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Abdomen 2 > Metabolic Diseases > Flashcards

Metabolic Diseases Flashcards

1
Q

A metabolic disease is an abnormality that occurs

A

Globally in the body

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2
Q

A metabolic disease affects ____ and is dependant on

A

Several organs

The stage of the disease

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3
Q

What makes the underlying cause of a metabolic numerous

A

Many substances metabolized in the body

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4
Q

What are the different metabolic diseases of the liver

A

Hepatocellular disease

Glycogen storage disease

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5
Q

What are the different types of hepatocellular disease

A

Fatty infiltration

Cirrhosis

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6
Q

What is hepatocellular disease

A

A diffuse process what is caused by the dysfunction of hepatocytes

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7
Q

What is normal liver tissue replaced with in hepatocellular disease

A

Fat or fibrosis

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8
Q

Hepatocellular disease ranges from

A

Simple fatty changes to cirrhosis

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9
Q

What does hepatocellular disease often result in

A

Abnormal LFT’s

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10
Q

Hepatocellular disease often affects the

A

Liver size

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11
Q

What is Fatty infiltration

A

Steatosis

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12
Q

Define steatosis

A

Accumulation of triglycerides within hepatocytes

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13
Q

Is fatty infiltration uniform throughout the liver

A

No, not always

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14
Q

Fatty infiltration can be what kind of processes

A

Focal or diffuse

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15
Q

Fatty infiltration is

A

Acquired and reversible

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16
Q

What are the 2 most common causes of fatty infiltration

A

Alcohol abuse

Obesity

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17
Q

Fatty infiltration is the precursor to

A

Significant chronic disease

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18
Q

What is assessed when evaluating the liver for fatty infiltration

A

Echogenicity changes
Echotexture changes
Attenuation characteristics
Ability to visualize vessels

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19
Q

What is imperative when assessing for fatty infiltration

A

Appropriate gains, TGC’s and focus

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20
Q

What is the sonographic characteristics for mild fatty infiltration

A

Slight increase in liver echogencity

Diaphragm and vessels clearly defined

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21
Q

What is the sonographic characteristics for moderate fatty infiltration

A

Increase in liver echogencity

Vessels and diagram not sharply defined

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22
Q

What is the sonographic characteristics for severe fatty infiltration

A

Liver echogencity is markedly increased

Extremely difficult to define diaphragm and vessel walls

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23
Q

What are the different types of focal fatty changes

A

Infiltration

Sparing

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24
Q

What is the sonographic characteristics of infiltration

A

Focal areas of increased echogencity (fatty deposits)

Mostly normal liver parenchyma

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25
Q

What is the sonographic characteristics of sparing

A

Focal hyperechoic areas (normal liver tissue)

Majority if liver parenchyma has fatty infiltration

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26
Q

What lab values could potentially be elevated with fatty infiltration

A

ALT
AST
BBT is associated with alcohol abuse

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27
Q

What is cirrhosis

A

A diffuse process that destroys the liver cells

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28
Q

What does cirrhosis result in

A

Fibrosis of the liver parenchyma with nodular changes

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29
Q

What are the underlying causes for cirrhosis

A

Alcohol abuse
Chronic viral hepatitis
Primary sclerosing cholangitis

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30
Q

What is the progressive change of cirrhosis

A

Cell death
Fibrosis
Regeneration

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31
Q

Is cirrhosis reversible

A

No

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32
Q

What are the 2 types of nodular changes with cirrhosis

A

Micro nodular

Marco nodular

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33
Q

What is mirco nodular changes in cirrhosis caused by

A

Alcohol consumption

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34
Q

What is macro nodular changes in cirrhosis caused by

A

Chronic viral hepatitis

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35
Q

What does the acute stage of cirrhosis look like

A

Some appearance of severe fatty infiltration
Enlarged liver
Textural changes

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36
Q

What does the chronic stage of cirrhosis look like

A

Small liver (CL/RL >0.65)
Course echotexture
Nodular surface
Paucity of vessels

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37
Q

What is quite common with liver cirrhosis

A

Ascites

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38
Q

Cirrhosis has the potential to progress to what

A

End stage liver failure

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39
Q

What do the lab values for cirrhosis depend on

A

The stage of the disease

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40
Q

What are the increased lab values for cirrhosis

A 
AST 
ALT 
LDH 
ALK PHOS (ALP)
Bilirubin (conjugated)
Gamma globulins (BBT)
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41
Q

What lab value is decreased with liver cirrhosis

A

Serum albumin

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42
Q

Which other organ is affected by liver cirrhosis and why

A

Spleen and because of portal hypertension

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43
Q

What is the classic clinical presentation of liver cirrhosis

A

Hepatomegaly
Jaundice
Ascites

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44
Q

What are the other clinical presentations for liver cirrhosis

A

Diarrhea
Feeling of fullness
Weight loss

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45
Q

What is glycogen storage disease

A

Autosomal recessive disorder

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46
Q

What is another name for glycogen storage disease

A

Von Gierke’s disease

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47
Q

Glycogen storage disease is cause by what

A

An enzyme deficiency (G6P) which leads to excess glycogen deposits in hepatocytes

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48
Q

What is the most common disease of the gallbladder

A

Cholelithiasis

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49
Q

What are the factors affecting gallstone formation

A

Abnormal bile composition
Stasis of bile
Infection

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50
Q

What is the compulsion of gallstones

A

Cholesterol
Bilirubin
Calcium

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51
Q

What is the most common composition of gallstones

A

Cholesterol

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52
Q

What is the stone called when it is composed of bilirubin

A

Pigment stone

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53
Q

What are the risk factors for cholelithiasis

A 
Female 
Fat
Fertile
Forty
Family history
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54
Q

What is the clinical presentation of cholelithiasis

A

Can be asymptomatic
RUQ pain (after meals)
Nausea and vomiting
Belching

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55
Q

If a patient is found to have cholelithiasis and has RUQ pain how does the pain radiate

A

Towards the back

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56
Q

What is the sonographic appearance of cholelithiasis

A 
Echogenic focus 
Posterior shadowing 
Mobility 
May float in the bile 
WES sign
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57
Q

If a cholelithiasis stone is <5mm what may it not have

A

A shadow

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58
Q

When is the WES sign seen

A

When the gallbladder is filled with multiple stones or one large stone

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59
Q

What does WES stand for

A

Wall
Echo
Shadow

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60
Q

What lab values will be altered with cholelithiasis

A

ASTT
ALT
ALP
Bilirubin

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61
Q

What are the complications of gallstones

A 
Biliary colic 
Obstruction of the cystic duct or CBD 
Bacterial infection
Cholecystitis
Ascending cholangitis
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62
Q

What is the most common complication of gallstones and what does it cause

A

Biliary colic; causes severe pain

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63
Q

What does the obstruction of the cystic duct or CBD lead to

A

GB hydrops

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64
Q

An US examination to investigate possible obstruction of the biliary tree tree should focus on which 3 questions

A
  1. Is the bile duct or GB dilated
  2. If yes, to what level
  3. If yes, what is the cause
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65
Q

What are the 2 different types of biliary tree obstruction

A

Biliary dilation

Choledocholiathiasis

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66
Q

Biliary dilation can be

A

Intra-hepatic or extra-hepatic

Mild, moderate or severe

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67
Q

What causes the ducts to dilate

A

Obstruction
Loss of duct elasticity
Ampulla of vaster dysfunction

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68
Q

What is the most common cause of duct dilation

A

Obstruction

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69
Q

What is the typical cause of biliary obstruction

A

Stone

Tumor

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70
Q

What is the clinical presentation of obstruction

A

Painless jaundice

Painful jaundice

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71
Q

What causes painless jaundice

A

Neoplastic conditions

Choledochal cysts

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72
Q

When is painful jaundice seen

A

With acute obstruction (stones)
And/Or
Infection of the biliary tree

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73
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of obstruction

