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afsha otc > MEP: Extra > Flashcards

MEP: Extra Flashcards

1
Q

Who are considered as part of the risk group patients?

A
  • children
  • elderly individuals
  • pregnant or breastfeeding women
  • certain patient groups such as those from specific ethnic backgrounds
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2
Q

What does “Professional Judgment” entail in making decisions?

A

Professional Judgment involves

using accumulated knowledge and experience

to make informed decisions.

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3
Q

How should one approach identifying an ethical dilemma?

A

Identify the ethical dilemma by gathering all relevant information

such as facts, knowledge, laws, standards, good practice, and advice.

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4
Q

What factors should be considered during clinical checks?

A

Clinical checks should include reasoning and thinking about the patient’s

  • characteristics
  • medication regimen
  • how the treatment will be administered
  • how it will be monitored
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5
Q

Where should records of patient interactions be documented?

A
  • patient’s medical record
  • interventions record book
  • handover record book
  • prescription register
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6
Q

What aspects should be considered when taking medication histories?

A

adherence

non-daily medicines (e.g., reliever inhalers, weekly medications like MTX or Alendronic acid)

historical medicines

self-selected medicines (Prescription-only (P) or General Sales List (GSL)

herbal medications or complementary therapies

and recreational drugs.

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7
Q

How does a “just culture” contribute to safety in healthcare?

A

A “just culture”

promotes fairer accountability and a learning culture

by learning from mistakes rather than focusing on blame.

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8
Q

As part of a pharmacists CPD, what documents must they submit each year

A

Pharmacists will need to submit the following records:

four CPD entries, (at least two of which should be planned learning activities)
one reflective account
one peer discussion

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9
Q

How often does the General Pharmaceutical Council (GPhC) advise pharmacists to reflect on their practice?

A

every month

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10
Q

What restrictions apply to the sale of Pseudoephedrine

A

Pharmacists should not supply more than 720mg of Pseudoephedrine

or sell it at the same time as ephedrine

potential misuse in the production of meth

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11
Q

What restrictions apply to the sale of Ephedrine?

A

Pharmacists should not supply more 180mg of Ephedrine

should not sell same time as pseudoephedrine

potential misuse in the production of meth

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12
Q

Can counter staff counsel and see pt suitability for emergency contraception?

A

never
pharmacist ONLY
for ethical reasons

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13
Q

What is the legal restriction for quantity of Aspirin to sell?

A

Not more than
100 non-effervescent tablets
to one person at any one time.

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14
Q

OTC meds containing codeine and dihydrocodeine must state WHAT on their labels/ PILS

A

‘can cause addiction’

‘for three days only’

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15
Q

What precautions apply to the use of certain medicines in children over 6

A

In children over 6

  • antitussives
  • expectorants
  • nasal decongestants
  • antihistamines

should not be used for longer than five days.

(i think on about cough mixtures)

< 6 these cant be given

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16
Q

What is the recommendation regarding Paracetamol and Ibuprofen use in children under five?

A

In children under five,

Paracetamol and Ibuprofen should not be used together

Ibuprofen should only be used if Paracetamol has proven ineffective (in this case you would stop para, then start ibu)

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17
Q

What are the essential details required on a prescription?

A

A prescription must include the

  • signature
  • address of the practitioner
  • date (valid for 6 months, 28 days for controlled drugs)
  • type of prescriber (name/qualification)
  • name and address of the patient (not required for EEA Swiss)
  • age if under 12 (not required for EEA Swiss).
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18
Q

Are prescriptions for Schedule 2/3 medicines repeatable?

A

No

prescriptions for Schedule 2/3 medicines are not repeatable

(however, prescriptions for Schedule 4/5 medicines are repeatable)

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19
Q

When should records in the Prescription Only Medicine (POM) register be made?

A

on the day of sale or supply

or the next day if impractical.

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20
Q

What medications cannot be prescribed by EEA prescribers?

A

EEA prescribers cannot prescribe Schedule 1, 2, or 3 Controlled Drugs (CDs).

EEA member state (EU countries, Iceland, Liechtenstein and Norway) or Switzerland

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21
Q

What is a Patient Specific Direction (PSD)?

A

A PSD is a written instruction from a doctor, dentist, or other independent prescriber

or a medicine to be supplied or administered to a named patient after assessing that patient on an individual basis.

A Patient Specific Direction (PSD) is a written order from a healthcare provider, such as a doctor or dentist, to give a specific medicine to a particular patient after evaluating them individually.

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22
Q

What are the different ways medicines can be sold or supplied without a prescription?

A

Medicines can be sold or supplied without a prescription through

  • PGDs (Patient Group Directions)
  • PSDs (Patient Specific Directions)
  • Emergency Supply
  • Pandemic Exemptions
  • Optometrist/Podiatrist Signed Orders
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23
Q

What is a Patient Group Direction (PGD)?

A

A PGD is a written direction

that allows the sale, supply, or administration of a medicine

by a named authorized healthcare professional

to a well-defined group of patients based on specified criteria.

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24
Q

When can an Emergency Supply be provided?

A

An Emergency Supply can be provided at the request of the patient

or at the request of the prescriber

following an immediate need assessment by the pharmacist

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25
Q

How soon must a prescription be recieved after an Emergency Supply?

A

within 72 hours by the prescriber after an Emergency Supply.

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26
Q

Which controlled drugs can be supplied under Emergency Supply regulations?

A

Only Schedule 4 and 5 Controlled Drugs (CDs) and Phenobarbital for epilepsy can be supplied under Emergency Supply regulations

excluding Schedule 1, 2, and 3 CDs unless it’s Phenobarbital for epilepsy and not prescribed by an EEA/Swiss doctor.

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27
Q

What are the maximum lengths of treatment for different types of medications under Emergency Supply?

A

Controlled Drugs (CDs) can be supplied for up to 5 days

Prescription Only Medicines (POMs) for up to 30 days

Insulin for the smallest unit (1)

Inhalers for the smallest unit (1)

Contraceptives for a full cycle (21 days)

and antibiotics for the smallest unit (e.g., 10 tablets).

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28
Q

How should Emergency Supply records be maintained?

A

Emergency Supply records should be entered into the POM Register on the day of supply or the next day if impractical

(including details such as the date, name of the medication, name of the patient supplied, and information about the emergency)

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29
Q

Can optometrists/ podiatrists write prescriptions for Prescription Only Medicines (POMs)?

A

Optometrists/ Opdiatrists cannot authorize supplies of POMs by writing prescriptions

unless they are additionally qualified as supplementary or independent prescribers.

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30
Q

How can certain POMs be supplied to registered optometrists or podiatrists?

A

Certain POMs can be supplied to registered optometrists or podiatrists in accordance with a signed order.

The medication should be labeled accordingly, the Patient Information Leaflet (PIL) must be supplied, and a record should be made in the POM register.

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31
Q

What is Isotretinoin used for?

A

Isotretinoin is a retinoid used to treat severe acne.

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32
Q

What is the Pregnancy Protection Programme (PPP) for Isotretinoin?

A

The PPP protects females at risk of pregnancy while taking Isotretinoin.

It is initiated under specialist supervision.

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33
Q

How long is a prescription for Isotretinoin valid?

A

7 days

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34
Q

When should a patient ideally do a pregnancy test in regards to their isotretinion scripts

A

doctor should get them to do one before issuing the prescription

pharmacy team should make sure pt has done pregancy test b4 dispensing med

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35
Q

Can Isotretinoin prescriptions be repeated, faxed, or given as free samples?

A

No, Isotretinoin prescriptions cannot be repeated, faxed, or given as free samples.

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36
Q

How should expiry dates be interpreted

A

Expiry dates indicate the last day a product should be used.

For example, “use before 06/2011” means it should not be used after May 31, 2011.

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37
Q

How should waste medicines be managed?

A

Waste medicines must be kept in a secure waste container in a designated area

preferably away from medicines that are fit for use.

Patient information must be destroyed or obscured.

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38
Q

What is considered good practice in medicine labelling?

A

It is good practice to include statements such as

‘Keep out of the reach and sight of children’ or

‘Use this medicine only on your skin’ where applicable.

When placing medicines into smaller plain box containers, include all the above information plus the expiry date and batch number.

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39
Q

What additional requirement is needed for emergency supply labels?

A

In addition to standard labelling requirements, the words ‘Emergency supply’ need to be added to the dispensing label for emergency supplies.

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40
Q

Can private prescriptions be repeated

A

Private prescriptions can be repeated;

if prescriber HAS NOT specified NUMBER of repeats but has wrote ‘repeat’ on the script

the script can be dispensed once more within 6 months

Oral contraceptives can be repeated up to five times (total of six repeats).

Schedule 2 and 3 controlled drugs cannot be repeated, but Schedule 4 and 5 can.

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41
Q

What are the record-keeping requirements for private prescriptions?

A

Record-keeping for private prescriptions includes

  • prescriber and patient details (name and address)
  • precription date
  • supply date
  • medication details (name, quantity, formulation, strength)
  • and a copy of the private prescription if returned to the patient

Pharmacy supply details should be written on the original private prescription.

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42
Q

What is an advanced electronic signature according to the Human Medicines Regulations 2012?

A

An advanced electronic signature is uniquely linked to the signatory

capable of identifying the signatory, and created using means over which the signatory maintains sole control.

An advanced electronic signature is a digital signature that is uniquely connected to the person who signs it, can identify that person, and is made with tools that only the signer can control.

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43
Q

What costs are involved in the pricing of private prescriptions?

A

The full cost of the medicine, pharmacy mark-up, and doctor fee are included in the pricing of private prescriptions.

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44
Q

What are the requirements for a Patient Specific Direction (PSD) in hospital charts?

A

The requirements for a PSD include:

Patient Name
Address
Date of Birth (DOB)
Hospital number
Date
Signature of prescriber
Name/qualifications of prescriber
Address of practitioner

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45
Q

What additional considerations are necessary in hospital charts?

A

Additional considerations include allergies, weight, height, and Body Surface Area (BSA).

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46
Q

What information is required for PRN drugs in hospital charts?

A

For PRN drugs, the hospital chart must include the indication(s) (some drugs may have multiple indications) and the minimum dose interval.

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47
Q

What details are recorded in the Inpatient Prescribing and Administration Record Sheet?

A

The details recorded include:

  • Drug (approved name)
  • Date
  • Route
  • Dose
  • Pharmacy
  • Time
  • Additional Information/Indication
  • Frequency
  • Route
  • Dose
  • Signature & Bleep
  • Date Given by
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48
Q

How should Once Only and Pre Medication Drugs be recorded in hospital charts?

A

Once Only and Pre Medication Drugs should

  • include the date
  • drug (approved name)
  • route
  • dose
  • time for administration

along with signatures of those involved in dispensing and administering.

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49
Q

What is the procedure for cancelling prescriptions in hospital charts?

A

To cancel prescriptions, the prescriber must sign and date the cancellation on the chart.

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50
Q

What are the requirements for Supplementary Prescription Sheets indicated in hospital charts?

A

Supplementary Prescription Sheets, if in use, should be indicated by ticking the appropriate boxes for categories

like Oral Anticoagulation, Sliding-Scale Insulin, Oxygen, and Syringe Driver

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51
Q

What are Approved Abbreviations used in hospital charts?

A

PO - By mouth
PR - Per Rectum
IV - Intravenous
INH - Inhalation
IM - Intramuscular
PV - Per Vagina
SC - Subcutaneously
TD - Transdermal
NG - Nasogastric
NJ - Nasojejunal

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52
Q

What information is required in a Signed Order for schools requesting medication?

A

A Signed Order for schools requesting medication should include

  • the name of the school
  • signature of the principal or head teacher
  • product details (including spacer if relevant)
  • strength (if relevant)
  • purpose for which the product is required
  • total quantity required

date not required

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53
Q

How long should records be kept for Signed Orders in schools?

A

Signed Orders in schools should be kept for 2 years.

54
Q

What prescription form is required for Schedule 2 and 3 Controlled Drugs (CDs) in England when prescribed privately?

A

Schedule 2 and 3 Controlled Drugs (CDs) must be prescribed on the pink private prescription form FP10PCD

55
Q

Give examples of drugs classified under Schedule 2 Controlled Drugs (CDs).

A

opiates (e.g., diamorphine, morphine, methadone, oxycodone, pethidine)

major stimulants (e.g., amphetamines)

quinalbarbitone

ketamine.

56
Q

What types of drugs are classified under Schedule 3 Controlled Drugs (CDs)?

A
  • buprenorphine
  • temazepam
  • tramadol
  • midazolam
  • phenobarbital
  • gabapentin
  • pregablin

Bringing Together The Mighty Powerful Group of Painkillers

Buprenorphine and temazepam must be stored in the CD cabinet.

57
Q

How is Schedule 4 Controlled Drugs (CDs) categorized?

A

Schedule 4 CDs are split into two parts:

Part I (CD Benz POM):

  • benzodiazepines (e.g., diazepam)
  • non-benzodiazepine hypnotics (e.g., zopiclone)
  • Sativex (a cannabinoid or mucosal mouth spray).

Part II (CD Anab POM):

  • anabolic and androgenic steroids
  • clenbuterol (adrenoceptor stimulant)
  • growth hormone (GH)
58
Q

What does Schedule 5 contain?

A

Schedule 5 contains preparations of certain Controlled Drugs (CDs) such as codeine, pholcodine, and morphine

which are exempt from full control when present in medicinal products of specifically low strengths.

59
Q

What is required for a pharmacy to import or export Schedule 1, 2, 3, and 4 Controlled Drugs (CDs)?

A

A pharmacy needs a licence to import or export Schedule 1, 2, 3, and 4 Controlled Drugs (CDs).

60
Q

What type of licence is required by prescribers to prescribe cocaine, diamorphine, or dipipanone for treating addiction?

A

A Home Office Licence is required by prescribers to prescribe cocaine, diamorphine, or dipipanone specifically for treating addiction.

BUT if prescriber is NOT treating addiction, but treating an organic disease, they DONT need a license

61
Q

Can Pharmacist/Nurse Independent Prescribers prescribe cocaine, diamorphine, or dipipanone for addiction treatment?

A

No, Pharmacist/Nurse Independent Prescribers cannot prescribe these medicines for addiction treatment

but can prescribe them for treating organic disease.

62
Q

What are the responsibilities of an Accountable Officer regarding Controlled Drugs (CDs)?

A
  • oversight of monitoring and auditing CD management
  • prescribing, and use
  • ensuring systems are in place for recording concerns and incidents involving CDs
  • attending Local Intelligence Network Meetings
  • submitting occurrence reports on CD concerns within a required timeframe
  • appointing authorised witnesses for CD destruction
63
Q

How long is a prescription for a Controlled Drug (CD) valid from the date it was signed?

A

A prescription for a CD is valid for 28 days from the date it was signed, unless a different date is indicated.

(e.g. forward dated prescription)

64
Q

A CD drug only has one formulation. Does the script still have to specify the formulation for it to be legal?

A

YES

65
Q

What is the maximum quantity of a Controlled Drug (CD) that should be prescribed for a single prescription?

A

The maximum quantity prescribed should not exceed 30 days’ supply, although this is good practice and not a legal requirement.

66
Q

What to do if a patient has no address and doctor needs to give a script?

A

specify “No Fixed Abode” (NFA)

PO Box addresses are NOT acceptable

67
Q

What additional requirement applies to prescriptions for dental treatments involving Controlled Drugs (CDs)?

A

Dental prescriptions must include the statement “for dental treatment only.”

