Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Random boards stuff > Micro > Flashcards

Micro Flashcards

1
Q

Causes of non-gonococcal urethritis

A

Chlamydia and ureaplasma. These lack peptidoglycan within their cell wall.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

how do u treat NGU

A

azithromycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

how do u treat gonococcal urethritis

A

ceftriaxone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Diarrhea with PAS-positive granules and foamy macrophages

A

tropheryma whippelii

–will also have greasy stools and joint pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

LPS induces:

A

TNF and IL-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

antigen in LPS

A

O polysaccharide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

capsules are made of polysaccharide except in

A

bacillus anthrax–glutamate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

glycocalyx

A

mediates adhesion to foreign surfaces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

dipicolinic acid

A

like keratin and peptidoglycan, can form outside of spore

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

listeria morphology

A

gram positive rod

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

gardnerella morphology

A

gram variable rod (but technically gram positive, no outer membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

legionella morphology

A

gram negative rod

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

yerseinia morphology

A

gram negative rod

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

legionella morphology

A

gram negative rod

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

bordetella morphology

A

gram negative rods

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

all the “-ellas” except garnerella morphology

A

gram negative rods

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

branching filamentous gram positive bacteria

A

actinomyces, nocardia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

pleomorphic gram negative

A

rickettsia

chlamydia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

spiral gram negative

A

leptospira
borrelia
treponema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

mycoplasma cell membrane contains

A

sterols

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

mycobacteria cell wall contains

A

mycolic acid and high lipid content

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

silver stain

A

legionella
H pylori
fungi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

giemsa stain

A 
chlamydia
borrelia
rickettsiae
trypanosomes
plasmodium
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

ziehl neelsen stain

A

nocardia, mycobacterium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

PAS stains for

A

glycogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

thayer martin media

A

neisseria. contains vanco, polymyxin, and nystatin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

bordet gengou agar for

A

bordetella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

tellurit, loffler’s media for

A

diptheria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

lowenstein jensen agar

A

TB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

eaton’s agar

A

mycoplasma pneumonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

charcoat yeast extract buffered with cystein and iron

A

legionella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

sabouraud’s agar

A

fungi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

obligate aerobes

A

nocardia
pseudomonas
mycobacterium TB
bacillus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

obligate anaerobes

A

clostridium
bacterioides
actinomyces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

obligate intracellular

A

rickettsia, chlamydia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

facultative intracellular

A

salmonella neisseria mycobacterium

brucella, legionella, francisella, listeria, yersinia pestis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

quellung rxn

A

if encapsulated bug is present, capsule swells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

encapsulated bacteria

A 
strep pneumo
haemophilus
neisseria
e coli
salmonella
klebsiella
group B strep
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

catalase positive

A

pseudomonas listeria aspergillus candida e coli, s aureus, serratia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

conjugated vaccines

A

meningococcal
HiB
Prevnar is conjugated, Pneumovax is not

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

urease positive bugs

A 
cryptococcus
H pylori
Proteus
Ureaplasma
Nocardia
Klebsiella
S epidermidis
S saprophyticus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

red pigment bacteria

A

serratia marcescens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

protein A

A

binds Fc region of Ig
S aureus
prevents opsonization and phagocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

M protein

A

prevents phagocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

exotoxin vs endotoxin in heat

A

exotoxin destroyed rapidly at 60C (except staphy HS toxin)

Endotoxin stable at 100 degerees for 1 hr

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

exotoxin are made of

A

proteins.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

diptheria toxin causes

A

pharyngitis with pseudomembranes and severe lymphadenopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

pseudomonas aeruginosa releases

A

exotoxin A kills host cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

mechanism of diptheria/pseudomonas toxin

A

inactivates EF2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

shiga toxin causes

A

GI mucosal damage and dysentery. HUS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

EHEC releases

A

Shiga like toxin. Causes HUS.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Difference btw shigella and EHEC?

