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Mesa E-175 Oral Prep 2022 (just updated) > Mesa GOM > Flashcards

Mesa GOM Flashcards

1
Q

How many hours do you have to wait to fly after scuba diving?

A

24 Hours

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2
Q

Hours after consuming alcohol?

A

12 hrs/company; 8 hrs/FAR

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3
Q

What is the lowest reported visibility that will allow a FO to perform the T/O on a 121 flight?

A

1 SM

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4
Q

What % of the effective length of the runway at the destination must a turbojet airplane be able to make a landing and come to a complete stop?

A

60%

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5
Q

What is listed on the dispatch release for MELs?

A

MEL item, MEL #, Description, and Expiration Date

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6
Q

CA must contact dispatch when delayed more than how many minutes?

A

15 minutes

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7
Q

What kinds of pax are we unable to carry?

A

Incubated infants, infants less than 1 day old, pregnant women within 7 days of due date w/o MD approval w/i 72 hrs, barefoot pax, intox. pax, pax with O2 tanks, Pax armed, CA discretion, pax that can’t sit upright or fit in the seat

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8
Q

How many high risk prisoners can you take aboard?

A

No more than 1 high risk prisoner accompanied with 2 LEOs and must board first and deplane last

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9
Q

What is the min uninterrupted sleep behind closed doors?

A

8 hrs

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10
Q

Which pax will not be permitted to sit in exit row?

A
  1. deaf or hard hearing,
  2. < 15 yrs of age,
  3. Can’t read, speak, or understand English,
  4. lack physical capability to operate exit door
  5. Not guard or prisoner
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11
Q

Which PEDs are prohibited to be used at all times?

A

radios, TVs, remote control devices, GPS devices, and e-cigs

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12
Q

What are the procedures for obtaining a temp Airmen Cert if lost?

A
  1. Pilot will contact Mesa CS and request Sup and have his/her identity verified.
  2. Temp Airmen Cert. Letter serves as pilot cert. for 72 hrs
  3. A replacement airmen cert. request must be made to FAA w/i 72 hrs of issue
  4. Real temp cert. must be sent to Crew Quals w/i 24 hrs
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13
Q

How long can the real temp airmen cert. be carried around after issue by FAA

A

60 days

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14
Q

What are the 4 Pillars of Safety?

A
  1. Safety Policy
  2. SRM
  3. Safety Assurance
  4. Safety Promotion
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15
Q

Codeshare Performance Goals

A
  1. DP D-0
  2. STAR/Head Start Flights - on time perf. first flight out
  3. Arrival-14 no later than 14 mins past sched. arrival time
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16
Q

Dispatcher Responsibilities

A
  1. Monitor progress of flight
  2. Issue info for safety of flight
  3. Canceling or redispatching
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17
Q

PIC Responsibilities

A
  1. Command of a/c and crew and safety of all aboard
  2. Full op. control and authority without limitation
  3. Inflight Security Advisor
  4. Monitors Nav Perf and verifying present position
  5. Monitoring WX
  6. Verification of A/C Airworthiness (no open discrepencies, ARROW, and AML onboard)
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18
Q

Define Operational Control

A

The exercise of authority over initiating, conducting, and terminating a flight

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19
Q

SOC maintains air-to-gnd comms through which 3 channels?

A
  1. Station Frequencies
  2. ARINC
  3. ACARS
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20
Q

What defines a theater?

A

FDP DP and Arrival point that differs no more than 60˚ in longitude

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21
Q

How many hours in theater must a crewmember be in to be considered acclimated?

A

72 hrs or 36 consecutive hrs free from duty

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22
Q

How many hours can 1 LEO transport a low risk prisoner alone?

A

4 hours or less and can only carry a max of 2 low risk prisoners

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23
Q

The RAP or reserve availability period may not exceed how many hours?

A

14 hrs

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24
Q

A pilot cannot be scheduled inside the WOCL for no more than ___ days?

A

3 consecutive FDPs

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25
Q

How many minutes prior to departure should the aircraft be ready for pax boarding?

A

30 mins

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26
Q

When must a full briefing be executed?

A
  1. first flight of the day
  2. crew change
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27
Q

Which FA brings pax count to pilots as well as confirms with CA that cockpit door can be closed?

A

FA #1

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28
Q

When can surface movement be accomplished?

A

Only once flight deck door is closed and locked

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29
Q

EFBs must have what % charge at beginning of each working day and may not commence a flight with what %?

A

95% and 40%

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30
Q

Documents on board ERJ?

A
  1. Pax Briefing Cards
  2. Airworthiness and Registration
  3. Radio Staton Certificate
  4. (1) Jumpseat Briefing Card
  5. AML
  6. W & B Manifest
  7. Loading Table
  8. QRH
  9. 2 EPCs
  10. Pax Count Card
  11. TOLD Cards
  12. (2) ECS T/O, Engine Battery Start Checklists
  13. (2) Lightning Strike, Turb. Penetration, Hot WX Checklists
  14. (2) Normal Checklists
  15. (2) CAT II Checklists
  16. (2) Icing Conditions
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31
Q

Mesa must report w/i how many days a refusal to board to an intox. pax?

A

5 days to FAA

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32
Q

Lap child is defined as more than _ day old but less than _ yrs

A

1 day, 2 yrs

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33
Q

UM procedures for UAX

A

A UM > 5 yrs but < 13 yrs; > 5 yrs aren’t accepted for UM Service
1. 5-7 yrs non-stop w/o connections
2. 8-11 non-stop, direct and connecting
3. 12-17 UM service optional
FA #1 has all responsibility for UMs

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34
Q

Within how many hrs must Mesa update its flight deck jumpseat database after a status change?

A

12 hrs

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35
Q

Who are not allowed to jumpseat on intl flights?

A
  1. Mesa pilots not on business
  2. Mesa MX personnel
  3. Dispatch
  4. Other employees of other airlines
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36
Q

What Form must an Aviation Safety Inspector (ASI) possess to get free and uninterrupted access to the flightdeck?

A

Form FAA 110A

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37
Q

A load manifest will be completed prior to departure when what is not avail?

A

ACARS

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38
Q

Average bag weight is

A

30 lbs

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39
Q

Up to what weight can human remains be carried?

A

80 lbs

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40
Q

What are the weights of ballast bags and ballast plates?

A

Bags - 50 lbs
Plates - either 25 lbs or 50 lbs

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41
Q

ERJ live animals can be carried provided what?

A

They are carried in a suitable container only in FWD cargo compartment and actual weight is obtained

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42
Q

Can the aircraft be refueled with the engines running?

A

No, under no circumstances

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43
Q

In the event of a medium or large fuel spill…..

A
  1. Fueler will notify crew to evacuate
  2. A/C will be evac immed.
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44
Q

First flight of the day preflight inspections are conducted when?

A
  1. 1st flight
  2. A/C sitting for > 4 hrs
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45
Q

When can the Enhanced Emergency Medical Kit be accessed and where is it located?

A

EEMK is in the overhead bin, row 24, A/C left and can only be opened when directed by MedLink or a licensed MD verified on forms located within the EEMK

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46
Q

Repo flights are dispatched under which part?

A

Part 91

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47
Q

When would you write an Occurence Report about a Pax PED?

A
  1. Nav interference
  2. PED unit or battery failure produced smoke or fire
  3. Pax disruption caused by their PED
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48
Q

How many spare Lithium-Ion batteries can a PAX carry on?

A

2 and those exceeding 160 Watt-hours are not permitted on board.

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49
Q

Which personnel open and close the EJET door?

A

Open - GND personnel
Close - FA

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50
Q

Below what surface vis must SMGCS charts be used?

A

<1200 RVR

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51
Q

Where do you write taxi instructions?

A

TOLD card

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52
Q

Within how many secs should you receive a T/O clearance after LUAW?

A

90 secs then contact ATC

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53
Q

Can t/o or ldgs be made on an unlit runway btw civil twilight night and morning?

A

No

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54
Q

Which scenarios are a rejected takeoff above 80 knots recommended?

