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Micro & Pathology > Micro Lecture Exam 2 > Flashcards

Micro Lecture Exam 2 Flashcards

skin Diseases

1
Q

Broad spectrum antibiotic

A

effective against more than 1 group of bacteria

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2
Q

Penicillin

A

treats gram + cocci & some gram- bacteria

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3
Q

Narrow spectrum antibiotic

A

target a specific group of bacteria (ex. vancomycin targets MRSA)

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4
Q

Bactericidal antibiotics

A

kill the bacteria

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5
Q

Antibiotic resistance

A

resistance to a drug by a bacteria that was previously sensitive to

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6
Q

What does MRSA stand for

A

Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus

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7
Q

What is MRSA?

A

Common cause of skin lesions in non-hospitalized people

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8
Q

What virus causes MRSA?

A

S. auerus

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9
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of MRSA?

A
  • Raised, red, tender, localized lesions
  • Features pus and feels hot to the touch
  • Occur easily in breaks in the skin and may localize around a hair follicle
  • Fever is common
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10
Q

How is MRSA transmitted?

A

Contaminant of all kinds of surfaces

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11
Q

What is the virulence factor of MRSA?

A

Enzyme that coagulates plasma

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12
Q

PCR

A

polymerase chain reaction that detects bacterial DNA quickly by nasal swab

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13
Q

Maculopapular

A

Skin eruptions by a variety of microbes and are flat to slightly colored bumps

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14
Q

Examples of Maculopapular rash viral diseases

A

Measles & Rubella

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15
Q

Pathogenesis virulence factors of Measles

A
  • Virus implants on respiratory mucosa and infects the tracheal and bronchial cells
  • It travels to the lymphatic system where it multiplies and enters the bloodstream (viremia) which carries the virus to the skin and various organs
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16
Q

Transmission of mealses

A
  • Transmitted by respiratory droplets from only humans
  • person is infectious during the periods of incubation, prodrome and skin rash
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17
Q

Incubation period

A

the time between when a person is exposed to an infectious agent and when they begin to develop symptoms

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18
Q

Prodromal stage

A

the period after incubation and before the characteristic symptoms of infection occur

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19
Q

Convalescence

A

The final stage of infection; symptoms resolve, and a person can return to their normal functions

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20
Q

Sgns and symptoms of measles

A
  • Sore throat
  • Dry cough
  • Headache
  • Conjunctivitis
  • Lymphadenitis (inflammation of lymph node gland)
  • Fever
  • Oral lesions called Koplik’s spots (white spots can be seen before skin rash)
  • Red, maculopapular rash that erupts on the head and progresses to the trunk and extremities
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21
Q

Sequelae

A

sequel; whats the aftermath

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22
Q

Sequelae and complications of measles

A

Pneumonia, encephalitis, may result in permanent brain damage or epilepsy

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23
Q

ELISA

A

Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay to test for quantifying the presence of specific molecules, such as proteins, antibodies, hormones, or antigens, in a sample

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24
Q

MMR Vaccine

A

(Measles, Mumps, Rubella) contains live, attenuated measles virus that confers protection for up to 20 years

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25
Q

Best way to treat measles?

A

Replace lost fluids, reduce fever, suppress cough

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26
Q

Rubella : German Measles

A

Can be pre and postnatal, is a milder version of measles and adult rubella is characterized

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27
Q

How is rubella characterized in adults?

A

by joint inflammation and joint pain rather than a rash

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28
Q

How long does postnatal rubella take to advance and resolve?

A

3 days

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29
Q

Congenital Rubella

A

teratogenic and is transmitted from mother even if mother is asymptomatic

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30
Q

Teratogenic

A

causes harm to fetus

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31
Q

Common defects in congenital rubella

A

Deafness, ocular lesions, retardation, anemia, hepatitis, bone infection

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32
Q

Transmission or rubella

A

respiratory secretions and occasionally urine

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33
Q

Rubella transmission

A

Close living conditions are required for it to shed, and is in prodromdal stage for up to a week

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34
Q

How to test Rubella

A

Latex agglutination or ELISA

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35
Q

Impetigo

A

Superficial bacterial infection that causes the skin to flake or peel

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36
Q

What virus is Impetigo caused by

A

Can be caused by either S. aureus (older children) or S. pyogenes (newborns), or may be caused by a mixture of the two

37
Q

Cellulitis

A

inflammation of subcutaneous connective tissue

38
Q

Lymphangitis

A

red lineson the body leading away from the area are visible, the result of microbes and inflammatory products being carried by the lymphatic system

39
Q

Causative agents of cellulitis

A
  • In healthy individuals: S.. pyogenes and S. auerus
  • Immunocompromised: almost any bacterium and some fungi
  • Infants: Streptococci
40
Q

What has to be done if there is extensive tissue damage from cellulitis?