68
Q

What must be marked on a prescription when a Controlled Drug (CD) is supplied?

A

The date of supply must be marked on the prescription at the time of supply.

69
Q

What must private CDs have

A

must include a prescriber identification number

70
Q

Why should medicines that are not Controlled Drugs (CDs) not be prescribed on the same form as Schedule 2 or 3 CDs?

A

Separate forms are needed because the Controlled Drug (CD) prescription form must be stored by the pharmacist for two years.

This rule can’t be followed if other prescriptions are included on the same form.

71
Q

What are some signs of misuse of medications?

A

Signs of misuse include

  • lack of symptoms
  • rehearsed answers
  • impatience or aggression
  • opportunistic behavior
  • specific products: like lithium batteries and acetone for methylamphetamine
  • want large quantities
  • frequent requests
72
Q

What quantity of dihydrocodeine requires a prescription only medicine (POM)?

A

Any dihydrocodeine pack greater than 32 is classified as a POM

due to its potential for addiction

its recommended use for only three days

73
Q

Who can suspicions of medication misuse be reported to?

A

Suspicions can be reported to your

  • local GPhC inspector
  • local Controlled Drugs liaison police officer
  • the accountable officer
74
Q

What medications can be prescribed on an FP10MDA (blue) prescription form?

A

Medications that can be prescribed on an FP10MDA (blue) form include

  • all Schedule 2 CDs
  • buprenorphine (including buprenorphine/naloxone combination)
  • and diazepam (for managing adverse effects of addiction treatment)

Instalment prescriptions must specify the amount of medicine per instalment and the interval between each supply.

The supply must not exceed 14 days.

The prescription must include the date it was signed (within 28 days) or the indicated start date (up to 13 weeks), and each supply date must be specified.

75
Q

How should the collection of medication be documented on an instalment prescription (blue script)

A

The patient must sign the specified CD box on the back of the FP10MDA once.

The supply collected should be recorded on the right-hand side of the prescription by the pharmacist

If the dose is supervised, verbal confirmation from the prescriber is sufficient.

76
Q

What should be recorded on the instalment prescription if the supply is not collected?

A

If the supply is not collected

it should be recorded on the right-hand side of the prescription by the pharmacist as ‘not collected’.

77
Q

What is required for Schedule 2 drugs in terms of record-keeping?

A

The CD Register for Schedule 2 drugs must be completed.

Methadone usually has a separate CD register.

78
Q

What information must be included regarding the prescriber on a veterinary prescription?

A

The veterinary prescription must include the

prescriber’s name, address, telephone number, qualification, signature

and, if Schedule 2 or 3 CDs are prescribed, their Royal College of Veterinary Surgeons (RCVS) registration number.

79
Q

What details about the owner of the animal must be included on a veterinary prescription?

A

The veterinary prescription must include the name and address of the owner of the animal.

80
Q

What information regarding the animal must be included on a veterinary prescription?

A

The veterinary prescription must include the

  • identification and species of the animal
  • animals address (if different from the owner’s address)
81
Q

How long is a veterinary prescription valid for, and what is the validity period for Schedule 2, 3, and 4 CDs?

A

A veterinary prescription is valid for 6 months OR shorter if indicated by the prescriber.

Schedule 2, 3, and 4 CDs are valid for 28 days.

82
Q

What specific details about the medicine must be included on a veterinary prescription?

A

The veterinary prescription must include the:

  • name
  • quantity
  • dose
  • administration (“As directed” is not an acceptable administration instruction according to the Veterinary Medicines Directorate (VMD))
83
Q

What information must be specified on a repeatable veterinary prescription?

A

If the veterinary prescription is repeatable, it must specify the number of times it can be repeated.

84
Q

What declaration must be included for Schedule 2 and 3 CDs on a veterinary prescription?

A

For Schedule 2 and 3 CDs

the prescription must include a declaration that ‘the item has been prescribed for

“an animal or herd under the care of the veterinarian’

85
Q

What are the different types of veterinary prescriptions?

A

The types of veterinary prescriptions include

  • POM-V (Prescription Only Medicine – Veterinary)
  • POM-VPS (Prescription Only Medicine – Veterinary, Pharmacist, and Suitably Qualified Persons
  • NFA-VPS (Non-Food Animal – Veterinary, Pharmacist, and Suitably Qualified Persons)
  • AVM-GSL (Animal Veterinary Medicine – General Sales List)
  • Exempt under Schedule 6
  • Unauthorised (unlicensed or human medicines for animal use must be ‘under the cascade’).
86
Q

What is the purpose of drug alerts and recalls published by the MHRA?

A

Drug alerts and recalls

inform healthcare professionals (HCPs) of safety issues

associated with medications

87
Q

What information is included in MHRA alerts regarding affected medications?

A

MHRA alerts include details of

  • the affected product
  • batch numbers
  • expiry dates
88
Q

How are medication recalls classified based on urgency?

A

Medication recalls are classified into four classes based on urgency:

Class 1: Requires action within hours due to life-threatening or serious health risks.
Class 2: Requires action within 48 hours due to potential mistreatment or harm, but not life-threatening.
Class 3: Requires action within 5 days; unlikely to cause harm but recalled due to non-compliance or other reasons.
Class 4: Requires caution in use; no immediate threat, typically for minor defects in packaging.

89
Q

What defines a Class 1 medication recall?

A

A Class 1 medication recall involves defects that present a life-threatening or serious risk to health, requiring action within hours.

90
Q

What defines a Class 2 medication recall?

A

A Class 2 medication recall may cause mistreatment or harm to the patient, though not life-threatening, requiring action within 48 hours.

91
Q

What defines a Class 3 medication recall?

A

A Class 3 medication recall is unlikely to cause harm but is initiated due to non-compliance or other reasons, requiring action within 5 days.

92
Q

What type of issues prompt a Class 4 medication recall?

A

Class 4 medication recalls are issued for minor defects in packaging that do not pose an immediate threat to patients, advising caution in use.

93
Q

What does “BB” mean on a prescription endorsement?

A

Broken Bulk

Broken Bulk (BB) is a term that is applied to a prescription endorsement that entitles the pharmacy to reimbursement for the whole pack of a product when they have only dispensed part of the pack.

94
Q

What does “ED” indicate on a prescription endorsement?

A

Extemporaneously Dispensed

95
Q

What does “MF” signify on a prescription endorsement?

A

Measured and Fitted.

96
Q

What is indicated by “ND” with a score through the prescribed item on a prescription?

A

“ND” means Not Dispensed.

97
Q

What do “OOP” or “XP” signify on a prescription endorsement?

A

“OOP” or “XP” means Out of Pocket Expenses.

98
Q

What does “PD” refer to on a prescription endorsement?

A

“PD” stands for Packaged Doses, specifically used for oral liquid methadone.

99
Q

What does “PC” indicate on a prescription endorsement?

A

“PC” means Prescriber Contacted

100
Q

What does “PNC” signify on a prescription endorsement?

A

“PNC” means Prescriber Not Contacted.

101
Q

What does “SSP” refer to on a prescription endorsement?

A

“SSP” stands for Serious Shortage Protocols, which may involve Single Dispensed Product or Multiple Dispensed Product SSP.

102
Q

What does “SP” mean on a prescription endorsement?

A

Unlicensed Specials and Imports.

103
Q

What does “CC” or “OC” indicate on a prescription endorsement?

A

“CC” or “OC” means Oral Contraceptive, with no charge to the patient.

104
Q

What does “ACBS” signify on a prescription endorsement?

A

“ACBS” indicates Advisory Committee on Borderline Substances, with no impact on dispensing.

In certain conditions, some foods and toilet preparations have characteristics of drugs. The Advisory Committee on Borderline Substances (ACBS) advises as to the circumstances in which such substances may be regarded as drugs.

105
Q

What does “SLS” refer to on a prescription endorsement?

A

“SLS” stands for Selected List Scheme, which requires endorsement by the prescriber if necessary.

Some drugs can only be prescribed in specific situations under the NHS. There’s a list of these drugs in Part XVIIIA of the Drug Tariff. If a doctor prescribes one of these drugs, they must write ‘SLS’ on the prescription if their patient fits that criteria

If a prescription doesn’t follow these rules, the drug can’t be provided through the NHS.

106
Q

What does “FS” enable prescribers to do on a prescription endorsement?

A

prescribers endorse scripts with STIs

to indicate to the pharmacy that the pt should not charged

(as meds are to treat STI!)

107
Q

What information is critical for a yellow card report?

A
  • suspect drugs
  • suspect reactions
  • patient details
  • reporter details

the timing of the last administered dose is not critical information

108
Q

If the RP has not signed in, you CANNOT do the following

A
  • firstly you cant open the pharmacy
  • cant stock shop floor
  • nothing to do with CDs including pt returns and deliveries
109
Q

If the RP HAS signed in, but is not present, you CAN do:

A
  • Labelling
  • Picking stock but NOT dispensing
  • GSL sales
  • deliveries
  • accuracy checking (ACT)
110
Q

You recieve an isotretinoin script on the 1st. When would be the last day for the pt to collect this script?

A

On the 7th

different to CDs- first day counts

111
Q

You recieve a script for Sch 2,3,4 CD on the 1st, when would be the last day for patient to collect this script

A

29th

112
Q

Is One PRN acceptable for CD scripts

A

YES

113
Q

Where should your own pharmacies EXPIRED CD stock be entered in? What would we need when destroying these CDs

A

in your actual CD register

and whoever is denaturing the CD, needs an AUTHORISED WITNESS

114
Q

Where should PATIENT CD returns be recorded? Is a witness needed when denaturing these?

A

not in your actual CD register

you should have another register for PATIENT CD RETURNS

NO witness needed

115
Q

Where is Sativex kept and what Schedule is it

A

In the fridge

schedule 4

116
Q

How is Sativex denatured

A

spray into water

117
Q

What drugs CANT you drive with

A

COLDFeeT

Clonazepam
Oxazepam
Lorazepam
Diazepam
Flunitrazepam
Temezapam

as u can see they are all benzodiazepines

118
Q

Which prescribed drugs can still cause problems if patients drive with high concentrations of them in their system?

A

amphetamine
opiods: such as morphine

as u can see, Sch 2s

119
Q

POM- VPS: do we always need a written Rx

A

ONLY if its being given by a DIFFERENT prescriber or dispenser

120
Q

is ‘as directed’ allowed on vet scripts

A

NO

121
Q

what is legal paracetamol, aspirin, codeine TABS u can sell

A

P- 100
A- 100
C- 32

122
Q

what is legal amount of effervescent tabs u can sell

A

no limit
depends on clinical judgement

123
Q

what does expiry date 12/24 mean

A

31/12/24

124
Q

what does expiry use by 11/2024 mean

A

31/10/2024
ie before november

125
Q

what does use before 12/24 mean

A

same as use by

so 30/11/2024

126
Q

What type of reactions should we report to Yellow Card Scheme

A

All reactions for black triangle drugs
All severe reactions

A black triangle symbol is used to identify drugs or vaccines that are being monitored more closely than other medicines

severe reations include: clozapine constipation counts as severe reaction, DKA etc

127
Q

Give example of SCH 1 drugs

A

cannabis
cocaine
heroine
LST
MDMA

128
Q

POM- V: do we always need a written RX

A

vet only

ALWAYS need written RX

129
Q

What additional information must be provided on a veterinary prescription if relevant?

A

If relevant, the veterinary prescription must include necessary warnings and the withdrawal period

which is the time that must elapse between when an animal receives a medicine and when it can be used for food.

130
Q

What is the maximum supply of Isotretinoin allowed?

A

Isotretinoin can be supplied for a maximum of 30 days

afsha otc (15 decks)

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