Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Microbiology > Micro final > Flashcards

Micro final Flashcards

1
Q

Cytopathic effects are changes in host cells due to

A

viral infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Focal infections initially start out as

A

local infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

A DNA plasmid encoding a protein antigen from West Nile virus is injected into muscle c ells of a horse. This is an example of

A

nucleic acid vaccine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

A reactions between an antibody and soluble antigen-forming lattices is called a

A

precipitation reaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

The clumping of test red blood cells indicates a negative test result (no antibodies against the virus in the patient’s serum) in the

A

viral hemagglutination inhibition test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

All of the following occur during inflammation. What is the first step?

A

vasodilation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

D4+ T cells are activated by

A

interaction between CD4+ and MHC II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

All of the following are reasons why an HIV vaccine has not been developed EXCEPT

A

vaccines are not effective against viral infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

All of the following are components of the inflammatory process EXCEPT

A

antibody synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

A test used to detest anti-Rickettsia antibodies in a patient’s serum is the

A

indirect fluorescent antibody test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

A positive tuberculin skin test is an example of

A

delay cell mediated immunity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

TLRs attach to all of the following EXCEPT

A

AMPs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which of the following recognizes antigens displayed on host cells with MCH II

A

TH cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What type of immunity results from vaccination

A

artifically acquired active immunity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Rheumatoid arthritis is due to deposition of

A

complexes of IgM and IgG and also complement in joints

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

All of the following protect the skin and mucous membranes from infection EXCEPT

A

HCl

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which is true regarding Herceptin therapy

A

it is used to treat some breast cancer patients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which of the following exhibits the highest phagocytic activity?

A

macrophages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

The chemical mediators of anaphylaxis are

A

Found in basophils and mast cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

The complement protein cascade is the same for the classical pathway, alternative pathway, and lectin pathway beginning with the activation of

A

C3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which of the following may result from systemic anaphylaxis?

A

Shock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of B cell?

A

they recognize antigens associated with MHC I

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Which of the following statements is FALSE?

A

Coagulase destroys blood clots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

The ability of some microbes, such as Trypanosoma or Giardia to alter their surface molecules and evade destruction by the host’s antibodies is called

A

antigenic variation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

A reaction between antibody and particulate antigen is called a

A

agglutination reaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Pyelonephritis usually is caused by

A

Escherichia coli.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

The lower respiratory tract is protected by all of the following EXCEPT

A

competition with the normal flora of the lungs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Clostridium difficile-associated diarrhea is usually preceded by

A

extended use of antibiotics.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

You advise your pregnant friend to give her cat away because she could contract

A

toxoplasmosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

A patient has the following symptoms: a papule, enlarged lymph nodes. Microscopic examination of the papule reveals nucleated cells in white blood cells. The patient most likely

A

leishmaniasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

A predisposing factor for infection by Clostridium perfringens is

A

gangrene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

An eight-year-old girl has scabs and pus-filled vesicles on her face and throat. Three weeks earlier she had visited her grandmother, who had shingles. What infection does the eight-year-old have?

A

chickenpox

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

The symptoms of gas gangrene are due to all of the following EXCEPT

A

endocarditis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Normal microbiota of the adult vagina consist primarily of

A

Lactobacillus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Which of the following statements about salmonellosis is FALSE?

A

The mortality rate is high.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Which of the following statements about puerperal sepsis is FALSE?

A

It is transmitted from mother to fetus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

All of the following are normal microbiota of the skin EXCEPT

A

Streptococcus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Which of the following is NOT primarily a sexually transmitted infection (STI)?

A

trichomoniasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

he most common reservoir for leptospirosis within the United States is

A

domestic dogs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Bacterial encephalitis and meningitis are difficult to treat because

A

many antibiotics cannot penetrate the blood—brain barrier

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Members of the group A streptococci (GAS) cause all of the following EXCEPT

A

epiglottitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

All of the following organisms cause meningitis EXCEPT

A

Mycobacterium leprae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

The symptoms of tetanus are due to

A

tetanospasmin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

All of the following are true regarding African trypanosomiasis EXCEPT

A

all subspecies of Trypanosoma brucei have multiple hosts.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

All of the following are protective factors of the skin and its secretions EXCEPT

A

pyocyanin production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Which of the following is directly involved in the initiation of dental caries?