A

Surgical debridement (removing dead tissue from wound to prevent more bacteria growth and infection)

41
Q

Pyo

A

pus

42
Q

Gene

A

create

43
Q

Pox

A

individual lesions that contain fluid

44
Q

Varicella

A

Human herpesvirus 3 (HHV-3); an enveloped DNA virus

45
Q

What is the natural host of HHV-3

A

Humans

46
Q

What does impetigo cause?

A

Itchy lesions that are crusty

47
Q

Vesicular rashes

A

small, fluid-filled blisters known as vesicles that appear on the skin (chicken pox)

48
Q

Causative agents of chicen pox, small pox and shingles

A

HHV-3

49
Q

chickenpox vs mealses

A

Kopliks spot - measles

50
Q

Where cells go during chicken pox to cause pain in back?

A

Dorsal root ganglion

51
Q

Centripetal

A

More lesions in the center of the body than in the extremities

52
Q

Postherpetic neuralgia

A

inflammation of the ganglia and nerve pathways that cause pain and tenderness and can last for several months

53
Q

Acyclovir

A

Antiviral

54
Q

Smallpox’s causative agent

A

Variola virus

55
Q

Monkeypox

A

a viral zoonosis and less severe than smallpox

56
Q

Zostavax

A

approved by the FDA in 2006 to prevent shingles

57
Q

Treatment for varicella

A

goes away on its own and at most be given antibiotics and acyclovir

58
Q

Shingles: Herpes Zoster

A

virus that emerges out of the ganglia after staying there after the recovery of chickenpox

59
Q

Therpetic

A

herpes virus

60
Q

What does it mean i suffix is -vir

A

Its a drug to treat virus; antiviral

61
Q

Macules vs papules

A

maculesare flat and papules are raised

62
Q

Other names for ringworm

A

jock itch and athlete’s foot

63
Q

Dermatophytes

A

a type of fungus that can infect the skin, hair, and nails, causing conditions.

64
Q

Pathogensis and virulence factors of ringworm

A

Dermatophytes have the ability to digest keratin and do not invade deeper epidermal layers

65
Q

Tinea-

A

Scientific prefix used to refer to fungal infections of the skin, hair, or nails caused by dermatophytes

66
Q

How do drugs help treat ringworm?

A

By speeding up the loss of the outer skin layer

67
Q

Virulence factors

A

characteristics or traits possessed by pathogens that enable them to cause disease

68
Q

What salt concentrations would S. aureus need to survive?

A

it can withstand up to 10%

69
Q

Can S. auerus be microbiotic?

A

Yea on 30% of people and even strains of MRSA are found on healthy people

70
Q

Temerature condition for S. auerus ot sruvive

A

Up to 60 celsius for 60 minutes

71
Q

Enzymes produced by certain strains of S. aureus

A

Coagulase, lipase, DNase, hyaluronidase, staphylokinase

72
Q

Which of the following media is often used to isolate Staphylococcus species?

A

Mannitol salt and blood agar

73
Q

catalase

A

is an enzyme that breaks down the hydrogen peroxide produced in oxidative metabolism.

74
Q

treatment of MRSA

A

treatment with more than one antibiotic and an incision of the lesion to drain pus

75
Q

Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE)

A

neurological degeneration of cerebral cortex, white matter , and brain stem which results from persistence of measles years after the first episode

76
Q

what is the typical age for the first dose of the MMR vaccine?

A

12-15 months

77
Q

What causes SSPE to occur in some cases of measles?

A

Defective virus that cannot form a capsid

78
Q

Which type of agent causes damage to the developing fetus?

A

teratogenic

79
Q

Teratogenic agents

A

substances, organisms, or environmental factors that can interfere with normal fetal development, leading to structural or functional abnormalities in the fetus

80
Q

Transmission of impetigo

A

Direct and fomites (indirect contact like touching a doorknob)

81
Q

Describe impetigo lesions

A

small red sores that are often described as having a “honey-colored” crust or scab over the surface, flaky scabs, peeling skin

82
Q

Cellulitis symptoms

A

pain, tenderness, swelling, inflammation, fever, and lymphangitis

83
Q

Which is the sign/symptom that often differentiates postnatal rubella from adult rubella?

A

Mild rash

84
Q

Pustular rash

A

small, elevated lesions filled with pus known as pustules

85
Q

What are the typical sign/symptoms of chickenpox?

A

centripetal lesion distribution, itchy fluid-filled lesions, fever

86
Q

centripetal lesion distribution

A

pattern in which skin lesions or rashes are moving or directed towards the center of the body

87
Q

Tinea capitis

A

ringworm of scalp

88
Q

Lymphangitis

A

tytpically appears as red streaks extending from the infected or inflamed area towards nearby lymph nodes

89
Q

Incubation for chicken pox

A

10-20 days

Micro & Pathology (7 decks)

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