A
  1. Configuration Warning
  2. Engine Fire or failure
  3. Thrust Reverser Deployment
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55
Q

Is a rejected takoff above 80 knots recommended for a blown tire, nose wheel vibration, or MASTER CAUTION light?

A

NO

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56
Q

What are the WX mins for a takeoff will in no case be less than _____ or per Part 121 ____?

A

No less than Mesa Airlines OpSpecs or 1 SM (5000 RVR)

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57
Q

Which RVR report is controlling when operating above RVR 1600?

A

TDZ RVR report

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58
Q

How many RVR reports are required when operating in RVR < 1600?

A
  1. Min of 2 reports
  2. All RVR Reports are controlling
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59
Q

With long runways that have 4 RVR sensors (TDZ, mid, rollout, far-end), are they all controlling?

A

Far end is not controlling

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60
Q

Blood donation wait time?

A

72 hours

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61
Q

Current Mesa CEO?

A

Jonathan Ornstein (JO)

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62
Q

Current Chief Pilot?

A

Mike Whitman II

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63
Q

In which manual would you find aircraft specific operational information?

A

CFM

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64
Q

How will you determine the currency of your manuals?

A

The MCL or APCL

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65
Q

Where can you find safety reporting forms?

A

Pilot Lounge and Safety Tab on Mesa Employee Intranet

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66
Q

What documents and equip. are required in crew member’s flight kit?

A

FO
(4) Gov’t Docs (airmen, med, Mesa ID, Passport )
(2) Pubs/Manuals (Jeppesen Inflight Pubs & 15 Req. Manuals)
(1) Flashlight
(1) Writing pen
Logbook
CA
FO Reqs + FCC Rest. Radio Op. Permit

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67
Q

What prevents two low-time on type pilots from flying together and what is the hour requirement?

A

Neither CA or FO can have < 75 hrs on type, known as “Green-on-Green”

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68
Q

List the (8) different circumstances that a < 100 hr SIC cannot takeoff?

A
  1. Special Airport
  2. Vis < 1 SM
  3. RVR < 5,000
  4. Contaminated Rwy
  5. Braking action < Good
  6. X-Wind Component > 15 kts
  7. Windshear
  8. PIC’s prerogative
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69
Q

By what day of the month must you have submitted an updated medical to CrewQuals?

A

25th of the month

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70
Q

What are the stabilized approach requirements?

A

By 1,000 HAT:
1. Briefings/Checklists accomplished
2. A/C in ldg config (gear DnL, final ldg flaps, flt spoilers retracted)
3. A/C is on correct track w/ normal maneuvering acceptable but must be stabilized by 500’ HAT
4. Not more than Vapp + 10 KIAS and not < Vref
5. Pwr setting appropriate with thrust levers NEVER coming to idle < 1,000’ or GA MANDATORY
6. Rate of descent not > 1,000 fpm or special briefing performed
7. After GP intercept, no more than normal corrections (30º bank and +/- 300 fpm to target fpm)

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71
Q

How many LEOs to carry (1) low-risk prisoner for 4.5 hr flight?

A

2

72
Q

How many LEOs to carry (1) high-risk prisoner?

A

2

73
Q

How many LEOs to carry (2) high-risk prisoners?

A

Mesa doesn’t carry more than (1) high-risk prisoner

74
Q

What is the proper seating arrangements regarding prisoners and how are they boarded and deplaned?

A

Prisoner at window with LEO on aisle seat, board first, deplane last.

75
Q

What comprises of Duty time?

A
  1. Flight time
  2. pre/post-flight duties (-45 mins showtime before 1st departure and +15 after last block in)
  3. DHD transportation
76
Q

How many hours in one period of rest must a pilot have in 168 hours?

A

30 hours

77
Q

What is a high mins CA and limitations for high mins?

A

< 100 hrs of PIC (IOE included) and add 100’ and 1/2 SM to the MDA/DA with lowest mins 300’ & 1 SM

78
Q

What are the requirements to be qualified for a Special Airport?

