Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Phase 1 > Immunity > Flashcards

Immunity Flashcards

1
Q

Two outcomes of TLR activation

A

NFkB signaling and IRF signaling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

two outcomes of NFkB signaling

A

cytokine secretion, expression of adhesion molecules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

signaling pathway that detects uric acid crystals in gout

A

NLRs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

receptor for fungal glycans

A

C-type lectin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

receptors that stimulate STING pathway to produce IFN-a

A

RIG like receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

type of leukocyte receptor that recognizes N-formylmethionyl residues and promotes leukocyte chemotaxis towards microbes?

A

GPCR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

CD molecule expressed by NK cells

A

CD16

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what does CD16 bind?

A

Fc region of IgG for ADCC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

two cytokines that stimulate NK cell proliferation

A

IL-2 and IL-15

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

cytokine that activates NK cell killing and IFN-y secretion

A

IL-12

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

part of TCR that is conserved (identical) on all T-cells

A

CD3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

function of CD3 on TCR

A

signal transduction when ab binds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

CD molecule recognized by NK T-cells

A

CD-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what promotes attachment of T-cells to APCs?

A

integrins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Igs present on mature, naive B-cells

A

IgM and IgD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

function of Ig-alpha (CD79a) and Ig-beta (CD79b) in Ig receptor?

A

invariant - functions in signal transduction (similar to CD3)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

B cell complement receptor

A

CR2 (CD21)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

most important cell for initiating T-cell responses against protein antigens

A

DC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

B-cell signal 2

A

CD21 binding complement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

receptors on follicular DCs

A

Fc receptors for IgG and C3b - to trap Ag bound to complement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

proteins loaded onto MHC molecules are associated with which other protein to form the complex?

A

B2 microglobulin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

which MHC molecule displays peptides derived from cytoplasmic proteins?

A

MHC-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

which MHC molecule displays peptides derived from extracellular microbes?

A

MHC-2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

which type of Th response induces defensin gene expression

A

Th17

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

which vitamin increases cathelicidin expression?

A

Vit D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

most important factor for macrophage growth, proliferation, differentiation and survival

A

CSF-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

which type of splenic macrophage captures blood borne antigens?

A

marginal zone macs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

which type of splenic macrophages is important for defense against hematogenous pathogens and iron processing?

A

splenic macrophages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

which type of splenic macrophage produces type I IFNs?

A

metallophilic macrophages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

a defect in which splenic macrophage could lead to autoimmune disease?

A

tingible body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

which is a CD molecule (and C-type lectin) expressed exclusively by Langerhans cells?

A

CD207

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

which type of DCs are in germinal centers?

A

follicular - do not express MHC, present Ag bound to IgG or complement to B cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

which type of DCs produce large amounts of type I IFNs?

A

plasmacytoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

type of cell that produces IgM specific for polysaccharide and lipid and produce natural “circulating abs”

A

B-1 cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Survival of T-cells that bind moderately to MHC complexes is called what?

A

positive selection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

elimination of T-cells that bind too strongly to MHC complexes is called what?

A

negative selection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

what type of TCR is on NK-T lymphocytes?

A

alpha-beta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Neuropillin I is a marker for which cell type?

A

T-regs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

polysaccharides and lipids induce secretion of which type of Ab?

A

IgM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

which MHC locus encodes proteins involved in Ag processing and presentation?

A

Class II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Which MHC locus encodes proteins involved in complement system and TNF-a, TNF-b?

A

class II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

CLIP is involved with antigen presentation on which type of MHC molecule?

A

MHC-II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

which molecule is induced on activated T-cells and competitively inhibits B7 binding?

A

CTLA-4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

type of DC present in skin, mm, iris, ciliary body

A

Langerhans cell

45
Q

type of DC present in most major organs

A

interstitial DC

46
Q

type of DC present in T-lymphocyte areas of secondary lymphoid organs

A

Interdigitating DC

47
Q

circulating DCs are also called what?

A

veiled cells

48
Q

DC that is not derived from BM, does not present Ag, and do not have MHC-II molecules?

A

follicular DC - maintenance and memory of B lymphs

49
Q

TAP is a protein required for presentation on which MHC complex?