A

lactic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Which of the following statements about Neisseria meningitis is FALSE?

A

It is a gram-positive anaerobe.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Which of the following is NOT a typical symptom of influenza?

A

diarrhea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Which of the following is a symptom of brucellosis

A

undulant fever

50
Q

Which of the following is NOT true of acne?

A

It can be treated by eliminating fatty foods from the diet.

51
Q 
Which antibodies will be in the serum of a person with blood type B, Rh+?
anti-A, anti-B, anti-Rh
anti-A, anti-Rh
anti-A
anti-B
52
Q

The yeast Candida albicans does not normally cause disease because of

Answers:	
symbiotic bacteria.
antagonistic bacteria.
parasitic bacteria.
commensal bacteria
A

antagonistic bacteria.

53
Q

A DNA plasmid encoding a protein antigen from West Nile virus is injected into muscle cells of a horse. This is an example of a(n)

Answers:	
subunit vaccine
conjugated vaccine
nucleic acid vaccine
attenuated whole-agent vaccine
A

nucleic acid vaccine

54
Q

Which of the following is an effect of opsonization?

Answers:	
increased adherence of phagocytes to microorganisms
increased margination of phagocytes
increased diapedesis of phagocytes
inflammation
A

Selected Answer:
Correct
increased adherence of phagocytes to microorganisms

55
Q

Which of the following statements about M protein is FALSE?

Answers:	
It is found on Streptococcus pyogenes.
It is found on fimbriae.
It is heat- and acid-resistant.
It is readily digested by phagocytes
A

Selected Answer:
Correct
It is readily digested by phagocytes

56
Q

All of the following are true of hypersensitivity EXCEPT

Answers:	
it occurs in the presence of an antigen
it is synonymous with allergy
it occurs when an individual is exposed to an allergen for the first time
it is due to an altered immune response
A

Selected Answer:
Correct
it occurs when an individual is exposed to an allergen for the first time

57
Q

A reaction between antibody and particulate antigen is called a(n)

Answers:	
precipitation reaction
complement fixation
agglutination reactions
immunofluerescence
A

Selected Answer:
Correct
agglutination reactions

58
Q

All of the following are generally used in vaccines EXCEPT

Answers:	
antibodies
toxoids
parts of bacterial cells
inactivated viruses
A

Selected Answer:
Correct
antibodies

59
Q

Which of the following may result from systemic anaphylaxis?

Answers:	
hay fever
asthma
hives
shock
A

Selected Answer:
Correct
shock

60
Q

An ELISA for Hepatitis C has 95 percent sensitivity and 90 percent specificity. This means that the test

Answers:
detects 95 percent of the true positive samples and has 10 percent false positive results.

detects 5 percent of the true positive samples and has 90 percent false positive results.

detects 90 percent of the true positive samples and has 5 percent false positive results.

detects 95 percent of the true positive samples and has 90 percent false positive results.

A

Selected Answer:
Correct
detects 95 percent of the true positive samples and has 10 percent false positive results.

61
Q

Large antibodies that agglutinate antigens are

Answers:	
IgG
IgM
IgA
IgD
A

Selected Answer:
Correct
IgM

62
Q

Which of the following are sources of antibodies for serological testing?

Answers:	
vaccinated animals
monoclonal antibodies
viral cultures
vaccinated animals and monoclonal antibodies
A

Selected Answer:
Correct
vaccinated animals and monoclonal antibodies

63
Q

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of B cells?

Answers:	
They originate in bone marrow.
They have antibodies on their surfaces.
They recognize antigens associated with MHC I.
They recognize vaccinated cultures
A

Selected Answer:
Correct
They recognize antigens associated with MHC I.

64
Q

A patient shows the presence of antibodies against diphtheria toxin. Which of the following statements is FALSE?

Answers:
The patient may have the disease.

The patient may have had the disease and has recovered.

The patient may have been vaccinated.

The patient was near someone who had the disease.

A

Selected Answer:
Correct
The patient was near someone who had the disease.

65
Q

Koch observed Bacillus anthracis multiplying in the blood of cattle. What is this condition called?

Answers:	
bacteremia
focal infection
local infection
septicema
A

Selected Answer:
Correct
septicema

66
Q

What type of immunity results from vaccination?