A
  1. PIC must verify that PIC or SIC has landed at the airport within the last 12 calendar months
  2. PIC has thoroughly reviewed all Jepp Special Apt Qual Charts published for that airport
79
Q

What does (M) mean in the Remarks or Exceptions Column of the MEL?

A

Indicates that MX needs to accomplish a specific MX procedure

80
Q

What does (O) mean in the Remarks or Exceptions Column of the MEL?

A

Indicates that crew needs to accomplish a specific procedure

81
Q

How many days can an aircraft be flown with a Cat A, B, C, D, and M?

A

A = Time specified in remarks
B = 3 consecutive days
C = 10 consecutive days
D = 120 consecutive days
M = NEFs have specific time frames

82
Q

Which categories can be extended?

A

B = 3 more days
C = 10 more days

83
Q

How is a write-up properly cleared or deferred?

A

PIC under direction of MX control will make a statement in the Corrective Action block of the AML and transcribed onto MEL/CDL Placard

84
Q

What should a pilot do if an expired MEL item is discovered?

A

Contact DX and MX control

85
Q

What is the min info required on a release?

A
  1. ID # of A/C
  2. Flt or Trip #
  3. DP, Intermediate, Destination, Alt
  4. Type of Operation
  5. Min Fuel Supply
  6. MEL/CDL Items
86
Q

How long is a dispatch release valid? Revalidated release?

A

Both 2 hrs

87
Q

What is the procedure for correcting or making a change to a dispatch release?

A
  1. Contact DX to obtain ammended release or
  2. Pen is allowable with PIC making changes, Zulu time and DX initials written down
88
Q

How much fuel must be carried on a 121 flight?

A

To the destination, then most distant alternate, then 45 mins under normal fuel burn

89
Q

When must a takeoff alternate be filed?

A

When reported vis at DP APT is below ldg mins

90
Q

When a takeoff alt is required, what conditions must be met in order for it to be a legal alternate?

A

On DX release & 1 hour normal cruise speed in still air OEI

91
Q

When must a Dest. ALT be filed?

A

1-2-3 Rule, 1 hr b4 or after sched. ETA WX mins are below 2,000’ AGL or 3 SM Vis

92
Q

What is the process for deriving alternate mins?

A

One approach avail = add 400-1 to lowest mins
2 independent approaches avail = add 200-1/2 to lowest mins

93
Q

What is the purpose of Exemption 17347?

A

Allows DX-ing when conditional language in the REMARKS of TAF (TEMPO, PROB, BECMG) of dest or first ALT is below MINS. The main body of TAF must still show WX above mins at ETA

94
Q

When must a 2nd alt be filed under Exemption 17347?

A

When Dest and 1st ALT Remarks section of the TAF contain conditional phrases indicating WX below authorized mins

95
Q

What is the lowest WX allowable in the remarks section of the forecast for the dest. under Exemption 17347?

A

1/2 of the lowest visibility

96
Q

What is the lowest WX allowable in the remarks section of the forecast for the first alternate under 17347?

A

1/2 of the lowest visibility and ceiling for the approach

97
Q

What must be added to a dispatch release for a flight operating under Exemption 17347?

A

DX will note in remarks of the release: “Dispatched under Exemption 17347 crew will monitor ACARS”

98
Q

What does Mesa Airlines consider marginal conditions?

A

500’ ceiling and 1 SM vis above lowest suitable landing mins

99
Q

When is a second alternate required under the marginal conditions rule?

A

WX conditions forecasted for both destination and first alternate are “marginal” (500’/1 SM)

100
Q

Does the marginal rule apply to +/- 1 hr of ETA?

A

No, only at ETA

101
Q

Does the marginal conditions rule apply only to the remarks section of the WX forecast?

A

No

102
Q

When applying the marginal conditions rule to your alternate, do you add 500’ and 1 SM to the derived alternate mins or just the approach mins?

A

Just to the approach mins

103
Q

What is the min age that infants can be legally transported?

A

UAL 7 days
AA 1 day
Both allow earlier with MD letter

104
Q

What is the min age for UM online and interline travel?

A

5 years online
8 years interline

105
Q

Is there a limit to # of pax pets onboard?