A

MHC-I (involved in cross presentation by DCs)

50
Q

Type of HS reaction: Myasthenia gravis

51
Q

Type of HS reaction: autoimmune thrombocytopenic purpura

52
Q

Type of HS reaction: pemphigus

53
Q

Type of HS reaction: vasculitis caused by ANCA

54
Q

Type of HS reaction: pernicious anemia

55
Q

Type of HS reaction: Atopic allergy

56
Q

Type of HS reaction: anaphylaxis

57
Q

Type of HS reaction: transfusion reactions

58
Q

Type of HS reaction: systemic lupus

59
Q

type of HS reaction: serum sickness

60
Q

Type of HS reaction: arthus reaction

61
Q

Type of HS reaction: contact dermatitis

62
Q

Type of HS reaction: transplant rejection

63
Q

Type of HS reaction: chronic allergic disease

64
Q

Type of HS reaction: tuberculosis

65
Q

ADCC activates which apoptosis pathway?

66
Q

Pernicious anemia is a type II hypersensitivity reaction to which protein?

A

IF of gastric parietal cells –> decreased B12 absorption and abnormal erythropoeisis

67
Q

slight excess of what can lead to a type III HS reaction?

68
Q

Blue eye in dogs, allergic pneumonitis in ruminants, recurrent airway obstruction in horses, reactive arthritis are all types of what?

A

Arthus reactions - Type III HS

69
Q

Type of HS reaction: serum sickness

70
Q

Type of HS reaction: EIA

71
Q

Type of HS reaction: Johne’s disease

72
Q

Type of HS reaction: ERU

73
Q

Type of HS reaction: Toxic epidermal necrosis

74
Q

superantigens bind to which MHC molecule?

75
Q

recipient CTLs recognize MHC molecules expressed by APCs of graft donor?

A

Direct - Th1 - cell mediated response

76
Q

recipient CTLs recognize MHC molecules expressed by APCs of recipient? what type of immune response?

A

Indirect - IFN-y, delayed type HS and humoral response

77
Q

Th subtype important in early phase of GVHD?

78
Q

interface dermatitis is characteristic of which form of graft rejection?

79
Q

clonal expansion of T-cells that recognize MHC is called what?

A

positive selection

80
Q

clonal deletion of T-cells with TCRs that recognize self-Ag?

A

negative selection

81
Q

mechanism of apoptosis in negative selection (central tolerance)?

A

Extrinsic - Fas/FasL

82
Q

CD molecule on T-regs

A

CD25 (IL-2R)

83
Q

myelin basic protein, lens proteins, and sperm protein are examples of what?

A

sequestered antigens

84
Q

interaction of CTLA-4 with B7 blocks the release of which cytokine?

85
Q

is anergy reversible or irreversible?

A

irreversible

86
Q

what type of lymphocyte is CTLA-4 expressed on?

A

activated lymphocytes

87
Q

which T-cell inhibitory molecule is involved in the development of T-cell peripheral tolerance?

88
Q

cytokines produced by T-regs

A

IL-4, IL-10, TGF-b

89
Q

During peripheral tolerance deletion - activation induced cell death (AICD) of t-lymphocytes involves which apoptosis pathway? which CD marker is involved?

A

Fas-FaL - CD95

90
Q

autophagy protein Atg5 is required to maintain normal numbers of which cell type?

A

peripheral B cells

91
Q

SLE causes which type of arthritis?

A

non erosive

92
Q

canine MHC allele DLA-A7 is associated with which autoimmune disease?

93
Q

mediator of immune-mediated myositis in horses?

A

IFN-y mediated upregulation of MHC I and II - mostly CD4 t cells

94
Q

factor H is involved in which complement pathway?

A

alternative - is a regulator - blocks formation of C3 convertase

95
Q

type I membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis is caused by which immunodeficiency disease?

A

C3 deficiency

96
Q

C3 deficiency is what mode of inheritance?

A

autosomal recessive

97
Q

porcine dense deposit disease is a deficiency of what?

98
Q

what is the role of factor H?

A

blocks formation of C3 convertase

99
Q

type II membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis is caused by which immunodeficiency disease?

A

factor H deficiency

100
Q

SCID in horses is due to a mutation in which protein?

A

DNA-PKcs - required for recombination of Ig and TCR

101
Q

SCID in basset hounds is which mode of inheritance?

A

autosomal recessive

102
Q

SCID in horses is which mode of inheritance?

103
Q

SCID in basset hounds is due to what mutation?

A

mutation in common subunit of cytokine receptors - no functional IL-2R - mostly no T-cells

104
Q

SCID in welsch corgis is due to which mutation?

A

IL-2R like bassets

105
Q

SCID in JRT is due to which mutation?

A

DNA-PKcs like in horses

106
Q

adult onset hypogammaglobulinemia is due to which type of immunodeficiency?

A

common variable

107
Q

which cell line is affected by common variable immunodeficiency?

108
Q

selective Ig deficiency involves which Ig in horses? what about in dogs?

A

IgM in horses, IgA in dogs

Phase 1 (10 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions