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CT/MS Flashcards

1
Q

Crutches–damage which nerve

A

radial nerve

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2
Q

Weakness in forearm, wrist, and finger extensors caused by

A

radial nerve damage (wrist drop)

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3
Q

Cochicine tox

A

GI irritation, agranulocytosis

–inhibits microtubules, affects rapidly growing cells

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4
Q

contraindications to NSAIDs

A

renal failure
peptic ulcer dz
elderly peeps

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5
Q

Ankylosing spondylitis–RF elevated?

A

NO

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6
Q

Sx of ank spon

A
  1. peripheral enthesitis (insertion of tendon to bone)
    - -esp at achilles
  2. Enthesitis of castovertebral junctions–hypoventilation
    - -check chest expansion
  3. aortic regurg
  4. uveitis
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7
Q

First/2nd/3rd line acute therapy for gout

A
  1. ibuprofen
  2. colchicine (if cannot take NSAIDs)
  3. glucocorticoids (if cannot take NSAIDs)
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8
Q

A band in sarcomere

A

same length

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9
Q

H band

A

Only mysoin

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10
Q

I band

A

only actin

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11
Q

How do you stain for muscle cells?

A

Actin, caldesmon, desmin

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12
Q

myasthenia gravis: which part of the NMJ is affected?

A

End motor plate potential decreased. Binding of antibody causes receptor internalization and fewer # of receptors

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13
Q

Perifascicular muscle inflammation

A

dermatomyositis

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14
Q

Anterior should dislocations will hurt which nerve?

A

axillary

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15
Q

What does axillary nerve innervate?

A

deltoid/teres minor with sensory innervation to the skin over the deltoid

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16
Q

Humeral midshaft fracture with swelling and ecchymoses of arm will damage which nerve

A

radial nerve

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17
Q

Describe pathophysiology of muscle repolarization/relaxation

A
  1. L-type calcium channels.
  2. activates (Ryanodine receptors) in junctional SR - Calcium-induced Calcium Release (CICR).
  3. myofibrils to contract.
  4. reuptake of calcium into SR stores
  5. calcium efflux out of the cell via Sodium-Calcium Exchanger (NCX; ~20%) and via sarcolemmal calcium pump (Ca2+-ATPase).
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18
Q

Ryanodine receptors

A

When calcium enters cell through voltage gated Cachannels, ryanodine receptors allow release of calcium from the SR

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19
Q

Calmodulin

A

Activates Ca-ATPase which pumps Ca out of the cell. Also helps to repolarize muscle cell after contraction, although indirectly

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20
Q

typical presentation of reactive arthritis

A

urethritis, conjunctivitis, arthritis of knees, ankles, and feet of young men

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21
Q

achondroplasia

A

impaired cartilage proliferation in the growth plate. Short extremities with normal sized head and chest (dwarfts)
–Problem with endochonral, not membranous bone formation

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22
Q

mutation achondroplasia

A

activating mutation in FGFR3

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23
Q

Inheritance of achondroplasia

A

auto dom

most mutations are sporadic tho

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24
Q

osteogenesis imperfecta defect

A

collagen type I

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25
Q

osteogenesis imperfecta inheritance

A

autosomal dominant

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26
Q

OI presentation

A

fractures, blue sclera, and hearing loss. (bones of hearing fracture)

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27
Q

Why do OI pts have blue sclera?

A

exposure of the choroidal veins

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28
Q

osteopetrosis

A

abnormally thick heavy bone that fractures. Inherited defect of bone resorption

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29
Q

defect in osteopetrosis

A

carbonic anhydrase II. Creates acidic environment needed to leech Ca from bone

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30
Q

presentation of osteopetrosis

A

anemia, thrombocytopenia, leukopenia (replaces medulla of bone).