Answers:
innate immunity

naturally acquired active immunity

naturally acquired passive immunity

artificially acquired active immunity

A

Selected Answer:
Correct
artificially acquired active immunity

67
Q

The most frequently used portal of entry for pathogens is the

Answers:
mucous membranes of the gastrointestinal tract.
skin
parenteral route
mucous membranes of the respiratory tract.

A

Selected Answer:
Correct
mucous membranes of the respiratory tract.

68
Q

Biological transmission differs from mechanical transmission in that biological transmission

Answers:	
requires an arthropod
involves fomites
involves specific dieases
requires direct contact
A

involves specific dieases

69
Q

A child falls and suffers a deep cut on her leg. The cut went through her skin and she is bleeding. Which of the following defense mechanisms will participate in eliminating contaminating microbes?

Answers:
mucociliary escalator

normal skin flora

phagocytosis in the inflammatory response

acidic skin secretions

A

Selected Answer:
Correct
phagocytosis in the inflammatory response

70
Q

The chemical mediators of anaphylaxis are

Answers:	
found in basophils and mast cells
antibodies
antigens
antigen-antibody complexes
A

Selected Answer:
Correct
found in basophils and mast cells

71
Q

Plasma cells are activated by a(n)

Answers:	
antigen
T cell
B cell
memory cell
A

Selected Answer:
Correct
antigen

72
Q

The antibodies found in mucus, saliva, and tears are

Answers:	
IgG
IgM
IgA
IgE
A

Selected Answer:
Correct
IgA

73
Q

Innate immunity

Answers:	
is slower than adaptive immunity in responding to pathogens.
is nonspecific and present at birth.
involves a memory component
involves T cells and B cells
A

Selected Answer:
Correct
is nonspecific and present at birth.

74
Q

The clumping of test cells indicates a negative test result in the

Answers:
direct agglutination test

viral hemagglutination inhibition test.

indirect agglutination test

precipitation test

A

Selected Answer:
Correct
viral hemagglutination inhibition test.

75
Q

Margination refers to

Answers:
the adherence of phagocytes to microorganisms.

adherence of phagocytes to the lining of blood vessels.

the chemotactic response of phagocytes.

the movement of phagocytes through walls of blood vessels.

A

Selected Answer:
Correct
adherence of phagocytes to the lining of blood vessels.

76
Q

Toxoid vaccines, such as the vaccines against diphtheria and tetanus, elicit a(n)

Answers:	
immune complex
dendritic cell proliferation
Tc cell response
antibody response against these bacterial toxins.
A

Selected Answer:
Correct
antibody response against these bacterial toxins.

77
Q

Siderophores are bacterial proteins that compete with the host’s

Answers:	
antibodies
red blood cells
iron-transport proteins
white blood cells
A

Selected Answer:
Correct
iron-transport proteins

78
Q

A reaction between an antibody and soluble antigen-forming lattices is called a(n)

Answers:	
precipitation reaction
agglutination reaction
complement fixation
neutralization reaction
A

Selected Answer:
Correct
precipitation reaction

79
Q

Symptoms of disease differ from signs of disease in that symptoms

Answers:	
are changes felt by the patient.
are changes observed by the physician
are specific for a particular disease
always occur as part of a syndrome.
A

Selected Answer:
Correct
are changes felt by the patient.

80
Q

Twenty-five people developed symptoms of nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea three to six hours after attending a church picnic where they ate a ham and green bean casserole with cream sauce. The most likely cause of this case of food intoxication is

Answers:
botulinum toxin.

aflatoxin.

staphylococcal enterotoxin.

erythrogenic toxin.

A

Selected Answer:
Correct
erythrogenic toxin.

81
Q

A positive tuberculin skin test is an example of

Answers:	
delayed cell-mediated immunity
autoimmunity
acute contact dermatitis
psoriasis
A

Selected Answer:
Correct
delayed cell-mediated immunity

82
Q

The complement protein cascade is the same for the classical pathway, alternative pathway, and lectin pathway beginning with the activation of

Answers:	
C1
C2
C3
C4
A

Selected Answer:
Correct
C3

83
Q

Siderophores are bacterial proteins that compete with the host’s

Answers:	
antibodies
RBCs
iron-transport proteins
WBSc
A

Selected Answer:
Correct
iron-transport proteins

84
Q

Which of the following WBCs are NOT lymphocytes?

