Inflammation Flashcards

1
Q

Which tight junction receptor prevents reverse transmigration of activated leukocytes back into a blood vessel?

A

JAM-C

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2
Q

4 actions of bradykinin as it relates to acute inflammation

A

Vasodilation, increased vascular permeability, smooth muscle contraction, pain

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3
Q

All leukotrienes increase vascular permeability, which one also causes vasodilation and is chemotactic for neutrophils and which one is which one causes smooth muscle contraction?

A

LTB4 is chemotactic
LTD4 causes smooth muscle contraction

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4
Q

Two actions of histamine?

A

vasodilation and increased vascular permeability

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5
Q

What effect do fibrinopeptides and FDPs have on the vasculature?

A

increase vascular permeability

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6
Q

Three big actions of PGE2 as it relates to inflammation?

A

Increased vascular permeability, fever, pain

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7
Q

4 main actions of IL1 and TNF as it relates to inflammation?

A

increase vascular permeability, chemotaxis, nausea, fever

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8
Q

Which is the main prostaglandin that causes inflammation?

A

PGD2

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9
Q

Two main actions of PAF as it relates to acute inflammation?

A

increases vascular permeability and causes smooth muscle contraction

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10
Q

C3a and C5a are anaphylotoxins - which one also causes smooth muscle contraction and which one causes leuokocyte chemotaxis?

A

C3a causes smooth muscle contraction, C5a causes leukocyte chemotaxis

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11
Q

Method by which albumin, LDLs, MMPs, and insulin enter the cell?

A

Transcytosis

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12
Q

Method by which water and ions enter the cell?

A

Paracellular passage

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13
Q

retraction of endothelial cells during acute inflammation occurs in which types of vessels?

A

venules

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14
Q

which factors mediate retraction of endothelial cells during acute inflammation?

A

histamine and NO

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15
Q

In which vessels does increased transcytosis occur during acute inflammation and what mediates it

A

Venules - VEGF

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16
Q

increased permeability due to cytoskeletal reorganization occurs in which vessels and is mediated by what?

A

postcapillary venules/some capillaries, mediated by IL-1, TNF, hypoxia

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17
Q

5 steps of leukocyte adhesion cascade in order

A

Margination, rolling, activation, stable adhesion, transmigration

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18
Q

mediator of rolling adhesion

A

Selectins

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19
Q

P-selectin is stored in which platelet granules?

A

Weibel palade bodies - alpha granules

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20
Q

receptors for selectins?

A

Sialyl-Lewis

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21
Q

Activators of neutrophils during the leukocyte adhesion cascade (7 things)

A

IL-1, TNF, IL-6, PAF, PDGF, C5a, IL-8

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22
Q

role of ADAM17 during the leukocyte adhesion cascade?

A

cleaves L-selectin from neutrophils so they can express integrins for stable adhesion

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23
Q

ESL, PSGL-1 are receptors involved in which phase of the leukocyte adhesion cascade?

A

Rolling

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24
Q

PECAM-1 (CD31) is involved in which stage of the leukocyte adhesion cascade?

A

transmigration

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25
Mediates adherence of non-activated leukocytes to HEVs in LNs
L-selectin, and VLA4 to VCAM1
26
5 cytokines/gfs that maintain neutrophil numbers in health?
IL-1, TNFa, IL-3, GM-CSF, G-CSF
27
principle opsonin receptors on neutrophil membranes
CR1, CR2, Fc
28
the process by which the reduced form of NADPH oxidase is formed?
respiratory burst
29
SNARE proteins mediate which part of phagocytosis?
phagosome:lysosome fusion
30
myeloperoxidase converts H202 to what?
hypochlorous acid
31
Neutrophil granule content that inhibits growth of bacteria by sequestering free iron?
Lactoferrin
32
Myeloperoxidase is more abundant in which neutrophil granules?
Primary (azurophilic)
33
lactoferrin, lysozyme and MAC-1 are more abundant in which neutrophil granules?
Secondary (specific)
34
Gelatinase (MMP-9) and CRISP-3 are components of which neutrophil granules?
Tertiary granules
35
cattle and sheep neutrophils have less of which enzyme?
Lysozyme
36
Deoxyadenosine produced by staph aureus can degrade NETs and induce apoptosis via which caspase?
3
37
CCL5 and CCL11 are chemotactic for which leukocyte?
eosinophils (RANTES and eotaxin)
38
which granulocyte contains histaminase?
Eosinophils
39
factor which promotes the differentiation of a CD34 precursor cell into a basophil or a mast cell?
SCF
40
Two main cytokines released by basophils
IL-4, IL-13
41
Leukocyte that expresses high affinity IgE receptor?
basophil
42
which subset of mast cells are Th2 dependent?
mucosal
43
cytokines released by mast cells?
IL-5, IL-6, IL-15
44
what molecule down-regulates the release of substance P?
histamine
45
CD161+, CD3-, CD56+
Type 1 NK cells
46
CD161+, CD3-, CD56-
Type 2 NK cells
47
produced by type 1 NK cells
IFN-y (Th1 response)
48
produced by type 2 NK cells
IL-4, IL-5, IL-13 (Th2 response)
49
Main regulator of NK cell differentiation?
IL-21 (causes up regulation of CD16)
50
CD marker necessary for ADCC and IFN-y release by NK cells?
CD16
51
cytokines that stimulate NK cell proliferation (5 things)
IL-4, IL-12, IL-15, IL-21, Flt3 ligand
52
CD molecule recognized by NK-T cells?
CD1d
53
cytokines/factors released by NK-T cells (3 things)?
IL-4, IFN-y, GM-CSF
54
ITAM binds which Fcy receptor? does it promote macrophage activation or inhibition?
ITAM - FCyRI - activation
55
ITIM binds which Fcy receptor? does it promote macrophage activation or inhibition?
ITIM - FCyRIIB - inhibition
56
5 preformed inflammatory mediators
Histamine, bradykinin, substance P, neurokinin, serotonin
57
Which cellular granules contain histamine?
mast cells, basophils, platelets
58
Leukocyte histamine receptors
H1 and H4
59
gastric mucosa histamine receptors
H2
60
Nerve fiber histamine receptors
H3
61
endothelial histamine receptor
H1
62
Does tissue Kallikrein act on LMWK or HMWK to produced Bradykinin?
can act on either
63
does plasma Kallikrein act on LWMK or HMWK to produce bradykinin?
HMWK
64
Which kinin pathway is activated by the intrinsic coagulation pathway?
Plasma kinin pathway
65
Bradykinin receptor in inflamed tissue
B1R (B2R in normal tissue)
66
C1INH (alpha 2 macroglobulin) inhibits what?
plasma kallikrein
67
complement pathway activated by IgG or IgM x-linking C1?
classical
68
Proteolytic C1 component
C1r
69
C1 component cleaved by C1r
C1s
70
C1 component that binds Fc region of ab
C1q
71
complement pathway activated by microbial products, Kallikrein, plasmin, FXII
alternative
72
product of classical pathway C3 convertase
C3a
73
product of alternative C3 convertase
C3b
74
product of classical and alternative C5 convertase
C5a
75
ficolins activate which complement pathway?
MBL
76
Complement pathway in which MASPs cleave C4 and C2
MBL pathway
77
Disease: loss of C1 inhibitor
angioedema
78
Disease: loss of C1q
SLE
79
Product of phospholipase A2?
Arachidonic acid
80
substrate and product(s) of COX-1
arachidonic acid - phospholipases and thromboxanes
81
substrate and products of lipoxygenase?
arachidonic acid - leukotrienes and lipoxins
82
major prostaglandin produced by mast cells
PGD2
83
which prostaglandins increase vascular permeability?
PGD2 and PGE2
84
are most leukotrienes vasodilatory or vasoconstrictive?
vasocontrictive but increase vascular permeability
85
main leukotriene released by mast cells and eosinophils?
LTC4
86
action of 5-HPETE and 5-HETE?
neutrophil chemotaxis
87
are resolvins anti-inflammatory or pro-inflammatory?
anti-inflammatory
88
which cytokines are hematopoietic growth factors, in addition to GM-CSF and G-CSF?
IL-3, IL-9 (also involved in T-lymph development), IL-11
89
which type of Th response is seen during granulomatous inflammation from mycobacterial infection?
Th1
90
Cytokines that promote a Th2 response
IL-4, IL-6
91
cytokines that promote a Th17 response
IL-6, IL-23, TGF-b
92
type of Th response seen with autoimmune disease
Th17
93
cytokine that drives a Treg response?
TGF-b
94
cytokines that drive a T-FH response?
IL-6 and IL-21
95
Transcription factors for T-FH response
BCL-6 and cMAF
96
cytokine produced by a T-FH response
IL-21
97
role of T-FH response
drives b-lymphocyte development and Ab responses
98
which prostaglandins are vasoconstrictors?
PGF2 and TXA2
99
cytokine signaling via JAK/STAT is regulated by which protein?
SOCS
100
type of IFN produced by hematopoetic cells/plasmacytoid dendritic cells
IFNa
101
type of IFN produced by respiratory and intestinal epithelial cells
type III IFN
102
Receptors for HMGBP-1
RAGE, TLR2, TLR4
103
C chemokines
Lymphotaxin - XCL1
104
CC chemokines
recruit most leukocytes except neuts
105
CXC chemokines
neut chemotaxis - CXCL8 = IL-8
106
CX3C chemokine
Fractalkine
107
what effect does NO have on mast cells?
inhibits mast cell induced inflammation
108
TLR for lipotechoic acid
TLR2
109
TLR for flagellin
TLR5
110
TLR for bacterial ribosomal RNA
TLR13
111
TLR for profilin
TLR11/12
112
intracellular PRR for DNA
TLR9 (and AIM2)
113
itnracellular PRR for dsRNA
TLR3
114
intracellular PRR for ssRNA
TLR7/8, RIG-1, MDA5
115
LPS bound to which protein initiates endocytosis?
LPB then CD14
116
LPS bound to which protein initiates cytokine and inflamasome responses?
LPB then TLR4
117
NOD receptor present on hematopoietic cells and intestinal cells?
NOD2
118
three things in the inflammasome
NLR, ASC-1, caspase 1
119
three cytokines released by the inflamasome
IL-1b, IL-18, IL-33
120
PRR for paramyxovirus and influenza virus?
RIG-1
121
PRR for picornavirus?
MDA-5
122
Gasdermin is associated with which form of cell death?
pyroptosis
123
which complement components are acute phase proteins?
C3 and C4
124
Maresins, hydrogen sulfide, annexin A1, adiponectin all have what effect on inflammation?
anti-inflammatory
125
anti-inflammatory mediator which inhibits neutrophil migration across cell walls
resolvins
126
anti-inflammatory mediators that contribute to wound repair and reduce nerve sensitivity to pain
Maresins
127
anti-inflammatory mediator that promotes neutrophil apoptosis
hydrogen sulfide
128
anti-inflammatory mediator that is anti-apoptotic
adiponectin
129
SIRPa binds which cell surface marker to inhibit macrophage phagocytosis?
CD47
130
diffuse (leprotamous) granulomas are biased toward which Th response?
Th2
131
nodular (tuberculoid) granulomas are biased toward which Th response?
Th1
132
are sarcoids in horses granulomas?
no
133
Bovine papillomavirus E5 contributes to pathogen persistence via which mechanism?
down regulation of MHC class I
134
Receptor ligand pairing on monocytes in non-inflamed tissue
CX3CRI + Fractalkine (CX3CL) and CCR5 + MIP1a (CCL3)
135
receptor ligand pairing on monocytes in inflamed tissue
CCR2 + MCP-1 (CCL-2)
136
inducer of classically activated macrophages
IFN-y by Th1 lymphocytes + NK lymphocytes, and TNF from APCs
137
Itaconate secreted by which type of macrophages?
M2 (regulatory)
138
main activator of M2 macrophages?
IL-4 (and IL-13?)
139
main cytokines produced by classically activated macrophages?
IL-1, IL-12, IL-23
140
Fc receptor that inhibits macrophages?
FcyRIIB
141
CD molecules associated with formation of multinucleated giant cells?
CD44 and CD47
142
inhibitor of NF-kB released by macrophages
PPAR
143
dendritic cell growth factor
flt3 ligand
144
chemokine that promotes dendritic cell migration to LNs
CCL21
145
marker on mature DCs
CCR7
146
activator of NK cells
type 1 IFN and IL-12
147
Three components of CARs
T lymph anergy, lymphocyte apoptosis, decreased macrophage activation
148
growth factors that promote rapid hyperplasia of overlying epithelium in the proliferation phase of wound healing
EGF, HGF, FGF, VEGF + IL-1 and TGF-b
149
which GF induces the formation of myofibroblasts from fibroblasts?
TGF-b
150
keeps stem cells in a quiescent state
BMP
151
molecule released from active stem cells that induces proliferation of the quiescent cells?
B-catenin
152
PDGF, MMPs, and TIMPs are most active in which phase of wound healing?
remodeling
153
EGF, HGF, VEGF are most active in which stage of wound healing?
Proliferation
154
role of ADAM?
metalloproteinase - degrades lots of stuff
155
which part of the ECM gives it pliability and elasticity?
proteoglycans
156
which part of the ECM gives it tensile strength
collagen
157
senescent fibroblasts secrete which GF?
PDGF
158
Rho signaling
induces contractility in myofibroblasts
159
Angiopoietin receptor
Tie 2
160
factor involved in vascular stabiliization/recruitment of periceytes and smooth muscle cells
Angiopoietin 2
161
Lymphangiogenic factors
VEGF-C and PROX-1
162
During angiogenesis, how is lymphangiogenesis inhibited?
BMP inhibits PROX-1
163
Key initiator of wound repair in skin and lung epithelia?
FGF-10
164
induces production of surfactant proteins in the lung
TTF1
165
stimulates cilia formation in the lung
HFH-4
166
ligand for VLA-4
VCAM1
167
ligand for LFA-1 and MAC-1
ICAM-1
168
major inhibitor of neutrophil elastase
alpha 1 antitrypsin (also alpha 2 macroglobulin)
169
is serotonin a vasodilator or vasoconstrictor?
vasocontrictor
170
prevents formation of C3 convertase
DAF
171
inhibitor of the alternative pathway of complement by destroying C3b
Factor H
172
stimulates CRP and fibrinogen synthesis
IL-6
173
stimulates SAA synthesis
IL-1 and TNF
174
Protein involved in anemia of chronic disease by reducing iron availability to erythroid progenitors?
Hepcidin
175
main cytokine involved in priming stage of hepatocyte regeneration
IL-6
176
MMP that degrades fibrillar collagen
interstitial collagenases
177
Function of neuraminidase
Sialic acid degradation
178
Which adhesion molecule is used by T lymphocytes to migrate to selective sites in lymphoid tissues?
CD44
179
toxin produced by anthrax?
lethal factor
180
Target cells for feline acquired immunodeficiency virus express which of the following receptors?
CD134
181