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Phase 1 > Cell injury, Adaptation, Death > Flashcards

Cell injury, Adaptation, Death Flashcards

1
Q

Protein in hemidesmosome junction

A

desmopenetrin

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2
Q

Protein in desmosome junction

A

desmoglein

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3
Q

Protein in gap junction

A

connexon

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4
Q

protein in adherens junction (2)

A

Cadherin, vinculin

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5
Q

Intermediate filaments are involved in which two types of cellular junctions

A

hemidesmosome, desmosome

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6
Q

actin filaments are involved in which two types of cellular junctions

A

adherens junctions, tight junctions

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7
Q

which signaling pathway determines whether or not enteric stem cells differentiate into cells with secretory or absorptive functions?

A

Notch signaling

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8
Q

organelle specializing in the beta oxidation of fatty acids?

A

Peroxisome

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9
Q

component of the cytoskeleton that gives a cell physical strength and shape

A

intermediate filaments

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10
Q

Is detachment of ribosomes from the ER a sign of reversible or irreversible cellular injury?

A

reversible

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11
Q

are myelin figures a sign of reversible or irreversible cellular injury?

A

reversible

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12
Q

is loss of microvilli a sign of reversible or irreversible cellular injury?

A

reversible

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13
Q

An extreme brachycephalic phenotype is associated with a mis-sense mutation in which gene?

A

BMP3

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14
Q

Which component of the MAC gives it lipophilic properties?

A

C7

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15
Q

What molecule inhibits formation of the MAC?

A

CD59

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16
Q

amorphous densities in the mitochondria are an example of irreversible or reversible cellular injury?

A

irreversible

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17
Q

What is the fundamental mechanism of oncotic necrosis?

A

cell swelling from loss of volume control

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18
Q

The MPT pore is a component of which type of cell death?

A

oncotic necrosis, MPT driven necrosis

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19
Q

Ischemia reperfusion injury involves which type of cell death?

A

necrosis/necroptosis

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20
Q

What is the major mediator of cell death through plasma membrane permeabilization?

A

MLKL

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21
Q

Cyclophillin D is a component of which type of RCD?

A

MPT-necrosis

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22
Q

which form of cell death is triggered by lipid peroxidation

A

ferroptosis

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23
Q

Aspiration pneumonia can cause which type of necrosis in the lung?

A

Gangrenous (wet)

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24
Q

staphylococcus in the mammary gland can cause which type of necrosis?

A

Gangrenous (wet)

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25
Q

saddle thrombus in cats can cause which type of necrosis?

A

Gangrenous (dry)

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26
Q

fescue foot in cattle is what form of necrosis?

A

Gangrenous (dry)

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27
Q

Nutritional fat necrosis (steatitis) can be caused by which vitamin deficiency?

A

Vitamin E

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28
Q

Canine distemper virus is an RNA virus but can sometimes produce intra-nuclear inclusions. Which proteins are attributed to this phenomenon?

A

Heat shock proteins

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29
Q

intranuclear inclusions in renal tubular cells is a sign of what heavy metal toxicity?

A

Lead

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30
Q

Which is sensitive to potassium permanganate, AL or AA amyloid?

A

AA

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31
Q

4 cytokines released by leukocytes that induce proliferation of fibroblasts?

A

IL4, IL5, IL13, TGF-b

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32
Q

Which type of liver cell is the major contributor to fibrosis in the liver?

A

Stellate

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33
Q

White muscle disease from vitamin E and selenium deficiency is a form of which type of calcification?

A

Dystrophic

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34
Q

What is the main target of metastatic calcification

A

tunica intima and tunica media of vessels

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35
Q

ingestion of Cestrum diurnum results in which kind of toxicosis?

A

Vitamin D –> high calcium –> metastatic calcification

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36
Q

Tyrosinase is a copper containing enzyme involved in the synthesis of what pigment?

A

Melanin

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37
Q

Ceroid accumulation in the tunica muscularis of the small intestine can occur as a result of which vitamin deficiency?

A

Vitamin E

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38
Q

Ingestion of sorghum and prunus spp. can lead to which toxicity?

A

Cyanide

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39
Q

Which toxin can convert Hbg to MetHgb?

A

Nitrates

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40
Q

What pigment accounts for the blackening of tracks made by liver flukes?

A

Hematin

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41
Q

Molecule that binds free iron and stores it for future use?

A

Ferritin

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42
Q

What proteins protect telomeric DNA from inappropriate repair?

A

Shelterin complex

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43
Q

Which part of telomerase is a reverse transcriptase?

A

TERT

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44
Q

Over-expression of B-galactosidase or, p16 are associated with a cell in what state?

A

Senescence (SASP)

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45
Q

What effect does p53 have on the SASP?

A

blocks it

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46
Q

p38, PKC, ROS all promote which cellular phenotype?

A

SASP

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47
Q

Polycystic kidney disease, osteogenesis imperfecta, chondrodysplasia have what pattern of inheritence?

A

Autosomal dominant

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48
Q

glycogen storage diseases have which pattern of inheritence?

A

Autosomal recessive

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49
Q

Duschenne’s muscular dystrophy, agammaglobulinemia have which pattern of inheritence?

A

X-linked

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50
Q

What form of DNA repair is utilized by cells with inactive telomeres?

A

Non homologous end joining

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51
Q

what is an example of an x-chromosome monosomy condition in animals?

A

Turner syndrome

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52
Q

Nondisjunction during meiosis is a cause of which chromosomal abnormality

A

aneuploidy

53
Q

Histone acetylation has what effect on transcription?

A

increased transcription

54
Q

What effect do lncRNAs have on gene transcription?

A

can either suppress or activate

55
Q

XIST is an example of which type of RNA?

56
Q

where does autophagy occur?

57
Q

What is the substrate for phospholipase C in the reaction that generates 2nd messengers such as IP3 and diacylglycerol?

A

Phosphatidylinositol

58
Q

Where on the plasma membrane are glycolipids and sphingomyelin located?

59
Q

Which plasma membrane molecules participate in charge-based interactions?

A

Glycolipids and sphingomyelin

60
Q

Where on the membrane is phosphatidylcholine located?

61
Q

The core of primary cilia are formed by which type of cytoskeltal proteins?

A

microtubules

62
Q

Which cytoskeletal protein gives the tensile strength to a cell?

A

Intermediate filaments

63
Q

Which type of cell:cell junction creates a semi-occlusive barrier that restricts the movement of things between cells and also helps to maintain cell polarity?

A

tight junctions (occluding junctions)

64
Q

Which type of cell to cell interaction permits the communication of signals from one cell to another?

A

Gap junctions

65
Q

The unfolded protein response leads to an increase in which type of protein?

A

chaperone proteins

66
Q

senescent organelles are tagged for autophagic destruction by which protein?

67
Q

role of thermogenin or UPC-1?

A

uncouples substrate oxidation from ATP synthesis

68
Q

receptor for most growth factors

A

receptor tyrosine kinases

69
Q

receptor for most chemokines

70
Q

receptor for histamine

71
Q

receptor for cytokines

A

non receptor tyrosine kinase

72
Q

Stimulates epithelial migration and formation of granulation tissue

73
Q

stimulates proliferation of hepatocytes and other epithelial cells

74
Q

enhances proliferation of hepatocytes and other epithelial cells AND increases cell motility

75
Q

stimulates proliferation of endothelial cells and increases vascular permeability

76
Q

Chemotactic for neutrophils, macrophages, smooth muscle cells, fibroblasts. Stimulates fibroblast proliferation and ECM protein synthesis

77
Q

Chemotactic and mitogenic for fibroblasts, stimulates angiogenesis and ECM protein synthesis

78
Q

Chemotactic for leukocytes and fibroblasts, stimulates ECM protein synthesis, suppresses acute inflammation

79
Q

Stimulates keratinocyte migration, proliferation, differentiation

80
Q

Which two GFs are angiogenic?

A

VEGF-A and FGF

81
Q

Which GFs are released by platelets?

A

PDGF, TGF-b

82
Q

GF released by mast cells?

83
Q

GF that acts as a morphogen in embryonic development?

84
Q

Which VEGF is involved in embryonic vessel development?

85
Q

Which VEGF is involved in angiogenesis and lymphangiogenesis?

A

VEGF-C and VEGF-D

86
Q

which VEGF receptor is highly expressed in endothelium and is most important for angiogenesis?

87
Q

Three big inducers of VEGF

A

Hypoxia, PDGF, TGF-a

88
Q

which GF phosphorylates SMAD?

89
Q

ECM components that give it tensile strength and recoil?

A

Collagen and elastin

90
Q

ECM components that give it resistance and lubrication?

A

proteoglycans and hyaluron

91
Q

ECM components that connect elements together?

A

adhesive glycoproteins, fibronectin, laminin

92
Q

what is the main non fibrillar collagen?

93
Q

where in the cell does pro collagen get cleaved and cross linked?

A

extracellular space

94
Q

Three components of the basement membrane

A

Type IV collagen, laminin, proteoglycan

95
Q

Which cyclins are active in the S phase of the cell cycle?

A

CDK1/2 and Cyclin A

96
Q

Which cyclin is essential for the G2-S transition?

A

CDK1 and Cyclin B

97
Q

Which cyclin regulate the G1-S transition by phosphorylating Rb?

A

CDK4/6 and Cyclin D + CDK2 and Cyclin E

98
Q

Which cyclin inhibitors inhibit CDK4/6?

A

p15, p16, p18, p19

99
Q

are nuclear changes such as pyknosis, karyorrhexxis, and karyolysis indicative of necrosis or apoptosis?

100
Q

What is the main component of myelin figures?

A

phospholipids

101
Q

The unfolded protein response can lead to apoptosis via which pathway?

A

Intrinsic (mitochondrial)

102
Q

Are smac/DIABLO antiapoptotic or pro apoptotic?

A

pro-apoptotic - neutralize IAPs

103
Q

which complement system protein coats apoptotic bodies for removal?

104
Q

what is the inhibitor of the extrinsic pathway of apoptosis?

105
Q

what is the inhibitor of the intrinsic pathway of apoptosis?

106
Q

which pathway of apoptosis eliminates self reactive lymphocytes and is a way for CTLs to kill cells?

A

extrinsic pathway

107
Q

BMP is which type of growth factor?

A

TGF-b family

108
Q

which form of cell death is involved in the formation of the mammalian bone growth plate, ischemia reperfusion injury, and neurodegenerative diseases like Parkinsons?

A

Necroptosis

109
Q

Cytomegalovirus encodes caspase inhibitors - which is the backup mechanism for cell death?

A

necroptosis (caspase independent)

110
Q

Mycobacteria, shigella, HSV-1 are degraded via which mechanism?

111
Q

Which free radical has the ability to destroy microbes and cells distant from the site of production?

112
Q

which free radical is generated during aerobic respiration and by leukocytes?

A

superoxide anion

113
Q

inactivation of super oxide anion by SOD creates what?

A

hydrogen peroxide

114
Q

which free radical is formed as a result of hydrolysis of h20 during ionizing radiation?

A

hydroxyl radical

115
Q

what is the most reactive oxygen derived free radical responsible for damaging lipids, proteins, and DNA?

A

hydroxyl radical

116
Q

which enzyme inactivates hydroxyl radical?

A

glutathione peroxidase

117
Q

which free radical is produced during the fenton reaction?

A

hydroxyl radical

118
Q

Which pathway is the most important in physiologic (exercise induced) hypertrophy?

119
Q

which pathway is the most important in pathologic hypertrophy?

A

GPCR pathways (TGFb, IGF, FGF)

120
Q

GATA4 and MFAT are important transcription factors to which pathologic process?

A

hypertrophy

121
Q

what effect does activation of the CDKN2A locus have on cellular senescence?

A

promotes senescence via p16 (INK4a) stopping cells from going through the G1-S transition.

122
Q

deficiency of the chaperones of the heat shock protein family would have what effect on cellular aging?

A

promotes cellular aging

123
Q

what are the functions of heat shock proteins?

A

help proteins fold and function properly

124
Q

Rapamacyin promotes autophagy by inhibiting what?

125
Q

which growth factor is important in nutrient sensing pathway involving AKT and mTOR?

126
Q

what effect do sirtuins have on longevity?

A

increases it

127
Q

what effect does mTOR inhibition have on longevity?

A

increases it

128
Q

What enzyme is involved in Base Excision Repair (BER)?

129
Q

During T-cell mediated apoptosis, which caspase is activated by Granzyme B?

A

Caspase 10

Phase 1 (10 decks)

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