  • -hydrocephalus (bone builds up in skull) with hearing problems
  • -renal tubular acidosis (carbonic anhyrase deficiency)
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31
Q

Tx: osteopetrosis

A

bone marrow tranplant

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32
Q

pidgeon breast deformity, frontal bossing, rachitic rosary, and bowing of legs

A

Rickets

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33
Q

alkaline phosphatase

A

osteoblast activation. Need alkaline environment to add calcium to bone

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34
Q

Lab findings in osteomalacia

A

Low serum Ca, low phosphate, increased PTH and alkaline phosphatase

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35
Q

What protects against weight loss after age 30?

A

Diet
exercise
estrogen

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36
Q

osteoporosis labs

A

`NORMAL LABS

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37
Q

What is contraindicated in osteoporosis?

A

Glucocorticoids–these increase bone loss

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38
Q

Paget disease of bone-pathophys

A

osteoclast goes rogue and starts eating up bone unregulated by blasts. Blast compensates by laying down bone improperly as fast as possible. then osteoclast burns out

Involves ONLY one or two bones!! not systemic

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39
Q

histology of paget’s disease

A

mosaic pattern of lamellar bone. MOSAIC=bone not fused. Haphazard instead of concentric cement lines

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40
Q

bone pain, increased hat size, lion-like faces and hearing loss in age 60

A

paget’s disease of the bone

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41
Q

lab finding in paget’s disease of the bone

A

elevated alkaline phosphatase. EVERYTHING ELSE (including serum calcium) is normal

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42
Q

treatment for paget’s

A

calcitonin and bisphosphonates

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43
Q

complications of paget’s disease

A

high output cardiac failure

osteosarcoma

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44
Q

osteomyelitis in kids

A

metaphysis

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45
Q

osteomyelitis in adults

A

epiphysis

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46
Q

osteomyelitis in IV drug abuser

A

pseudomonas

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47
Q

osteomyelitis in dog/cat scratch

A

pasteurella

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48
Q

vertebral osteomyelitis

A

TB

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49
Q

osteoma

A

benign tumor in facial bone. associated with gardner’s syndrome

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50
Q

osteoid osteoma

A

benign tumor of osteoblasts in cortex of long bones in young adults

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51
Q

bone pain that resolves with aspirin. X ray shows a bony mass with a radiolucent core

A

osteoid osteoma

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52
Q

osteoblastoma vs osteoid osteoma

A

over 2 cm
arises in vertebra
bone pane that does NOT respond to aspirin

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53
Q

most common benign tumor of bone

A

osteochondroma

sticks out from bone surface, continues from medullary

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54
Q

osteosarcoma

A

proliferation of osteoblasts

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55
Q

age of osteosarcoma pts

A

teenagers and elderly

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56
Q

High risk for osteosarcoma in teenagers

A

familial retinoblastoma

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57
Q

High risk for osteosarcoma in elderly

A

paget’s disease of the bone. radiation

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58
Q

Where do you usually see osteosarcoma?

A

metaphysis of long bones, distal femur or proximal tibia

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59
Q

X ray finding in osteosarcoma

A

Codman’s angle: raising of periosteum.

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60
Q

histology of osteosarcoma

A

pleomorphic cells producing osteoid

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61
Q

soap bubble appearance of bone on X-ray

A

giant cell tumor

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62
Q

epiphyseal tumor

A

giant cell tumor

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63
Q

ewing sarcoma derived from

A

neuroectoderm

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64
Q

ewing grows in

A

medullary cavity

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65
Q

Onion skin appearance on X-ray

A

ewing sarcoma

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66
Q

ewing histology

A

Small round blue cells with an 11,22 translocation

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67
Q

chondroma shows up in

A

medulla of small bones of hands and feet

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68
Q

chondrosarcoma shows up in

A

medulla of pelvis or central skeleton

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69
Q

osteolytic lesions

A

metastatic tumors. most common

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70
Q

prostatic carcinoma in bone

A

osteoblastic lesion (bone sclerosis)

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71
Q

RA associated with

A

HLA-DR4

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72
Q

pannus

A

granulation tissue in synovium. destroys cartilage and ankylosis (fusion) of joints.

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73
Q

complications of RA

A

anemia of chronic disease

secondary amyloidosis

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74
Q

complication of ank spon

A

aortitis–>aortic regurg

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75
Q

sausage finger/toe

A

psoriatic arthritis

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76
Q

Reiter’s occurs after

A

chalmydia infection

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77
Q

infectious arthritis

A

S aureus

gonorrhea

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78
Q

Causes of secondary gout

A

Leukemia
Lesch-Nyhan
Renal insufficiency

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79
Q

negatively birefringent crystals

A

Yellow when parallel and under polarized light

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80
Q

psuedogout

A

rhomboid shaped crystals with weak positive birefringence

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81
Q

dermatomyositis associated with

A

underlying carcinoma, usually GI

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82
Q

malar rash seen in lupus and

A

dermatomyositis. Will also have gottron lesions and heliotrope rash

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83
Q

antibodies in dermatomyositis

A

Positive ANA and anti-Jo-1. Make sure you don’t jump to Lupus! Get Anti-Jo-1 or Anti dsDNA

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84
Q

perimysial inflammation and perifascicular atrophy of muscle

A

dermatomyositis

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85
Q

endomysial inflammation with CD8+ cells

A

polymyositis

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86
Q

biopsy of skeletal muscle shows a lot of fat

A

Duchenne’s

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87
Q

inheritance of duchenne’s

A

X linked

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88
Q

dystrophin

A

allows cell to links muscle cytoskeleton to ECM

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89
Q

calf pseudohypertrophy with proximal muscle weakness

A

duchennes

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90
Q

lab in duchenne’s

A

creatinine kinase elevated

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91
Q

cause of death in duchenne’s

A

cardiac respiratory failure

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92
Q

Becker

A

mutation (not deletion) of dystrophin

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93
Q

lipoblast

A

liposarcoma

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94
Q

most common malignant soft tissue tumor in children

A

rhabdomyosarcoma

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95
Q

desmin positive tumor

A

rhabdomyosarcoma

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96
Q

site of rhabdomyosarcoma

A

head and neck.

Vag in young girls

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97
Q

apocrine gland

A

milky fluid, axilla, genitalia and areolae

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98
Q

sebaceous glands found in

A

hari follicle. holocrine secretion.

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99
Q

tight junction made up of

A

claudins and occludins

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100
Q

adherens junction made of

A

cadherins.

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101
Q

loss of which cadherin causes metastasis?

A

E cadherin

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102
Q

desmosomes made up of

A

keratin and desmoplakin

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103
Q

gap jnction protein

A

connexons

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104
Q

antibodies to desmosomes

A

pemphigus vulgaris

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105
Q

antibodies to hemidesmosomes

A

bullous pemphigoid

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106
Q

integrins

A

strengthens BM, binds laminin

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107
Q

hemidesmosome binds

A

keratin in basal cell to BM.

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108
Q

autoantibodies to hemidesmosome

A

bullous pemphigoid

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109
Q

rotator cuff innervated by

A

C5/6

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110
Q

most common rotator cuff injury

A

supraspinatus

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111
Q

action infraspinatus

A

laterally rotates arm

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112
Q

action teres minor

A

adducts arm and laterally rotates

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113
Q

action subscap

A

medially rotates and adducts

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114
Q

dislocation of lunate

A

carpal tunnel

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115
Q

common wrist fracture

A

avascular necrosis

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116
Q

intramuscular injection

A

damage to axillary nerve

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117
Q

supracondylar fracture of humerus

A

median nerve damage. Pain with pronation

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118
Q

falling and hitting heel of the hand

A

ulnar nerve damage.

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119
Q

medial forearm skin supplied by

A

T1

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120
Q

lateral forearm skin supplied by

A

C6

121
Q

which nerves travel above flexor retinaculum?

A

palmar cutaneous branch of median nerve

ulnar nerve

122
Q

innervates thenar muscles

A

abductor pollicis brevis

123
Q

axillary nerve roots

A

C5,6

124
Q

Radial nerve roots

A

C5-T1

125
Q

Muscles radial nerve

A 
BEST extensors
Brachioradialis
Extensors of wrist and fingers
Supraspinator
Triceps
126
Q

wrist drop

A

radial nerve

127
Q

“ape hand” or pope blessing when asked to make a fist

A

median nerve damage

128
Q

loss of opposition of thumb, lateral finger flexion and wrist flexion

A

median nerve

129
Q

medial finger and wrist flexion deficit

A

ulnar

130
Q

radial deviation of wrist with flexion

A

ulnar nerve damage

131
Q

median nerve roots

A

C5-8, T1

132
Q

ulnar nerve roots

A

C8, T1

133
Q

MC nerve roots

A

C5-7

134
Q

Upper trunk compression

A

MC damage

135
Q

cannot flex arm at elbow

A

MC nerve

136
Q

sensory deficit over lateral forearm

A

MC damage

137
Q

muscles supplied by MC nerve

A

biceps, brachialis, coracobrachialis

138
Q

presentation: erb-duchenne

A

infant with trauma during delivery

139
Q

Erb duchenne damages

A

C5-C6, axillary and musculocutaneous affected

140
Q

Klumpke’s palsy

A

embryologic defect in C8, T1

141
Q

atrophy of thenar/hypothenar, interosseous, with sensory deficit on medial forearm/hand

A

klumpke’s palsy

142
Q

disappearance of radial pulse when moving head to ipsilateral side

A

klumpke

143
Q

long thoracic nerve roots

A

C5-C7

144
Q

ulnar claw=damage to which muscles

A

medial lumbrical function. Cannot extend digits 4 and 5

145
Q

Median claw

A

caused by carpal tunnel

  • loss of lateral lumbricals. 2/3 digit claw when extension
  • distal median nerve damage
146
Q

pope’s blessing

A

proximal median nerve lesion

-loss of opponens pollicis

147
Q

situation causing long thoracic nerve damage

A

mastectomy

148
Q

Thenar muscles

A

opponens pollicis
abductor pollicis brevis
flexor pollicis brevis

149
Q

Hypothenar muscles

A

opponens digiti minimi
abductor digiti minimi
flexor digiti minimi

150
Q

Dorsal interosseous muscles

A

abduct fingers (DAB)

151
Q

palmar interosseous muscles

A

adduct fingers (PAD)

152
Q

Peroneal nerve

A

everts and dorsiflexes

153
Q

tibial nerve

A

inverts and plantarflexes

154
Q

oBTURATOR INJURY

A

ANTERIOR HIP DISLOCATION

155
Q

obturator motor deficit

A

thigh adduction

156
Q

obturator sensory

A

medial thigh

157
Q

femoral injury

A

pelvic fracture

158
Q

femoral motor

A

thigh flexion and leg extension

159
Q

femoral sensory

A

anterior thigh and medial leg

160
Q

common peroneal injury

A

fibula neck fracture

161
Q

common peroneal motor

A

foot eversion and dorsiflexion with foot drop/slap

162
Q

sensory loss in anterolateral leg and dorsal foot

A

peroneal

163
Q

knee trauma

A

tibial nerve

164
Q

loss of sense on sole of foot

A

tibial

165
Q

posterior hip dislocation

A

superior gluteal nerve or inferior gluteal nerve

166
Q

positive trendelenburg

A

superior gluteal

167
Q

can’t climb stairs, jump, rise from seated position or push downward

A

inferior gluteal

168
Q

L2-L4

A

femoral obturator

169
Q

L4-S2

A

common peroneal

170
Q

L4-S3

A

tibial

171
Q

L4-S1

A

superior gluteal

172
Q

L5-S2

A

Inferior gluteal

173
Q

slow twitch muscle with red fibers

A

type 1

174
Q

fast twitch muscles with white fibers

A

type 2 muscle

175
Q

Parathyroid hormone effect low dose vs high dose

A

low dose: builds bone

high dose: breaks down bone –> osteitis fibrosa cystica

176
Q

How does estrogen affect bone

A

inhibits apoptosis in blasts

increases apoptosis in clasts

177
Q

Type I osteoperosis

A

postmenopausal.

178
Q

Fractures in type I osteoporosis

A 
femoral neck fracture
distal radius (colles' fracture)
179
Q

treatment for osteoperosis

A

pulsatile PTH
SERMS
calcitonin
bisphosphon

180
Q

osteopetrosis labs

A

low calcium, high ALP

181
Q

osteitis fibrosa cystica labs

A

high calcium low phosphate high ALP high PTH

182
Q

Osteomalacia labs

A

low calcium, phosphate

high ALP, PTH

183
Q

Bone replaced by fibroblasts, collagen, and irregular bony trabeculae

A

polyostotic fibrous dysplasia

184
Q

McCune albright

A

cafe au lait
precocious puberty
polyostotic fibrous dysplasia

185
Q

Histol: giant cell tumor

A

spindle shaped cells with multinucleated giant cells

186
Q

benign tumors of the bone

A

giant cell tumor and osteochondroma

187
Q

Expansile glistening mass within medullary cavity

A

chondrosarcoma

188
Q

Codman’s triangle (periosteum elevation) and sunburst pattern on x-ray

A

osteosarcoma

189
Q

Treatment osteosarcoma

A

surgical resection and chemo

190
Q

disease modifying agents in RA

A

methotrexate, sulfasalazine, TNF-alpha inhibitors

191
Q

biopsy of sjogren’s glands

A

lymphocytic infiltration

192
Q

sjogren’s assoc’d with

A

RA

193
Q

Sjogren’s at risk for

A

B cell lymphoma

194
Q

Diseases causing gout

A

Lesch NyHan and von Gierke’s disease

195
Q

Why do you get gout after alcohol?

A

metabolites compete for same excretion sites as kidney

196
Q

pseudogout–men or women?

A

same. gout affects more men

197
Q

Tx for pseudogout

A

steroids, NSAIDs, colchicine

198
Q

Causes of avascular necrosis

A

High dose steroids, alcoholism, sickle cell

199
Q

pencil in cup deformity

A

psoriatic arthritis

200
Q

Most common cause of death in SLE

A

nephritis

201
Q

dsDNA

A

Lupus: specific, poor prognosis

202
Q

anti-smith

A

Lupus: specific

203
Q

false positive on syphilis tests

A

SLE–b/c of antiphospholipid antibodies

204
Q

antihistone antibodies

A

SLE–drug induced

205
Q

Lupus nephritis

A

diffuse proliferative

206
Q

Lupus nephrotic syndrome

A

membranous glomerulonephritis

207
Q

levels of what enzyme is high in sarcoidosis

A

ACE

208
Q

Findings in sarcoidosis

A
  1. bilateral hilar adenopathy
  2. restrictive lung disease
  3. erythema nodosum
  4. bell’s palsy
  5. granulomas with schaumann and asteroid bodies
  6. hypercalcemia
209
Q

Polymyalgia rheumatica associated with

A

temporal cell arteritis

210
Q

lab findings in PMR

A

high ESR, normal CK

211
Q

myositis ossificans

A

metaplasia of muscle to bone after trauma

212
Q

Most likely cause of death in scleroderma

A

pulmonary fibrosis

213
Q

Scl-70

A

scleroderma (anti-DNA topoisomerase)

214
Q

anti-centromere antibody

A

CREST

215
Q

Parakeratosis

A

hyperkeratosis with retained nuclei in stratum corneum

216
Q

Acanthosis

A

epidermal hyperplasia

217
Q

acantholysis

A

separation of epidermal cells (tombstoning in pemphigus vulgaris)

218
Q

Causes of albinism

A

decreased melanin production from reduced tyrosinase activity
OR
neural crest cell migration problem

219
Q

melasma

A

hyperpigmentation with pregnancy

220
Q

melanocyte # in albinism vs vitiligo

A

albinism: normal melanocyte count
vitiligo: decrease in melanocytes

221
Q

papular nevi

A

intradermal

222
Q

flat nevi

A

junctional–btw dermis and epidermis

223
Q

Ephelis

A

freckle. Has normal # melanocytes, more pigment

224
Q

Which layers of skin are abnormal in psoriasis?

A

Increased stratum spinosum

Decreased stratum granulosum

225
Q

auspitz sign

A

pinpoint bleeding spots from exposure of dermal papillae when scales are pulled

226
Q

Leser-trelat sign

A

sudden appearance of multiple seborrheic keratoses which indicate an underlying malignancy

227
Q

positive nikolsky sign

A

pemphigus vulgaris

228
Q

reticular immunofluorescence

A

pemphigus vulg

229
Q

IgG to desmoglein 1/3

A

pemphigus vulg

230
Q

IgG against hemidesmosomes

A

bullous pemphigoid

231
Q

linear immunofluorescence

A

bullous pemphigoid

232
Q

eosinophils with tense blisters

A

bullous pemphigoid

233
Q

pruritic papules, vesicles, and bullae with deposits of IgA at the tips of dermal papillae

A

dermatitis herpetiformis

234
Q

Dermatitis herpetiformis is associated with

A

celiac disease

235
Q

fever, bullae, necrosis, sloughing of skin and high mortality rate after giving a drug

A

Stevens Johnson

236
Q

What causes erythema multiforme?

A

Infections
Drugs
Cancers
Autoimmune

237
Q

Cause of acanthosis nigracans

A

visceral malignancy (and hyperinsulinemia)

238
Q

erythema nodosum is caused by

A

TB
Leprosy
Crohn’s

Histoplasmosis
Coccidioides

Strep
Sarcoid

239
Q

collarette scale

A

pityriasis rosea

240
Q

sawtooth infiltrate of lymphocytes at dermal/epidermal junction

A

Lichen planus

241
Q

Lichen planus associated with:

A

hepatitis C

242
Q

UVA vs UVB

A

UVB=sunburn

UVA=tanning/photoaging

243
Q

Staph scalded skin histology:

A

Exotoxin destroys kertinocyte attachment in the stratum granulosum

244
Q

Toxic epidermal necrolysis histology

A

Destroys epidermal-dermal junction cells

245
Q

Gas produced in necrotizing fasciitis

A

CO2 and methane

246
Q

pink, pearly tumor with telangiectasias and rolled borders

A

BCC

247
Q

palisading nuclei histology

A

BCC

248
Q

SCC associated with

A

arsenic exposure
chronic draining sinuses

These cancers rarely metastasize

249
Q

keratin pearls

A

SCC

250
Q

keratoacanthoma

A

SCC variant that grows rapidly then spontaneously regress

251
Q

Melanoma tumor marker

A

S-100

252
Q

Treatment for melanoma

A

excision with appropriately wide margins

253
Q

Risk of metastasis with melanoma

A

Breslow Depth!

254
Q

Which factors tell you if a nevus could be melanoma?

A 
asymmetry
border
color
diameter > 6
Evolution
255
Q

how to tx melanoma metastatic in pts with BRAF V600E mutation?

A

Vemurafenib, a BRAF kinase inhibitor

256
Q

LTC/D/E4

A

bronchoconstriction
vasoconstriction
contraction of smooth muscle
increased vascular permeability

257
Q

PGI2

A

inhibits platelet aggregation and promotes vasodilation

258
Q

Prostacyclin effect

A 
decreased:
platelet aggregation
vascular tone
bronchial tone
uterine tone
259
Q

Prostaglandin effects

A

Increased uterine tone
decreased vascular tone
Decreased bonchial tone

260
Q

aspirin mechanism

A

Irreversibly inhibits COX through acetylation, decreasing thromboxane A2 and prostaglandins

261
Q

aspirin overdose

A

respiratory alkalosis with metabolic acidosis

262
Q

aspirin tox

A

tinnitus, acute renal failure

263
Q

NSAID tox

A

interstitial nephritis and renal ischemia (PGs dilate afferent arteriole)

264
Q

COX-1

A

maintains gastric mucosa

Produces TXA2

265
Q

Indications for bisphosphonates

A

hypercalcemia

paget’s disease of bone

266
Q

tox: bisphosphonates

A

corrosive esophagitis

osteonecrosis of the jaw

267
Q

Contraindications in gout

A

salicylates (probenicid). These depress uric acid clearance.

268
Q

other allopurinol uses

A

extends life of Azathioprine and 6-MP which are metabolized by xanthine oxidase

269
Q

febuxostate

A

inhibits xanthine oxidase

270
Q

probenicid

A

Inhibits reabsorption of uric acid in PCT

271
Q

colchicine

A

binds and stabilizes tubulin to inhibit polymerization and inhibit leukocyte chemotaxis

272
Q

colchicine tox

A

massive diarrhea

273
Q

Drugs for acute gout

A

NSAIDs and glucocorticoids

274
Q

Entanercept

A

Fusion of TNF-alpha receptor and IgG1Fc

–binds up TNA alpha which is then phagocytosed

275
Q

Infliximab/adalimumab

A

anti-TNF alpha monoclonal antibody

276
Q

TNF-a indications

A

Crohn’s, rheumatoid arthritis, ankylosing spondylitis, psoriasis

277
Q

A young child has his arm pulled and injures:

A

C8-T1 roots of the brachial plexus

  • -Damages median and ulnar nerves
  • -Total hand weakness
278
Q

Sciatic nerve branches

A

common fibular

tibial

279
Q

superficial fibular nerve

A

innervates lateral leg, foot eversion

280
Q

deep fibular nerve innervates

A

anterior compartment of leg: dorsiflexors

281
Q

deep fibular provides sensory to

A

between first and second toes

282
Q

presentation of damage to common peroneal

A

foot drop

283
Q

tibial nerve actions

A

plantar flexion and inversion

284
Q

anterior to medial malleolus

A

saphenous and great saphenous vein

285
Q

posterior to the medial malleolus

A

posterior tibial artery
tibial nerve
tendons of the flexor digitorum longus, flexor hallucis longus, tibialis posterior

286
Q

matrix metalloproteases role in healing

A

Scar contractures

287
Q

Postitive trendelenberg sign indicates

A

Weakness of gluteus medius/minimus on the leg which they are standing on.
—these are innervated by superior gluteal nerve

288
Q

Inferior gluteal muscle innervates the

A

gluteus maximus muscle. Difficulty climbing stairs and rising from seated position

289
Q

inheritance of duchenne’s

A

X linked.

290
Q

calf pseudohypertrophy, replaced by fat

A

DUCHENNE. Begins with muscle hypertrophy, then changes to fat later on.

291
Q

Acanthosis

A

Thickening of the stratum spinosum. Think psoriasis

292
Q

dyskeratosis

A

abnormal permature keratinization. Think squamous cell cancer.

293
Q

hyperparakeratosis

A

Retention of nuclei in stratum corneum

  • -actinic keratosis
  • -normal on mucous membranes
294
Q

Hypergranulosis

A

lichen planus

295
Q

Synovial fluid of gout vs septic arthritis

A

WBC<20,000 in gout, over 100K in septic arthritis

296
Q

What gives elastin is elasticity?

A

cross linking of desmosine.

–Elastin is not hydroxylated and does not form a triple helix like collagen

297
Q

Osteoma arises on

A

surface of facial bone

298
Q

Osteoma associated with

A

gardner syndrome

299
Q

osteoid osteoma shows up in what part of the bone

A

arises in cortex of diaphysis

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