A 
Jaundice 
Clay coloured stool
Abnormal LFT’s
Pain 
Nausea
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74
Q

Can choledocholiathiasis be intrahepatic or extrahepatic

A

Yes

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75
Q

What is choledocholiathiasis

A

Stones in the biliary tree

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76
Q

Are there primary and secondary causes of choledocholiathiasis

A

Yes

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77
Q

What is the secondary cause of choledocholiathiasis

A

Stones that pass from the gallbladder to ducts

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78
Q

What is the primary cause of choledocholiathiasis

A

Stones that form in the ducts

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79
Q

What is the most common cause of choledocholiathiasis

A

Secondary

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80
Q

What causes the primary cause of choledocholiathiasis

A

Inflammation
Infection
Caroli’s disease
Prior surgery

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81
Q

What kind of infection will lead to the primary cause of choledocholiathiasis

A

Parasitic

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82
Q

What is the most common location for stones in the biliary tree

A

Distal CBD at the ampulla of Vater

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83
Q

when does glycogen storage disease begin

A

neonatally

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84
Q

what is associated with glycogen storage disease

A

begin adenomas

HCC

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85
Q

how is glycogen storage disease managed

A

through controlled and monitored diet

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86
Q

what is the sonographic appearance of glycogen storage disease

A

presents as diffuse fatty infiltration

adenomas

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87
Q

what is the metabolic disease that affects the peritoneum

A

ascites

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88
Q

define ascites

A

accumulation of free serous fluid in the peritoneal cavity

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89
Q

what are the 2 different types of ascites fluid

A

transudate

exudate

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90
Q

what does transudate fluid contain

A

little protein or cells

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91
Q

what does transudate fluid suggest

A

a non-inflammatory process

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92
Q

what kind of non-inflammatory processes does transudate fluid typically indicate

A

cirrhosis

CHF

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93
Q

why does cirrhosis cause transudate fluid to be leaked

A

because pressures in the liver increases which causes fluid to leak out of the hepatocytes
or
hypoalbuminemia

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94
Q

what is the sonographic appearance of transudate fluid

A

anechoic fluid

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95
Q

what does exudate fluid contain

A

high protein
blood (hemoperitoneum)
pus
chylous

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96
Q

define chylous

A

milky fluid with a high fat content

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97
Q

where is chyous from

A

lympathic system

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98
Q

what does exudate fluid suggest

A

an inflammatory or malignant cause

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99
Q

what is the sonographic appearance of exudate fluid

A

internal echoes
echogenic
loculations

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100
Q

what are the 2 different ways fluid in the perioneal cavty can present

A

free

loculated

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101
Q

how does free fluid in the perioteum change

A

with patient position

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102
Q

does free fluid in the perioteum confrom to the surrounding organs

A

yes, with acute angles with organ contact

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103
Q

how does loculated fluid in the peritoeum change with movement

A

it doesn’t

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104
Q

what is the appearance of loculated fluid in the peritoneum

A 
rounded margins 
mass effect (walled off)
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105
Q

what are the 3 most dependant spaces in the perioneal cavity

A

morrison’s pouch
pouch of douglas
paragolic gutter

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106
Q

what are the different metabolic diseases of the gallbladder and biliary tree

A

biliary sludge
gallstones
biliary tree obstruction

107
Q

what is biliary sludge

A

a mixture of particulate matter and bile

108
Q

what are the different names for biliary sludge

A

biliary sand

microlithiasis

109
Q

what is biliary sludge a potential presursor for

A

gallbladder disease

110
Q

if a patient has biliary sludge how do they present

A

may or may not have symptoms

111
Q

if a patient is asymptomatic and has biliary sludge, what does it typically indicate

A

biliary colic

inflammation of the gallbladder and pancreas

112
Q

can biliary sludge resolve spontaneously

A

yes

113
Q

what is the most likely cause of biliary sludge

A

bile stasis

114
Q

what are the causes of bile stasis

A

prolanged fasting
rapid weight loss
TPN
extrahepatic biliary obstruction

115
Q

what is the sonographic appearance of biliary sludge

A 
non-shadowing
homogeneous 
low level echoes
layers in the dependant portion of the gallbladder 
-fluid-fluid level
moves with patient position
116
Q

what are the different types of biliary sludge

A 
tumefactive sludge/sludge balls 
hepatization 
pseudo sludge 
empyema 
hemobila
milk of calcium
117
Q

what is tumefactive sludge/sludge ball

A

sludge that mimics polypoid tumors

118
Q

how do you differiciate tumefactive sludge from polypoid tumor

A

look at vascularity mobility and GB wall thickness

119
Q

what is hepatization sludge

A

sludge that has the same echogenicity as the liver

camouflages the GB

120
Q

what is pseudo sludge

A

an imaging artifact that is independant of gravity

caused by excessive gains, slice thickness or side lobe artifact

121
Q

what is empyema sludge

A

presence of pus in bile

122
Q

what is hemobilia sludge

A

the presence of blood in bile

123
Q

what is hemobila usually due to

A

liver biopsy

percutaneous biliary procedures

124
Q

what is another term for milk of calcium

A

limey bile

125
Q

What is milk of calcium

A

Rare, semi solid substance that fills the GB that is in a separate category from biliary sludge

126
Q

What is milk of calcium composed of

A

Calcium carbonate

127
Q

What is the sonographic appearance of milk of calcium

A

Highly echogenic material with posterior shadowing that changes with patient position and it forms a calcium/bile fluid level

128
Q

Stones in the distal CBD can be difficult to visualize due to what

A

Bowel gas

129
Q

What do you look for in the distal CBD if there is bowel gas blocking the stone

A

Hyperechoic focus with posterior shadowing

130
Q

What are scanning techniques to resolve the distal CBD

A

Changing patient position
Compression of bowel
Change windows
Use the pancreatic head as a reference

131
Q

What can cause false positives of stones in the distal CBD

A

Surgical clips; post cholecystectomy
Air
Edge artifact

132
Q

What lab values will change with choledocholiathiasis

A

Alkaline phosphatase (ALP)
AST
ALT
Bilirubin

133
Q

what is the treatment for choledocholiathiasis

A

ERCP spincterotomy
ERCP extraction
stenting

134
Q

what does ERCP stand for

A

endoscopic retrograde cholangiopanreatography

135
Q

what are the metabolic diseases that affect the urinary tract

A

calculi in the urinary collecting system
medical renal disease
renal failure

136
Q

what are the different types of stones in the urinary system

A 
nephrolithiasis 
bladder calculi
hydronephrosis
renal parenchymal calcium deposits
Anderson-Carr kidney
137
Q

define urolithiasis

A

stones in the urinary system

138
Q

define nephrolithiasis

A

stones in the renal collecting system

139
Q

define nephrocalcinosis

A

calcifications in the renal parenchyma

140
Q

is nephrolithiasis very common

A

yes

141
Q

who is more commonly affected by nephrolithiasis

A

caucasian males

142
Q

the incidence of nephrolithiasis increases with what

A

age

143
Q

what is the etiology of nephrolithiasis

A

unknown

144
Q

what are the underlying risk factors for developing nephrolithiasis

A

hereditary
limited water intake
high animal protein diet
urinary stasis

145
Q

stones that form in the kidneys can move through what

A

the collecting system

146
Q

stones can become lodged in the natural narrowings of the ureter where

A

just past the UPJ
at the iliac vessels
at the UVJ

147
Q

what is the most common place for a stone to become lodged in the ureter

A

the UVJ

148
Q

stones < what can be passed

A

5mm

149
Q

what is the clinical presentation of nephrolithiasis

A

often asymptomatic
heamturia
flank pain

150
Q

hematuria in cases of nephrolithiasis can be what

A

microscopic or gross

151
Q

what is the sonographic appearance of nephrolithiasis

A

echogenic focus

posterior shadowing

152
Q

what information of nephrolithiasis should be gathered for the radiologist

A

number
size
location
compilcations

153
Q

what complications are being assessed for in cases of nephrolithiasis

A

hydronephrosis

jets in the bladder

154
Q

tiny stones can be difficult to identify, so what should be looked for

A

twinkle artifact

155
Q

define staghorn calculi

A

calcifications in the collecting system

156
Q

what can cause false postives for nephrolithiasis

A 
intrarenal gas 
renal artery calcifcations 
calcified sloughed papilla
calcified tumors
ureteric stent
157
Q

whaat are the 3 other imaging modalities that can detect urolithiasis

A

xray
tomagraphy
CT

158
Q

bladder calculi are

A

usually single

asymptomatic

159
Q

bladder calculi can be the result of

A

a stone migrating from the kidney

urinary stasis

160
Q

what can the patient present with if they have bladder calculi

A

hematuria

pain

161
Q

what is checked for in cases of bladder calculi and how is it done

A

mobility of the stone to the dependant portion of the bladder by changing patient position

162
Q

what is hydronephrosis

A

dilated renal collecting system

163
Q

hydronephrosis can be a

A

incidental finding, asymptomatic patient

164
Q

hydronephrosis can be due to what causes

A

obstructive

non-obstructive

165
Q

what are the obstructive causes of hydronephrosis

A

intrinsic/extrinsic obstruction of flow

166
Q

what should be assessed for in obstructive cases of hydronephrosis

A

jets

167
Q

what are the non-obstructive causes of hydronephrosis

A

reflux
infection
polyuria

168
Q

what may hydronephrosis lead to

A

renal atrophy

169
Q

classifications for hydronephrosis are based on what

A

sonographic appearance

170
Q

how many grades of hydrone[hrosis are there

A

3

171
Q

what is grade 1 hydronephrosis

A

mild

slight seperation of the renal collecting system

172
Q

what is grade 2 hydronephrosis

A

moderate
anechoic seperation of the entire central renal sinus
pelvis and calcyes (major and minor) are dilated
clubbed calcyes

173
Q

what is degree of separation of the renal collecting system when there is mild hydronephrosis

A

2mm

174
Q

what is grade 3 hydronephrosis

A

severe
thinning of the renal cortex
extensive enlargement of the renal sinus and calyces
loss of individual calyx definition

175
Q

why are the ureters and bladder assessed in cases of hydronephrosis

A

looking for the cause

176
Q

what can lead to false positives of hydronephrosis

A

over distened bladder
extra-renal pelvis
multiple parapelvic cysts
AV malformation

177
Q

in cases of hydronephrosis what must always be performed

A

a post-void assessment

178
Q

what is another term for renal parenchymal calcium deposits

A

nephrocalcinosis

179
Q

renal parenchymal calcium deposits occur ___ and are

A

bilateral and diffuse

180
Q

renal parenchymal calcium deposits are either

A

cortical or medullary

181
Q

renal parenchymal calcium deposits can be caused by

A

ischemia
necrosis
wall of pyramids

182
Q

what is the sonographic appearance of renal parenchymal calcium deposits

A

increased cortical echogenicity
echogenic pyramids or wall of pyramids
possible shadowing

183
Q

what is Anderson-Carr kidney

A

theory of stone progression

184
Q

what causes Anderson-Carr kidney

A

high concetration of calcium in fluid around tubules

185
Q

what does Anderson-Carr kidney result in

A

deposits of calcium in the margins of the medulla

186
Q

what is the sonographic appearance Anderson-Carr kidney

A

non-shadowing echogenic rims of renal pyramids

187
Q

medical renal disease affects what

A

renal parenchyma bilaterally and diffusly in the cortex and medulla

188
Q

medical renal disease is a broad term to describe what

A

renal disorders

189
Q

medical renal disease describes what

A

poorly functioning but unobstructed kidneys

190
Q

what needs to be doen to identify the cause of medical renal disease

A

renal biopsy

191
Q

medical renal disease is intially treated by what rather than what

A

medication rather than surgery

192
Q

what can medical renal disease lead to

A

renal failure

193
Q

in cases of medical renal disease what are the areas to evaulate

A 
renal size and conture
cortical echogencity 
CM junction distinction
renal pyramids
renal sinus
194
Q

what may the sonographic appearance of medical renal disease depend on

A

the varying underlying cause

195
Q

what is the sonographic appearance of the acute stages of medical renal disease

A

diffuse increase in cortical echogencity
prominent CM junction
enlarged kidneys
can also appear normal

196
Q

what is the exception in acute stages of medical renal disease if the pyramids are affected

A

the CM junction will not be defined

197
Q

what is the sonographic appearance of the chronic stage of medical renal disease

A

small echogenic kidneys

198
Q

what are the causes of medical renal disease

A 
acute tubular necrosis
acute cortical necrosis 
acute glomerulonephritis
amyloidosis
diabetes mellitus
199
Q

what is the most common cause of acute reversible renal failure

A

acute tubular necrosis

200
Q

what is acute tubular necrosis

A

deposits of debris in the renal collecting tubules

201
Q

what can acute tubular necrosis be the result of

A

toxic or ischemic insults

202
Q

what is the appearance of acute tubular necrosis on ultrasound

A

kidneys most often appear normal but maybe bilateral enlarged with echogenic pyramids
RI >0.75

203
Q

acute cortical necrosis is a rare cause of what

A

acute renal failure

204
Q

what is acute cortical necrosis

A

ischemic necrosis of the cortex with sparing of the pyramids

205
Q

what is acute cortical necrosis due to

A

sepsis
burns
severe dehyrdations
PIH

206
Q

what is the sonographic appearance of acute cortical necrosis

A

initally normal size, hypoechoic cortex and loss of CM junction
over time, kidneys atrophy and cortex calcifies

207
Q

acute glomerulonephritis is a

A

autoimmune reaction

208
Q

what does the patient present with when they have acute glomerulonephritis

A

hematuria
hypertension
azotemia

209
Q

what is the early appearance of acute glomerulonephritis on US

A

kindey may be normal size or enlarged

cortex may be normal echogenic ot hypoechoic

210
Q

what is the appearance of the later stages of acute glomerulonephritis

A

small, echogenic kidneys

211
Q

what is amyloidosis

A

systemic metabolic disorder resulting in amyloid deposits in the kidneys

212
Q

what will the patient present with when they have amyloidosis

A

proteinuria

213
Q

what is the appearance of amylodosis on US

A

variable; large, normal or small kidney size

hypo or hperechoic

214
Q

what is the most common cause of chronic renal failure

A

diabetes mellitus

215
Q

initally what happens to the kidneys when a patient has diabetes mellitus

A

kidneys will be enlarged

216
Q

at end-stage of diabetes mellitus what is the appearance of the kidneys

A

small
echogenic
loss of CMJ

217
Q

renal failure is

A

the inability of kidneys to remove metabolites from blood

218
Q

what is azotemia

A

overload of urea and nitrogenous wastes in the blood

219
Q

what does renal failure result in

A

azotemia

220
Q

what are the 3 different causes of renal failure

A

pre-renal
renal
post-renal

221
Q

what leads to the cause of pre-renal, renal failure

A

sepsis

renal artery stenosis

222
Q

what leads to renal, renal failure

A

parenchymal disease

223
Q

what leads to post-renal renal failure

A

obstruction of collecting system

224
Q

if there is complete obtruction how long does it take for the renal damage to be irreversible

A

3 weeks

225
Q

if there is incomplete obstruction how long will it take for the renal damage to be irreversible

