Immunity Flashcards
1
Q
Two outcomes of TLR activation
A
NFkB signaling and IRF signaling
2
Q
two outcomes of NFkB signaling
A
cytokine secretion, expression of adhesion molecules
3
Q
signaling pathway that detects uric acid crystals in gout
A
NLRs
4
Q
receptor for fungal glycans
A
C-type lectin
5
Q
receptors that stimulate STING pathway to produce IFN-a
A
RIG like receptors
6
Q
type of leukocyte receptor that recognizes N-formylmethionyl residues and promotes leukocyte chemotaxis towards microbes?
A
GPCR
7
Q
CD molecule expressed by NK cells
A
CD16
8
Q
what does CD16 bind?
A
Fc region of IgG for ADCC
9
Q
two cytokines that stimulate NK cell proliferation
A
IL-2 and IL-15
10
Q
cytokine that activates NK cell killing and IFN-y secretion
A
IL-12
11
Q
part of TCR that is conserved (identical) on all T-cells
A
CD3
12
Q
function of CD3 on TCR
A
signal transduction when ab binds
13
Q
CD molecule recognized by NK T-cells
A
CD-1
14
Q
what promotes attachment of T-cells to APCs?
A
integrins
15
Q
Igs present on mature, naive B-cells
A
IgM and IgD
16
Q
function of Ig-alpha (CD79a) and Ig-beta (CD79b) in Ig receptor?
A
invariant - functions in signal transduction (similar to CD3)
17
Q
B cell complement receptor
A
CR2 (CD21)
18
Q
most important cell for initiating T-cell responses against protein antigens
A
DC
19
Q
B-cell signal 2
A
CD21 binding complement
20
Q
receptors on follicular DCs
A
Fc receptors for IgG and C3b - to trap Ag bound to complement
21
Q
proteins loaded onto MHC molecules are associated with which other protein to form the complex?
A
B2 microglobulin
22
Q
which MHC molecule displays peptides derived from cytoplasmic proteins?
A
MHC-1
23
Q
which MHC molecule displays peptides derived from extracellular microbes?
A
MHC-2
24
Q
which type of Th response induces defensin gene expression
A
Th17
25
which vitamin increases cathelicidin expression?
Vit D
26
most important factor for macrophage growth, proliferation, differentiation and survival
CSF-1
27
which type of splenic macrophage captures blood borne antigens?
marginal zone macs
28
which type of splenic macrophages is important for defense against hematogenous pathogens and iron processing?
splenic macrophages
29
which type of splenic macrophage produces type I IFNs?
metallophilic macrophages
30
a defect in which splenic macrophage could lead to autoimmune disease?
tingible body
31
which is a CD molecule (and C-type lectin) expressed exclusively by Langerhans cells?
CD207
32
which type of DCs are in germinal centers?
follicular - do not express MHC, present Ag bound to IgG or complement to B cells
33
which type of DCs produce large amounts of type I IFNs?
plasmacytoid
34
type of cell that produces IgM specific for polysaccharide and lipid and produce natural "circulating abs"
B-1 cells
35
Survival of T-cells that bind moderately to MHC complexes is called what?
positive selection
36
elimination of T-cells that bind too strongly to MHC complexes is called what?
negative selection
37
what type of TCR is on NK-T lymphocytes?
alpha-beta
38
Neuropillin I is a marker for which cell type?
T-regs
39
polysaccharides and lipids induce secretion of which type of Ab?
IgM
40
which MHC locus encodes proteins involved in Ag processing and presentation?
Class II
41
Which MHC locus encodes proteins involved in complement system and TNF-a, TNF-b?
class II
42
CLIP is involved with antigen presentation on which type of MHC molecule?
MHC-II
43
which molecule is induced on activated T-cells and competitively inhibits B7 binding?
CTLA-4
44
type of DC present in skin, mm, iris, ciliary body
Langerhans cell
45
type of DC present in most major organs
interstitial DC
46
type of DC present in T-lymphocyte areas of secondary lymphoid organs
Interdigitating DC
47
circulating DCs are also called what?
veiled cells
48
DC that is not derived from BM, does not present Ag, and do not have MHC-II molecules?
follicular DC - maintenance and memory of B lymphs
49
TAP is a protein required for presentation on which MHC complex?
MHC-I (involved in cross presentation by DCs)
50
Type of HS reaction: Myasthenia gravis
Type II
51
Type of HS reaction: autoimmune thrombocytopenic purpura
Type II
52
Type of HS reaction: pemphigus
Type II
53
Type of HS reaction: vasculitis caused by ANCA
Type II
54
Type of HS reaction: pernicious anemia
Type II
55
Type of HS reaction: Atopic allergy
Type I
56
Type of HS reaction: anaphylaxis
Type I
57
Type of HS reaction: transfusion reactions
Type II
58
Type of HS reaction: systemic lupus
Type III
59
type of HS reaction: serum sickness
Type III
60
Type of HS reaction: arthus reaction
Type III
61
Type of HS reaction: contact dermatitis
Type IV
62
Type of HS reaction: transplant rejection
Type IV
63
Type of HS reaction: chronic allergic disease
Type IV
64
Type of HS reaction: tuberculosis
Type IV
65
ADCC activates which apoptosis pathway?
extrinsic
66
Pernicious anemia is a type II hypersensitivity reaction to which protein?
IF of gastric parietal cells --> decreased B12 absorption and abnormal erythropoeisis
67
slight excess of what can lead to a type III HS reaction?
antigens
68
Blue eye in dogs, allergic pneumonitis in ruminants, recurrent airway obstruction in horses, reactive arthritis are all types of what?
Arthus reactions - Type III HS
69
Type of HS reaction: serum sickness
Type III
70
Type of HS reaction: EIA
Type III
71
Type of HS reaction: Johne's disease
Type IV
72
Type of HS reaction: ERU
Type IV
73
Type of HS reaction: Toxic epidermal necrosis
Type IV
74
superantigens bind to which MHC molecule?
MHC-II
75
recipient CTLs recognize MHC molecules expressed by APCs of graft donor?
Direct - Th1 - cell mediated response
76
recipient CTLs recognize MHC molecules expressed by APCs of recipient? what type of immune response?
Indirect - IFN-y, delayed type HS and humoral response
77
Th subtype important in early phase of GVHD?
Th17
78
interface dermatitis is characteristic of which form of graft rejection?
acute
79
clonal expansion of T-cells that recognize MHC is called what?
positive selection
80
clonal deletion of T-cells with TCRs that recognize self-Ag?
negative selection
81
mechanism of apoptosis in negative selection (central tolerance)?
Extrinsic - Fas/FasL
82
CD molecule on T-regs
CD25 (IL-2R)
83
myelin basic protein, lens proteins, and sperm protein are examples of what?
sequestered antigens
84
interaction of CTLA-4 with B7 blocks the release of which cytokine?
IL-2
85
is anergy reversible or irreversible?
irreversible
86
what type of lymphocyte is CTLA-4 expressed on?
activated lymphocytes
87
which T-cell inhibitory molecule is involved in the development of T-cell peripheral tolerance?
CTLA-4
88
cytokines produced by T-regs
IL-4, IL-10, TGF-b
89
During peripheral tolerance deletion - activation induced cell death (AICD) of t-lymphocytes involves which apoptosis pathway? which CD marker is involved?
Fas-FaL - CD95
90
autophagy protein Atg5 is required to maintain normal numbers of which cell type?
peripheral B cells
91
SLE causes which type of arthritis?
non erosive
92
canine MHC allele DLA-A7 is associated with which autoimmune disease?
SLE
93
mediator of immune-mediated myositis in horses?
IFN-y mediated upregulation of MHC I and II - mostly CD4 t cells
94
factor H is involved in which complement pathway?
alternative - is a regulator - blocks formation of C3 convertase
95
type I membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis is caused by which immunodeficiency disease?
C3 deficiency
96
C3 deficiency is what mode of inheritance?
autosomal recessive
97
porcine dense deposit disease is a deficiency of what?
Factor H
98
what is the role of factor H?
blocks formation of C3 convertase
99
type II membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis is caused by which immunodeficiency disease?
factor H deficiency
100
SCID in horses is due to a mutation in which protein?
DNA-PKcs - required for recombination of Ig and TCR
101
SCID in basset hounds is which mode of inheritance?
autosomal recessive
102
SCID in horses is which mode of inheritance?
x-linked
103
SCID in basset hounds is due to what mutation?
mutation in common subunit of cytokine receptors - no functional IL-2R - mostly no T-cells
104
SCID in welsch corgis is due to which mutation?
IL-2R like bassets
105
SCID in JRT is due to which mutation?
DNA-PKcs like in horses
106
adult onset hypogammaglobulinemia is due to which type of immunodeficiency?
common variable
107
which cell line is affected by common variable immunodeficiency?
B-cells
108
selective Ig deficiency involves which Ig in horses? what about in dogs?
IgM in horses, IgA in dogs