A
  1. small animal or bird must fit in a container that can fit under seat or in overhead bin (meeting carry-on criteria)
  2. Mesa allows codeshare partners to determine max # of pets onboard and will not be seated next to each other
  3. Live animals must be weighed and listed on Cargo Form and FWD compartment for ERJ
106
Q

Who is authorized to carry firearms on Mesa Airlines aircraft?

A

Gov’t employees or officials on duty (LEOs or FAMs)

107
Q

Is there a limit to low-risk prisoner carriage?

A

No limit except seating arrangements

108
Q

What is the clean aircraft concept?

A

No T/O allowed w/ frost, ice, snow, or slush adhering to any critical surfaces

109
Q

Describe Type I Fluid

A

Mix of glycol and water. Thin fluid applied heat and is primarily used for deicing. Very limited HOT and is orange or clear in color

110
Q

Describe Types II, III, and IV Fluid

A

Type II: Thicker than Type I
Type III: Thickened, longer HOT than Type 1 but less than Type II
Type IV: Green, thick and sticky, used for anti-icing (longest HOTs)

111
Q

Explain how deicing and anti-icing fluid prevents or eliminates ice accumulation

A

Type 1 (heated) acts as a deicing agent to remove ice and frost
Types 3/4 (unheated) coats flying surfaces to prevent new accretion of ice

112
Q

What happens if Type IV is applied unevenly?

A

Fresh wash of Type I to clean off aircraft and reapply Type IV

113
Q

Explain which factors determine the effectiveness of deicing fluid?

A
  1. Temp
  2. WX
  3. Jetblast
  4. Evenness of coating
114
Q

When does HOT begin?

A

At start of application of fluid to A/C

115
Q

What is a Pre-Takeoff Check? When must it be done and can it be done from cockpit?

A

It is a check of A/C wings and other critical surface areas for ice, frost, snow, or slush. Must be done within HOT and CANNOT be done from inside cockpit. Qualified deice personnel can advise A/C is all clear of ice.

116
Q

What type of braking action report will cause Mesa to suspend ops?

A

Nil (O)

117
Q

Describe some of the effects of snow, ice, or frost while on the ground?

A
  1. Increased T/O weight
  2. A/C may exceed max T/O weight
  3. CG problems
  4. Loss of lift
  5. Increase in drag
  6. Loss of controllability
  7. Affects critical sensing devices
118
Q

According to the GOM, how far should you avoid thunderstorms by? Can this be waived?

A

Avoid cells by horizontal dist. of 20 NM and if radar indicates steep rainfall gradient, this dist. should be increased if flying above FL 200

119
Q

Can radar be used to penetrate hazardous WX?

A

NO

120
Q

If radar fails while approach area of thunderstorms, what can you do? What if you are already in the thunderstorm?

A

Exercise extreme care and return to DP APT or divert. If already inside request help from ATC in identing cells

121
Q

Procedures for flight into severe turbulence

A

Maintain wings level and desired pitch attitude and don’t attempt to chase airspeed or altitude

122
Q

Procedures for flight into severe icing?

A
  1. Request priority handling from ATC and get out of the icing immediately
  2. Disengage AP and be ready for adverse trim
  3. avoid abrupt movements and reduce AoA if you get uncommanded roll
  4. Don’t keep flaps extended for long periods of time and don’t retract them until flaps are clear of ice
123
Q

Which flight conditions are conducive to inflight icing?

A
  1. Visible rain below 10º C
124
Q

What is the definition of wind shear?

A

A WX phenomenon of sudden windspeed and/or direction changes over a short distance with A/S changes > 15 kts or VS changes > 500 fpm

125
Q

Conditions for windshear

A
  1. thunderstorms
  2. virga
  3. frontal activity
  4. low level jet stream (polar side)
  5. Temp inversions
126
Q

Sterile cockpit rule

A

Don’t engage in non-essential activities during taxi, takeoff, landing, and ops below 10,000’ and begins the moment you leave the gate

127
Q

What do you need for a takeoff with less than 1 SM vis down to 1/4 mile or 1600 RVR?

A

TDZ RVR report is controlling and mid RVR report may sub if TDZ RVR report Unavail

128
Q

What do you need for a takeoff with less than 1600 RVR down to 1200 TDZ or 1000 rollout RVR?

A
  1. 2 operative RVR reporting systems required
  2. ALL available RVR reports are controlling
  3. HIRL or CL or RCLM avail
129
Q

What do you need for a T/O with < 1200/1000 RVR down to 500/500/500 RVR?

A
  1. RVR TDZ, Mid, and RO all 500 RVR
  2. HIRL
  3. CL lights
130
Q

You were released for a flight with an alternate airport listed. While enroute, the alternate airport weather drops below the derived alternate mins. Can you continue? What must be done?

A

You may continue because only actual mins apply once airborne

131
Q

What must be done in the event of engine failure enroute?

A
  1. Land at nearest suitable airport in point of time
  2. Advise ATC (declare), Advise Company, Advise FAs
  3. Build it, Bug it, Brief it
  4. Checklists
132
Q

What conditions must be in place to accept a visual approach?

A
  1. APT in sight
  2. Maintain VFR WX mins (3 SM and 1,000’ or CoC)
133
Q

At non-towered airports, when must you monitor CTAF and self announce?

A

10 minutes and 10 miles

134
Q

What must be reported by AWOS before it can be used for an approach?

A

Visibility

135
Q

What is required to proceed beyond the FAF?

A

Visibility for the approach

136
Q

What do you do if mins drop before reaching FAF? After FAF?

A

Before: execute MAP
After: continue to approach mins

137
Q

What is required to descent below DA/MDA

A
  1. Runway marking or approach lights
  2. Required visibility for the approach
  3. Able to make stab. descent using normal maneuvering under VFR conditions
138
Q

What does “descend via” mean?

A

Comply with:
1. All speed restrictions
2. follow the lateral path
3. Descend at discretion to comply with all altitudes

139
Q

What does “climb via” mean?

A

Comply with:
1. All speed restrictions
2. follow the lateral path
3. Climb at discretion to comply with all altitudes

140
Q

If the CA is changed from the original CA on the release, do you need a new release?

A

Yes

141
Q

What is considered “standard” takeoff mins vis for an aircraft with 2 engines?

A

1 SM

142
Q

What is the lowest authorized RVR for t/o below standard mins?

A

500 RVR

143
Q

What is meant by the term marginal?

A
  1. Ceiling within 500’ of the lowest landing min
  2. Vis within 1 mile above the lowest landing min
144
Q

When will SMGCS procedures be used?

A

SFC vis below 1200 RVR

145
Q

CRM Cornerstone:

A
  1. Authority with participation
  2. Assertiveness with respect
146
Q

What are the 6 components of CRM utilized by Mesa?

A

CCDTMS
1. Communications
2. Coordination
3. Decision Making
4. Task and Info Management
5. Mission Planning
6. Sit. Awareness

147
Q

What is the systematic approach to the mental process used by pilots to consistently determine the best course of action in response to a given set of circumstances?

A

ADM

148
Q

List the DECIDE Model:

A

DECIDE
1. Detect
2. Estimate
3. Choose
4. Identify
5. Do
6. Evaluate

149
Q

What are the 3 basic concepts of TEM Philosophy?

A
  1. Anticipation
  2. Recognition
  3. Mitigation
150
Q

The adjusted holdover table (76% table) must be used when….?

A

When flaps/slats are extended for deicing/anti-icing

151
Q

Cold weather operations info, including deicing procedures and HOT tables can be found where?

A

GOM

152
Q

Preferred configuration for deicing operations is what?

A

Engines running and APU off

153
Q

What is a threat?

A

An event or error introduced outside of the crew’s influence that, if not managed properly, can reduce safety margins

154
Q

What is possible regarding the passage of a warm front?

A
  1. Prior to passage of the front, light to moderate precipitation likely
  2. The temp of the air warms as the front approaches and passes
155
Q

What type of wx would you be expect to be most likely along a cold front?

A

Cumuliform cloud with showery precipitation, possibly thunderstorms

156
Q

What is a risk associated with solar flares?

A

Loss of radio comms and GPS Signal

157
Q

To determine snowfall intensity to hide when calculating holdover times use:

A

The snowfall intensity as a function of prevailing visibility table

158
Q

Max speed below 2,500 AGL and w/i 4 mi of Class D or C Airspace is?

A

200 KIAS

159
Q

Max speed below a B shelf?

A

200 KIAS

160
Q

If executing a missed approach prior to the MAP, the pilot…

A

should begin a climb (unless published alt. restrictions), but not execute a turn until reaching MAP

161
Q

What is true regarding a Diverse Vector Area (DVA)?

A

Climb gradients have been established that the pilot must comply with to accept radar vectors on departure

162
Q

RVSM exists between what altitudes?

A

FL290 and FL410

163
Q

Within RVSM, how many feet are aircraft vertically separated?

A

1,000 feet

164
Q

What equipment is required for RVSM?

A
  1. AP
  2. Altitude Alerting System
  3. (2) ADCs both operational
  4. (2) X-NDRs one operational
165
Q

How many satellites orbiting the earth make up the GPS system?

A

24

166
Q

I am cleared to “Climb Via” with a charted Top Altitude, what do I comply with?

A

SID’s Top Altitude

167
Q

What if the SID does not have published restrictions or a published “Top Altitude” ; what altitude will I climb to?

A

Climb to whatever altitude was given in clearance (climb and maintain 5000, etc)

168
Q

I am cleared to “Climb Via SID”. What if there is a published altitude restriction at a fix that is higher than the charted “Top Altitude” ?

A

You are only cleared to the charted “Top Altitude” contained in the narrative of the procedure,
unless ATC assigns a different altitude.

169
Q

What if I depart on a climb via clearance and later given a clearance to “Climb and Maintain” an altitude; should I comply with any published altitude restrictions?

A

NO. Unlike a “Climb Via” clearance, when cleared to “Climb and Maintain,” you are expected to vacate your current altitude and commence an unrestricted climb to comply with the clearance. For aircraft already climbing via a SID, published altitude restrictions are deleted unless re- issued by ATC. Speed restrictions remain in effect unless the controller explicitly cancels or amends the speed restrictions.

170
Q

I depart on a climb via clearance with a “Top Altitude” of 15,000 feet and the departure controller says “Climb via the (SID NAME) departure, EXCEPT MAINTAIN one three thousand.” Do I comply with any published altitude restrictions prior to reaching 13,000?

A

All published restrictions, including speed, are mandatory

171
Q

I’m on a climb via clearance and the controller vectors me off the procedure. Do I continue to “Climb Via?”

A

NO. You are laterally and vertically off of the procedure. The controller will issue an altitude to maintain and provide a further “expect” clearance. Note: Request an altitude to maintain if the controller does not provide one.

172
Q

What if I receive a “Cleared” or “Cleared Via” clearance; am I permitted to climb to meet any published altitudes?

A

No, cleared or cleared via are lateral clearances only

173
Q

What do I say to the departure controller on initial contact if I have received a “CLIMB VIA SID” clearance from the Tower or PDC?

A

report your flight number or aircraft identification, followed by your current altitude; then state “Climbing Via the (SID Name) departure.

174
Q

How many feet of clearance does Actual (gross) Level Off give you over Net Level off for en route drift down?

A

Generally an additional 5,000 feet.
1000 + 5000 = 6,000 METW1
2000 + 5000 = 7,000 METW2

175
Q

When is cold weather baro compensation used?

A

Either prescribed in the notes on the plate or below 0 degrees Celsius

176
Q

Do you manually set the new cold weather compensated baro or does the FMS alone cover this?

A

New baro MDA/DA with adjustment must be set in baro mins always rounding up.

177
Q

What kind of gradient does Net Level Off Altitude give you during drift down procedure?

A

1.1% gradient with your gross/actual altitude being your single engine service ceiling 0.0% climb gradient.

Mesa E-175 Oral Prep 2022 (just updated) (20 decks)

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