A

EHEC does NOT invade host cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

mechanism shigella toxin

A

inactivates 60S ribosome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

ETEC heat labile toxin

A

activates adenylate cyclase to increase chloride secretion in gut “labile in the air”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

ETEC heat stable toxin

A

activates cGMP to decrease Cl absorbtion in gut “stable on th eground”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

bacillus anthrax releases

A

edema factor: mimics cAMP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

vibrio cholera mechanism

A

overactivates adenylate cyclase by activating Gs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

pertussis toxin mechanism

A

disables Gi to impair phagocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

tetanus toxin blocks

A

inhibitory neurotransmitters GABA and glycine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

perfringens toxin

A

alpha toxin: degrades phospholipid C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

double zone of hemolysis

A

perfringens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

strep pyogenes (GAS) tox

A

streptolysin O: degrades cell membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

ASO titer

A

strep pyogenes against toxin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

S aureus toxin

A

toxic shock syndrome toxin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Mechanism TSST-1

A

bring MHC II and TCR in close proximity causing overwhelming release of IFN-y and IL-2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Mechanism exotoxin A of strep pyogenes

A

bring MHC II and TCR in close proximity causing overwhelming release of IFN-y and IL-2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

what does streptolysin O do?

A

lyses RBCs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Strep pyogenes

A

releases exotoxin A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

LPS activates

A 
IL-1
TNF
Nitric Oxide
C3a
C5a
DIC
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Which bacteria can transform?

A

SHiN species

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

F+x F- conjugation transfers

A

Only plasmids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Hfr x F transfers

A

F plasmid incorporated into DNA. Can transfer both plasmid and chromosomeal genes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

generalized transduction

A

phage picks up parts of bacterial DNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

specialized transduction

A

occurs during lysogenic phase. Viral DNA is incorporated into bacterial chromosome and when excised, takes flanking DNA with it.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Which fiver toxins are found in the lysogenic phage?

A 
ShigA like
botulinum
cholera
diptheria
erythrogenic
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

gram positive, branching anaerobe

A

actinomyces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

gram positive, aerobe, acid fast

A

nocardia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

gram positive rods

A 
clostidrium
listeria
bacillus
mycobacterium
corynebac
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

gm + cocci, catalase positive, coagulase -

novobiocin sensitive

A

S. epidermidis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

gm + cocci, catalase positive, coagulase -

novobiocin resistant

A

S saprophyticus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

gm + cocci, catalase neg,
partial hemolysis
optichin sensitive?
optochin resistant?

A

Optochin sen: S pneumo

optochin res: viridans strep

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

catalase - gram positive cocci
beta hemolysis
-Bacitracin sensitive? resistant?

A

sensitive: GAS
resistant: GBS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

catalase - gram positive cocci
no hemolysis
-growth in bile and 6.5 NaCL?
growth only in bile?

A

bile and salt: Enterococcus

Growth in only bile: S bovis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

TSS what happens at cell level

A

activation of macrophages and T lymphocytes in a polyclonal fashion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

strep pneumo loses virulence if

A

It has no capsule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

lancet shaped, gram positive diplococci

A

strep pneumo

–secretes igA protease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

sepsis in sickle cell anemia and splenectomy

A

strep pneumo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

rusty sputum

A

strep pneumo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

strep sanguis

A

sticks to damaged valves of heart by making glycocalyx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

scarlet fever: sx? cause?

A

GAS

scarlet rash sparing face, strawberry tongue, scarlet throat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

two types of GAS

A

pyogenic: pharyngitis, cellulitis, impetico
toxigenic: scarlet fever, toxic shock, necrotizing fas.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Group B strep causes

A

pneumonia, meningitis, sepsis in babies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Group B strep produces

A

CAMP factor. This enlargeds ares of hemolysis formed by S aureus. Streak these two bugs in a cross and will find an “arrow” of fresh hemolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

hippurate test positive

A

Group B strep

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Tx for pregnant women with group B strep

A

penicillin INTRA partum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

enterococci cause

A

UTI
biliary infection
subacute endocarditis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

lancefield grouping of strep based on

A

differences in C carbohydrate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Group D strep causes

A

subacute endocarditis in colon cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

diptheria toxtin works by

A

ADP ribosylates EF-2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

pseudomembranous pharyngitis, a gray white membrane

A

diptheria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

other sx of diptheria

A

myocarditis and arrhythmias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

gram positive rods with blue and red metachromatic granules

A

c. diptheria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

elek’s test for toxin positive

A

diptheria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

diptheria toxin encoded by

A

beta-prophage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

how do you kill spores

A

autoclave: steam at 121 for 15 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

other spore formers (less obvious)

A

B cereus

Coxiella burnetii

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

you suspect a can of food is infected with C. botulinum. However, it’s really tasty and you don’t want to throw it away. what do you do?