Answers:	
cytotoxic T cells
helper T cells
NK cells
M cells
A

Selected Answer:
Correct
M cells

85
Q

A disease in which the causative agent remains inactive for a time before producing symptoms is referred to as

Answers:	
subacute
subclinical
latent
zoonotic
A

Selected Answer:
Correct
latent

86
Q

The ability of some microbes, such as Trypanosoma or Giardia to alter their surface molecules and evade destruction by the host’s antibodies is called

Answers:	
antigenic variation.
lysogenic conversion
virulence.
cytopathic effect.
A

Selected Answer:
Correct
antigenic variation.

87
Q

The most frequently used portal of entry for pathogens is the

Answers:

mucous membranes of the respiratory tract.

mucous membranes of the gastrointestinal tract.

skin

parenteral route

A

Selected Answer:
Correct
mucous membranes of the respiratory tract.

88
Q

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of cellular immunity?

Answers:
The cells originate in bone marrow.

Cells are processed in the thymus gland.

It can inhibit the immune response

B cells make antibodies.

A

Selected Answer:
Correct
B cells make antibodies.

89
Q

The chemical mediators of anaphylaxis are

Answers:	
found in basophils and mast cells
antibodies
antigens
antigen-antibody complexes
A

Selected Answers:
Correct
found in basophils and mast cellsq

90
Q

Margination refers to

Answers:
the adherence of phagocytes to microorganisms
the chemotactic response of phagocytes.

adherence of phagocytes to the lining of blood vessels.

dilation of blood vessels

A

Selected Answer:
Correct
adherence of phagocytes to the lining of blood vessels.

91
Q

A Treg cell deficiency could result in

Answers:	
increased number of viral infections
increased number of bacterial infections
autoimmunity.
increased severity of bacterial infections.
A

Selected Answer:
Correct
autoimmunity.

92
Q

In which of the following patterns of disease does the patient experience no signs or symptoms?

Answers:	
prodromal
incubation and convalescence
decline
incubation
A

Selected Answer:
Correct
incubation and convalescence

93
Q

Which of the following recognizes antigens displayed on host cells with MHC II?

Answers:	
TC cell
B cell
TH cell
natural killer cell
A

Selected Answer:
Correct
TH cell

94
Q

Which of the following statements about natural killer cells is FALSE?

Answers:	
They destroy virus-infected cells
They destroy tumor cells.
They destroy cells lacking MHC
They are stimulated by an antigen.
A

Selected Answer:
Correct
They are stimulated by an antigen.

95
Q

An antibody’s Fc region can be bound by

Answers:	
antibodies
macrophages
T helper cells
B cells
A

Selected Answer:
Correct
macrophages

96
Q

The major significance of Robert Koch’s work is that

Answers:
microorganisms are present in a diseased animal.

diseases can be transmitted from one animal to another
microorganisms can be cultured.

microorganisms cause disease.

A

Selected Answer:
Correct
microorganisms cause disease.

97
Q

Which of the following statements is FALSE?

Answers:
Leukocidins destroy neutrophils.

Hemolysins lyse red blood cells

Hyaluronidase breaks down substances between cells.

Coagulase destroys blood clots.

A

Selected Answer:
Correct
Coagulase destroys blood clots.

98
Q

The following events occur in cellular immunity. What is the third step?

Answers:	
TH cells proliferate.
TH cell produces cytokines.
Dendritic cell takes up antigen.
Antibodies are produced
A

Selected Answer:
Correct
TH cells proliferate.

99
Q

Innate immunity

Answers:
is slower than adaptive immunity in responding to pathogens.

is nonspecific and present at birth

involves a memory component

involves T cells and B cells.

A

Selected Answer:
Correct
is nonspecific and present at birth

100
Q

In which of the following diseases can gender be considered a viable predisposing factor?

Answers:	
urinary tract infections
pneumonia
salmonellosis
tetanus
A

Selected Answer:
Correct
urinary tract infections

101
Q

The ID50 is

Answers:
a measure of pathogenicity.

the dose that will cause an infection in 50 percent of the test population.

the dose that will kill some of the test population

the dose that will cause an infection in some of the test population.

A

Selected Answer:
Correct
the dose that will cause an infection in 50 percent of the test population.

102
Q

Which of the following is NOT an example of microbial antagonism?