A

3 months

226
Q

acute stage renal failure is

A

reversible

typically due to medical renal disease

227
Q

what is the sonographic appearance of acute stage renal failure

A

most normal, possible enlargeme
hypoechoic
assess for hydronephrosis, obstruction
check echogencity of parenchyma

228
Q

chronic stage renal failure is

A

irreversible

most common caused by diabetes mellitus

229
Q

what is the sonographic appearance of chronic stage renal failure

A

small kidney

echogenic cortex

230
Q

what lab vaules are increased with renal failure

A 
serum creatinine 
BUN
uric acid 
RBC/WBC in urine 
proteinuria
231
Q

what is the treatment for renal failure

A

dialysis

renal transplant

232
Q

what are the different metabolic diseases of the adrenal glands

A

hyperadrenalism

hypoadrenalism

233
Q

what can cause hyperadrenalism

A

cushing’s syndrome
conn’s disease
MEN

234
Q

what does cushing’s syndrome result from

A

excess secretion of cortisol

235
Q

cushing’s sydrome can occur as the result of

A

adrenal hyperplasia
adrenal adenoma
adrenal carcinoma
exogenous corticosteriod administration

236
Q

what is the clinical presentation of cushing’s disease

A 
moon face
buffalo hump
truncal obesity 
hirsutisim
amenorrhea
HTN
237
Q

what is the difference between cushing’s syndrome and cushing’s disease

A

snydrome is cause by adreanal dysfunction

disease is caused by a pitutary disorder

238
Q

what is Conn’s disease

A

excess aldosterone secreation

239
Q

what can Conn’s disease occur as a result of

A

adenoma (aldosteronoma)
hyperplasia
carcinoma

240
Q

is carcinoma causing Conn’s disease common or uncommon

A

uncommon

241
Q

what is the clincial presentation of Conn’s disease

A 
hypernatemia 
hypokalemia
HTN
muscle cramps
altered renal function
242
Q

what is the sonographic appearance of Conn’s disease

A

small,solid, round mass

hypoechoic

243
Q

what does MEN stand for

A

multiple endocrine neoplasia

244
Q

how many types of MEN are there

A

3

245
Q

MEN tumores develop in several endocrine glands, like

A

adrenal
pancreas
pituitary
parathyroid gland

246
Q

MEN causes excess what to be produced

A

hormones

247
Q

MEN can be either

A

benign or malignant

248
Q

is type 2 MEN malignant or benign

A

malignant

249
Q

MEN type 2 is and occurs

A

autosomal dominant and occurs typically bilaterally in the phenochromocytomas in adrenal

250
Q

hypoadrenalism is due to

A

primary disorders of the adrenal cortex or disorders of the hypothalamus or pituitary

251
Q

hypoadrenalism may cause what

A

adrenal atrophy

252
Q

what can cause hypoadrenalism

A

Addison’s disease

waterhouse-friderichsen syndrome

253
Q

what are the 2 types of addison’s disease

A

autoimmune

TB

254
Q

what % of addison’s disease is autoimmune

A

80

255
Q

autoimmune addison’s disease is

A

found in females

not typically identified sonographically

256
Q

what % of addison’s disease is TB

A

20

257
Q

TB addison’s disease is found in

A

males

258
Q

TB addison’s disease causes

A 
enlarged, firm, nodular adrenals 
hyperpigmentation
low blood pressure
muscle weakness
fatigue
259
Q

what % of the gland is nonfunction when the patient has TB addison’s disease

A

90

260
Q

what is waterhouse-frederichsen syndrome

A

acute hypoadrenlism

261
Q

waterhouse-frederichsen syndrome is from

A

massive destruction of adrenals

262
Q

waterhouse-frederichsen syndrome is secondary to

A

hemorrhage

infection

263
Q

what is necessary with waterhouse-frederichsen syndrome

A

glucocorticoid therapy

Abdomen 2 (6 decks)

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