A

heat it up! Should inactivate the toxin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

How does C perfringens toxin work?

A

The alpha toxin is a lecithinase, which breaks down phospholipase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

C difficile toxins

A

Toxin A: binds brush border of gut

Toxin B: destroys the cytoskeleton of enterocytes causing pseudomembranous colitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

Dx: c difficile

A

detect toxins in the stool

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

you meet a wool sorter with flu like sx

A

pulmonary anthrax. worry about pulmonary hemorrhage, mediastinitis, and shock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

cause of sx in reheated rice disease

A

B cereus: makes cereulide, a toxin causing emesis within 1-5 hours. If diarrhea, watery nonbloody diarrhea in 8-18 hrs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

actin rockets which shoot around, causing tumbling motiliy

A

listeria monocytogenes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

how do you get listeria

A

milk/cheese

or vaginal transmission during birth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

treat actinomyces

A

penicillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

treat nocardia

A

sulfonamides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

branching bacteria causing oral/facial abscess draining through sinus tracts

A

actinomyces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

branching bacteria causing pulmonary infections in immunocompromised and cutaneous infections after trauma

A

nocardia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

what tells you if TB is virulent?

A

cord factor: inhibits macrophage maturation and induces release of TNF-a

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

sulfatides in TB

A

inhibit phagolysosomal fusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

prophylaxis for MAC

A

azithromycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

m leprae infects

A

The skin and superficial nerves: causes loss of sensation. Cannot be grown in vitro

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

lepromatous leprosy

A

diffuse, communicable, mostly Th2 response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

Tuberculoid leprosy:

A

Only a few plaques. Th1 response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

Tx: leproxy

A

dapsone and rifampin for 6 months if tuberculoid

If lepromatous form, add clofazimin and treat for 2-5 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

gram negative oxidase positive, comma shaped, and grows in 42 C

A

campylobacter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

gram negative oxidase positive, comma shaped, and grows in alkaline media

A

vibrio cholera

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

gram negative rod, fast lactose fermenter

A

kelbsiella and E coli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

gram negative rod, slow fermenter

A

citrobacter, serratia, and family

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

gram negative, not lac fermenter, oxidase negative

A

shigella salmonella proteus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

gram negative, not lac fermenter, oxidase positive

A

pseudomonas

H pylori

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

gram negative diplococci maltose fermenter

A

N meningitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

gram negative diplococci maltose nonfermenter

A

N gonorrhea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

gram negative pleomorphic rods

A

HiB
Bordetella
pasteurella
brucella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

why is there no vaccine for gonorrhea?

A

rapid antigenic variation of pilus proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

which neisseria is encapsulated?

A

meningococci

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

long term complication of gonorrhea

A

fitz-hugh-curtis syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

long term complication of meningococci

A

waterhouse friderichsen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

tx for gonorrhea

A

ceftriaxone PLUS azithromycin/coxy for chlamydia coinfection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

tx for meningitis (in general)

A

ceftriaxone/penicillin G

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

prophylaxis of meningitis (In general)

A

rifampin, cipro, ceftriaxone

142
Q

cherry red epiglottis

A

haemophilus

143
Q

what are factors V and X on chocolate agar?

A

V: NAD+
X: hematin

144
Q

what can be used instead of factors V and X?

A

Cogrow with staph aureus which provides factor V

145
Q

dx: legionella

A

antigen in urine

146
Q

how do you get legionella?

A

environmental source. NO person to person transmission!

147
Q

Tx: legionella

A

macrolide or quinolone

148
Q

sx of legionnaire

A

severe pneumonia, fever, Gi, and CNS sx

149
Q

diabetic osteomyelitis

A

pseudomonas

150
Q

malignant otitis externa in diabetic

A

pseudomonas

151
Q

Produces a blue green pigment, and has a grape like odor

A

pseudomonas

152
Q

Tx: pseudomonas

A

aminoglycosides plus piperacillin/ticarcilin

153
Q

Two toxins released by pseudomonas

A

endotoxin: fever/shock

exotoxin A: inactivates EF-2

154
Q

virulence factor for E coli UTI

A

P pili/fimbrae

155
Q

virulence factor for E coli neonatal meningitis/pneumonia

A

K1 capsule

156
Q

EIEC pathogenicity

A

invasion of intestinal mucosa: necrosis/inflammation. No toxins

157
Q

E coli with dysentery

A

EIEC

158
Q

E coli in children causing diarrhea

A

EPEC

159
Q

E coli causing dysentery but does not ferment sorbitol

A

EHEC

160
Q

ETEC pathogenicity

A

Labile and heat stable toxin produce diarrhea. no inflammation

161
Q

EPEC pathogenicity:

A

No toxin. just adheres and sits on surface, preventing absorption.