Answers:
acid production by bacteria

bacteriocin production

bacteria occupying host receptors

bacteria causing disease

A

Selected Answer:
Correct
bacteria causing disease

103
Q

Which of the following is NOT a membrane-disrupting toxin?

Answers:	
streptolysin S
hemolysin
A-B toxin
streptolysin O
A

Selected Answer:
Correct
A-B toxin

104
Q

IL-2, produced by TH cells,

Answers:	
activates macrophages
stimulates TH cell maturation.
causes phagocytosis
activates antigen-presenting cells.
A

Selected Answer:
Correct
stimulates TH cell maturation.

105
Q

CD4+ T cells are activated by

Answers:
cytokines released by B cells.

cytokines released by dendritic cells

interaction between CD4+ and MHC II.

interaction between TCRs and MHC II.

A

Selected Answer:
Correct
interaction between CD4+ and MHC II.

106
Q

The yeast Candida albicans does not normally cause disease because of

Answers:	
symbiotic bacteria
antagonistic bacteria
parasitic bacteria
commensal bacteria
A

Correct

antagonistic bacteria

107
Q

Several inherited deficiencies in the complement system occur in humans. Which of the following would be the MOST severe?

Answers:	
deficiency of C8
deficiency of C6
deficiency C5
deficiency C3
A

Correct

deficiency C3

108
Q

Which of the following may result from systemic anaphylaxis?

Answers:	
hay fever
asthma
shock
hives
A

Correct

shock

109
Q

All of the following contribute to a pathogen’s invasiveness EXCEPT

Answers:	
toxins
capsules
cell wall components
hyaluronidase
A

Correct

toxins

110
Q

The lectin pathway for complement action is initiated by

Answers:
mannose on host membranes.

mannose on the surface of microbes.

lectins of the microbe.
gram-negative cell walls

A

mannose on the surface of microbes.

111
Q

All of the following protect the skin and mucous membranes from infection EXCEPT

Answers:	
multiple layers of cells
tears
saliva
HCL
A

Correct

HCL

112
Q

Which of the following statements is TRUE?

Answers:
All three types of interferons have the same effect on the body.

Alpha interferon promotes phagocytosis.

Gamma interferon causes bactericidal activity by macrophages.

Alpha interferon acts against specific viruses.

A

Correct

Gamma interferon causes bactericidal activity by macrophages.

113
Q

Which of the following is found normally in serum?

Answers:	
complement
interferon
histamine
TLRs
A

Correct

complement

114
Q

Most pathogens that gain access through the skin

Answers:
can penetrate intact skin

just infect the skin itself

enter through hair follicles and sweat ducts.

must adhere first while their invasive factors allow them to penetrate.

A

Correct

enter through hair follicles and sweat ducts.

115
Q

Each of the following is an effect of complement activation EXCEPT

Answers:	
interference with viral replication
bacterial cell lysis
opsonization
increased phagocytic activtiy
A

Correct

interference with viral

116
Q

The function of the “ciliary escalator” is to

Answers:
propel inhaled dust and microorganisms toward the throat.

trap inhaled dust and microorganisms in mucous and propel it away from the lower respiratory

remove microorganisms from the lower respiratory tract

remove microorganisms from the upper respiratory tract.

A

Correct

trap inhaled dust and microorganisms in mucous and propel it away from the lower respiratory

117
Q

When an antibody binds to a toxin, the resulting action is referred to as

Answers:	
neutralization.
agglutination
opsonization
apoptosis
A

Correct

neutralization.

118
Q

Which of the following statements about the classical pathway of complement activation is FALSE?

C1 is the first protein activated in the classical pathway.

The C1 protein complex is initiated by antigenantibody complexes.

C3 is not involved in the classical pathway.

Cleaved fragments of some of the proteins act to increase inflammation.

A

Correct

C3 is not involved in the classical pathway.

119
Q

Superantigens produce intense immune responses by stimulating lymphocytes to produce

Answers:	
endotoxins
exotoxins 
cytokines
leukocidins
A

Correct

cytokines

120
Q

All of the following are true of hypersensitivity EXCEPT

Answers:
it occurs in the presence of an antigen

its is synonymous with “allergy”

it occurs when an individual is exposed to an allergen for the first time

it is due to an altered immune response

A

Correct

it occurs when an individual is exposed to an allergen for the first time

Microbiology (9 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions