate bovine platelets and increase expression of adhesion molecules on endothelial cells - leading to activation of clotting cascades?

A

Thrombotic meningoencephalitis (Histophilus somni)

101
Q

what is the causitive agent of focal symmetric encelphaomalacia in ruminants?

A

Clostridium perfringes

102
Q

Edema disease is caused by which strain of E. coli?

A

Hemolytic strains

103
Q

which bacterial disease of pigs leads to sebaceous gland hyperplasia?

A

Greasy pig disease (Staph hyicus)

104
Q

Which type of virulence factor removes sialic acid from glycoproteins, glycolipids, and oligosaccharides, exposing new receptors for the bacterium?

A

Neuraminidase

105
Q

In the context of viral disease, what is the difference between a susceptible cell and a permissive cell?

A

Susceptible cell is any cell a virus can infect, a permissive cell is any cell that a virus can infect and go through a full replicative cycle. Virus infected permissive cells are usually killed by the virus, whereas virus infected susceptible cells are usually not killed by the virus

106
Q

what is the mechanism of cell death with parvo virus? what about distemper virus?

A

parvo = lysis distemper = apoptosis

107
Q

Where are pox viral inclusion bodies found?

A

in the cytoplasm - even though they are a DNA virus

108
Q

which genus of RNA viruses replicate in the nucleus?

A

Orthomyxoviruses

109
Q

how are enveloped vs. non enveloped viruses released from the target cell?

A

non-enveloped released during cell lysis, enveloped released during budding

110
Q

NSP4 is a viral toxin produced by which virus and secreted into the intestinal lumen causing secretory diarrhea?

111
Q

viroporins, endolysins, holins, and spanins are viral proteins that have what effect on cells?

A

Cause cell lysis

112
Q

which type of virus (DNA or RNA) has a higher mutation rate?

A

RNA viruses

113
Q

Which type of virus (DNA or RNA) has a faster replicative speed?

A

DNA viruses

114
Q

in the context of viral pathogenesis, homologous crossing over that results in segmental genomic changes is called what?

A

Antigenic shift

115
Q

which two processes can result in antigenic shift?

A

Recombination (in both DNA and RNA viruses) or reassortment (in RNA viruses only)

116
Q

which process occurs when two or more different strains of the same segmented virus infect the same cell and then reassemble to form a new virus? which types of viruses can do this?

A

Reassortment

117
Q

what are some ways in which interferon protects against viruses?

A

induces protein to block viral attachment, entry and disassemly, activates immune cells, promotes apoptotis of the target cell and cell-mediated immunity to kill target cell

118
Q

ADD FLASHCARDS ABOUT VIRAL DISEASES

119
Q

Which form of candida is pathogenic? the yeast or the hyphae/pseudohyphae?

A

hyphae/pseudohyphae

120
Q

by which process do dimorphic fungi switch forms?

A

morphologic or phenotype switching

121
Q

what is the main factor that influences whether candida are in the yeast or hyphal forms?

A

temp - RT (25C) = yeast, higher temp (37C)= hyphal BUT the yeast can switch this temperature dependence with chromosomal rearrangements and the hyphal form can grow at 25C

122
Q

candida cell wall ligands such as AL and Hwp allow it to do what?

A

adhere to epithelial cells and invade mucosa

123
Q

which virulence factor does the hyphal form of candida use to invade mucosa?

124
Q

which fungal pathogen may result in epithelial hyperplasia and pseudomembrane formation?

125
Q

In dimorphic fungi, which form occurs in extracellular environments (25C) and which form occurs in intracellular environments (37C)?

A

mycelial (microconidial form) in 25C and yeast form in 37C

126
Q

in dimorphic fungi, which form can be killed by macrophages/neutrophils?

A

the mycelial form

127
Q

how does histoplasmosis prevent phagocytosis?

A

prevents acidification of the phagolysosome

128
Q

what is the danger in culturing dimorphic fungi?

A

culturing conditions mimic environmental, not tissue/host conditions, so, when the organism grows, the form is infectious to people

129
Q

what is the function of gliotoxin, fumagillin, verruculogen, and helvoilic acid produced by aspergillus conidia?

A

slow the beat of cilia in the mucociliary aparatus and injure ciliated mucosal epithelial cells

130
Q

which aspergillus virulence factor is thought to be related to its ability to cause pulmonary disease?

A

biofilm formation

131
Q

What are the purpose of fungal virulence factors such as B-glucans and melanin?

A

block killing by ROS

132
Q

which fungal pathogen undergoes endosporulation?

133
Q

Match the mycelial phase (conidia, microconidia, arthroconidia, basidiospores) with the correct dimorphic fungal pathogen: Blasto, crypto, histoplasma, coccidioides

A

conidia (blasto), basidospores (crypto), arthroconidia (coccidioides), microconidia (histoplasma)

134
Q

which dimorphic fungus uses urease to contribute to host tissue damage?

A

Coccidioides

135
Q

BAD1 is an adhesion protein that allows which fungal pathogen to adhere to which macrophage receptor?

A

blastomyces adheres to CR3 and CD14 on alveolar macrophages

136
Q

which fungal pathogen utilizes glucosylceramide synthase to survive in the mucosae

A

cryptococcus

137
Q

which fungal virulence factor (utilized by blasto, cryptococcus and aspergillus) is an antioxidant and eliminates ROS?

138
Q

what does cryptococcus use as a substrate for melanin production?

A

neurotransmitters

139
Q

which protozoal pathogens have “gliding motility” ?

A

cryptosporidium, toxoplasma

140
Q

Tissue tropism of coccidia species is determined by which surface proteins?

141
Q

which protozoal pathogen has an adhesive disk?

142
Q

Variable small proteins (VSPs) are virulence factors of which protozoal pathogen?

143
Q

which protozal pathogen are the oocysts resistant to degradation and can survive years in the environment?

144
Q

What is the differerence between the oocysts shed by cryptosporidium and coccidia?

A

crypto oocysts are sporulated when they are shed and are immediately infections, coccidia need to sporulate in the environment

145
Q

SAGs are ligands for adhesion on which protozoal parasite?

A

Toxoplasma

146
Q

infection in early gestation with Toxoplasma would cause what clinical scenario?

A

Fetal lysis and resorption

147
Q

infection in mid-gestation with toxoplasma would cause what clinical scenario?

A

fetal lysis and mummifaction - possible viable but weak fetuses

148
Q

iinfection in late-gestation with toxoplasma would cause what clinical scenario?

A

no abortion - adaptive immunity

149
Q

intracytoplasmic vacuoles in neurons nd neuropil are hallmark features of which etiologic agent?

150
Q

how to prion diseases get to the CNS?

A

retrograde axonal transport