162
Q

EHEC pathogenicity:

A

Shiga like toxin=HUS (anemia, thrombocytopenia, and acute renal failure)

Also invasive causing endothelium swelling and mechanical hemolysis

163
Q

E coli causing: Stacked brick intestinal lesions

A

EAEC

164
Q

E coli from ground beef

A

EHEC

165
Q

susceptible to kleb

A

alcoholics

diabetics

166
Q

mucoid colonies with abundant polysaccharide

A

klebsiella

167
Q

most common cause of osteomyelitis in SCD

A

salmonella

168
Q

Shig vs Salm: disseminates hematogenously

A

salmonella

169
Q

Shig vs Salm: antibiotics prolong symptoms

A

salmonella

170
Q

Shig vs Salm: antibiotics prolong excretion of org in feces

A

shigella

171
Q

Shig vs Salm: causes a monocytic response

A

salmonella

172
Q

Shig vs Salm: causes a PMN infiltration

A

Shigella

173
Q

Shig vs Salm: produces hydrogen sulfide

A

salmonella

174
Q

fecal leukocyte test in vibrio cholera

A

NEGATIVE: no invasion

175
Q

How do you get campylobacter

A

fecal oral

176
Q

how do you get yersinia enterocolitica?

A

pet feces (puppies), contaminated milk or pork

177
Q

how does yersinia enterocolitis present?

A

Looks like crohns or appendicitis. But actually a “mesenteric adenitis”

178
Q

Which bugs activate cGMP?

A

ETEC, yersinia

179
Q

Which bugs activate cAMP?

A 
pertussis
ETEC
vibrio cholera
campylobacter
bacillus cereus
bacillus anthrax
180
Q

Tx: H pylori

A

triple therapy: clarithromycin, amoxacillin, metronidazole

181
Q

Spirochetes

A

Borrelia
Leptospira
Tremponema

BLT, Bacon is BIG (size)

182
Q

spirochete visualized with aniline dyes (wright or giemsa)

A

borrelia

183
Q

surfers in hawaii getting flu like symptoms and jaundice with photophobia

A

leptospira interrogans. Get this from water contaminated with animal urine

184
Q

weil’s disease

A

severe form of leptospira causing jaundize and azotemia from liver and kidney dysfunction with hemorrhage and anemia

185
Q

Tx for lyme

A

doxycycline, ceftriaxone

186
Q

natural reservoir of lyme

A

MOUSE (although transmited by ixodes)

187
Q

Stage 2 of lyme

A

cardiac block and facial nerve palsy

188
Q

stage 3 of lyme

A

arthritis
encephalopathy
polyneuropathy

189
Q

Dx: syphilis

A

Screen with VDRL
Confirm with FTA-ABS
–Can visualize by scraping chancre or conylomata lata

190
Q

2ndary syphilis

A

palms and soles rash

condylomata lata

191
Q

tertiary syphilis

A

gummas
aortitis (may have stroke)
tabes dorsalis (positive romberg)
argyll robertson (accommodate but don’t react)

192
Q

baby with saber shins, saddle nose, and deafness, with hutchinson’s teeth (gaped, peg shaped) and mulberry molars

A

congenital syphilis

193
Q

causes of false positive VDRL

A

reacts with beef cardiolipin.

  • -viral infection (hepatitis, mono)
  • -drugs
  • -SLE, rheumatic fever
  • -leprosy
194
Q

flu like syndrome immediatedly after antibiotics are started

A

Jarisch Herxheimer rxn

195
Q

borrelia recurrentis transmission

A

louse. recurs b/c of variable surface antigen

196
Q

brucella transmission

A

unpasteurized dairy

197
Q

campylobacter transmission

A

PUPPIES and livestock

198
Q

coxiella transmission

A

aerosols of cattle amniotic fluid

199
Q

ehrlichiosis

A

lone star tick

200
Q

francisella tularemia

A

ticks, rabbits, deer fly

201
Q

which form of leprosy is transmissible?

A

lepromatous

202
Q

bacillary angiomatosis

A

BAD catscratch in pts with HIV

203
Q

rickettsia prowazekii transmission

A

louse

204
Q

rickettsia rickettsii transmission

A

dermacentor tick bite

205
Q

rickettsia typhi transmission

A

fleas

206
Q

yersinia transmission

A

fleas.

207
Q

yersinia reservoir

A

rats and prairie dogs

208
Q

pleomorphic gram variable rod causing gray vaginal discharge with a fishy smell

A

gardnerella vaginalis

209
Q

CLUE cells (vaginal epithelial cells covered with bacteria)

A

gardnerella vaginalis

210
Q

Tx: gardnerella

A

metro

211
Q

Tx for all rickettsial dz

A

doxy!

212
Q

rash starting at wrists and ankles spreading to trunks, palms, and soles

A

rickettsia rickettsii, RMS

213
Q

what cofactors is rickettsia missing that make it obligate intracellular?

A

CoA and NAD+

214
Q

endemic typhus

A

R typhi

215
Q

epidemic typhus

A

R prowazekii

216
Q

Rash starts in the trunk

A

Epidemic typhus. R prowazekii

217
Q

Which diseases cause a palm and sole rash?

A

COX A
RMS fever
secondary syphillis

218
Q

monocytes with morula (berry like inclusions) in cytoplasm

A

ehrlichiosis

219
Q

granulocytes with morula in cytoplasm

A

anaplasmosis

220
Q

pneumonia in a vet or person who takes care of livestock. No rash.

A

Q fever.

221
Q

What’s special about Q fever

A

It has an endospore form

222
Q

chlamydia elementary body

A

infectious, enters cells through endocytosis

223
Q

chlamydia reticulate body

A

replicates in cell by fission

224
Q

Chlamydia pneumonia and psittaci cause

A

atypical pneumonia

225
Q

Tx for chlamydia

A

azithromycin (one time use) doxy works too but longer treatment

226
Q

Dx chlamydia

A

cytoplasmic inclusions on giemsa or fluorescent antibody smear

227
Q

special about chlamydia cell wall

A

No muramic acid

228
Q

which chlamydia serotypes cause blindness and conjucntivitis in africa?

A

A,B,C

229
Q

Which chlamydia serotypes cause urethritis/PID?

A

D-K

230
Q

chlamydia L1-L3?

A

lymphogranuloma venereum

231
Q

neonate with staccato cough

A

think neonatal chlamydial pnemonia

232
Q

Pneumonia where X ray looks worse than pt

A

mycoplasma pneumonia

233
Q

pneumonia with a high titer of agglutinins

A

mycoplasma pneumonia

234
Q

Tx mycoplasma pneumonia

A

macrolide or fluoroquinolone

235
Q

typical demographic for mycoplasma pneumonia

A

miliary recruits/prisons

236
Q

From bird or bat droppings in mississippi/ohio river valleys. Pneumonia, cough, fever. self limited

A

histoplasmosis.

237
Q

East of mississippi river and central america. Granulomatous nodules. inflammatory lung disease disseminating to skin and bone

A

blastomycoses

238
Q

Histology of blasto

A

broad based buds (look like fisheyes) same size as RBC

239
Q

Histology of histo

A

macrophage FILLED with small hisoplasma like a bag of jelly beans smaller than RBC

240
Q

Southwest. pneumonia and meningitis that can disseminate to bone and skin.

A

coccidioides

241
Q

Histology coccidioides

A

endospore filled with spherules (looks like a hat/helmet) much larger than RBC

242
Q

budding yeast with captain’s wheel formation in traveller to latin america

A

paracoccidioides

243
Q

All fungi we need to know are dimorphic and yeast form at body temperature except

A

coccidioidomycosis, a spherule in tissue

244
Q

Treatment for mycoses

A

Local: fluconazole or itraconazole
Systemic: Ampho B

245
Q

tinea versicolor pathophysiology

A

degradation of lipids makes acid which damage melanocytes

246
Q

tx: tinea versicolor

A

topical miconazole or selenium sulfide

247
Q

spaghetti and meatballs on KOH

A

tinea versicolor

248
Q

which mycoses ONLY have hyphae (mold form)

A

rhizopus and aspergillus

249
Q

Tx: candida

A

azole if vaginal
fluconazole/caspo if oral
ampho B/caspofungin if systemic

250
Q

who gets allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis?

A

Asthma
CF pts.

Treat with steroids

251
Q

Who else is susceptible to aspergillus?

A

Pts with TB. aspergillus can colonize the lung cavities

252
Q

where do you find cryptococcus?

A

soil or pidgeon dropping

253
Q

culture crypto on

A

sabouraud’s agar

254
Q

dx: crypto

A

latex agglutination test.

255
Q

soap bubble lesions in brain, on histology but no change on CT

A

crypto

256
Q

tx: crypto

A

ampho B and flucytosine

257
Q

mucro and rhizopus

A

cause frontal lobe abscess with headache. May have black necrotic eschar on face or cranial nerve involvement

258
Q

disc shaped yeast on methenamine silver stain of lung tissue

A

PCP

259
Q

Tx for PCP

A

TMP-SMX

260
Q

prophylaxis for PCP?

A

CD4 <200

261
Q

dimorphic cigar shaped budding yeast

A

sporothrix xhenckii

262
Q

rose gardener’s disease with ulcer and draining lymphatics.

A

sporotrichosis

263
Q

Tx: sporotrichosis

A

itraconazole or POTASSIUM iodide

264
Q

transmission giardia

A

cysts in water

265
Q

dz giardia

A

trophozoites or cysts in stool

266
Q

what does giardia look like trophozoite form?

A

A scary kite

267
Q

bloody diarrhea with liver abscess and anchovy paste exudate

A

amoeba

268
Q

histology of amoeba

A

flask shaped ulcer

269
Q

dx stage amoeba

A

trophozoites in cytoplasm or cyst in the stool (with multiple nuclei)

270
Q

Tx: amoeba

A

metro

271
Q

Tx: asymptomatic amoeba

A

idoquinol

272
Q

cryptosporidium sx

A

severe diarrhe ain AIDS, mild diarrhea otherwise

273
Q

Dx: cryptosporidium

A

cysts on acid fast stain

274
Q

Tx; cryptosporidium

A

nitazoxanide if immunocompetent

275
Q

classic triad of toxo

A

chorioretinitis
hydrocephalus
intracranial calcifications
– can be mono like illness if u r healthy

276
Q

when is toxo transmitted?

A

across the placenta

277
Q

Dx of toxo

A

serology or biopsy

278
Q

Tx for toxo

A

sulfadiazine + pyrimethamine

279
Q

person swam in a freshwater lake and got rapidly fatal meningoencephalitis

A

naegleria

280
Q

tx: naegleria

A

not much! occasionally ampho but most people die

281
Q

dx: naegleria

A

amoebas in spinal fluid

282
Q

african sleeping sickness (enlarged lymph nodes, bouts of fever, coma, somnolence) caused by:

A

trypanosomes

283
Q

transmission trypanosomes

A

tsetse fly, painful bite

284
Q

Dx: trypanosomes

A

blood smear

285
Q

tx: trypanosomes

A

suramin for blood borne disease

melarsoprol for DNS penetration

286
Q

malaria with 48 hr cycle and dormant form in liver

A

P vivax

287
Q

malaria with severe, irregular fevers and banana shaped diagnostic form

A

falciprum

288
Q

malaria with a 72 hour cycle

A

P malariae

289
Q

First line tx for plasmodium

A

chloroquine, blocks plasmodium heme polymerase. If resistant, use mefloquine

290
Q

Tx: life threatening plasmodium

A

intravenous quinidine (test for G6PD deficiency first)

291
Q

Tx: dormant hypnozoite plasmodium vivax

A

primaquine

292
Q

Sx: babesia

A

fever and hemolytic anemia

293
Q

Dx: babesia

A

maltese cross on blood smear along with ring form.

PCR

294
Q

Who is at increased risk of babesia?

A

asplenic

295
Q

tx: babesia

A

atovaquone + azithromycin

296
Q

pathogen in chagas

A

trypanosoma cruzi

297
Q

sx: chagas

A

cardiomyopathy
megacolon
megesophagus

298
Q

tx: chagas

A

nifurtimox

299
Q

Sx: Leishmaniasis

A

spiking fevers, hepatosplenomegaly, pancytopenia

300
Q

Transmission: leishmaniasis

A

sand fly

301
Q

Dx: leishmaniasis

A

macrophages with amastigotes

302
Q

Tx: leishmaniasis

A

sodium stibogluconate

303
Q

foul green discharge with itching and burning

A

trichomonas vaginalis

304
Q

transmission trichomonas (vs gardenella)

A

trichomonas=STD

gardenella= NOT an STD!

305
Q

Tx and Dx for trichomonas

A

trophozoites on wet mount

–metronidazole

306
Q

Tx for pinworm

A

mebendazole/pyrantel pamoate

307
Q

Tx for ascaris

A

bendazoles

308
Q

how do you get ascaris?

A

fecal oral. worry about intestinal obstruction

309
Q

tx stronyloides

A

ivermectin/albendazole

310
Q

tx for ancylostoma duodenale, necator americanus (hookworm)

A

bendazole

311
Q

transmission: strongyloides

A

soil penetrate skin

312
Q

Sx strongyloides

A

vomiting, diarrhea, anemia

313
Q

Sx hookworms

A

anemia

314
Q

Dracunulus medinensis

A

skin inflammation and ulceration from a nematode. get it from drinking water

315
Q

Tx: dracunculus

A

slow extraction of worm

316
Q

Onchocerca volvulus

A

nematode causing hyperpigmented skin and river blindness (black flies, black skin, black sight)

317
Q

Tx of onchocerca

A

ivermectin

318
Q

trans: onchocerca

A

female black fly

319
Q

loa loa

A

nematode causing skin swelling and worm in conjunctiva

320
Q

Tx: loa loa

A

diethylcarbamazine

321
Q

trans: loa loa

A

deer fly, horse fly, mango fly

322
Q

wuchereria bancrofti

A

nematode that causes elephantiasis. sx after 1 year

323
Q

Wucheria tx

A

diethylcarbamazine

324
Q

toxocara canis transmission

A

food contaminated with eggs

325
Q

toxocara canis sx

A

nematode causing visceral larva migrans

326
Q

tx toxocara

A

albendazole or mebendazole

327
Q

ingesting larvae in undercooked pork

A

taenia solium

328
Q

sx: taenia solium

A

cysticercosis . seizures or brain cysts

329
Q

tx taenia solium

A

praziquantel

330
Q

diphyllobothrium latum transmission

A

larvae from raw freshwater fish

331
Q

sx: diphyllobothrium

A

B12 deficiency=anemia

332
Q

tx: diphyllo

A

praziqunatel

333
Q

echinococcus transmission

A

ingestion of eggs from dog feces

334
Q

sx: echinococcus

A

cysts in liver. causing anaphylaxis if antigens are released.

335
Q

how to prevent echinococcus anaphylaxis?

A

pre-inject cyst with ethanol

336
Q

Tx echinococcus

A

bendazoles

337
Q

schistosoma host

A

snail

338
Q

schistosoma infectious state

A

cercariae. a fluke.

339
Q

tx: schistosoma

A

praziquantel

340
Q

Schistosoma disease

A

liver and spleen granulomas causing portal hypertension

341
Q

clonorchis sinensis transmission

A

undercooked fish

342
Q

Sx: clonorchis sinensis

A

fluke causing biliary tract infection with pigmented (brown) gallstones
assoc’d with cholangiocarcinoma

343
Q

tx: clonorchis

A

praziquantel

344
Q

paragonimus westermani transmission

A

fluke from undercooked crab meat

345
Q

sx paragonimus westermani

A

lung inflammation and secondary bacterial infection with hemoptysis

346
Q

hemoptysis parasite

A

paragonimus

347
Q

microcytic anemia with a parasite

A

ancylostoma, necator (hook worm

348
Q

liver cyst, parasite

A

echinococcus granulosus

349
Q

vitamin B 12 deficiency parasite

A

diphylloborhtrium

350
Q

biliary tract disease parasite

A

clonorchis sinensis

351
Q

subacute sclerosing encephalitis sx

A

ataxia
myoclonus
visual problems

Random boards stuff (35 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions