Memory & Cognition Flashcards

1
Q

Memory

A

active system that receives information from the senses, organizes and alters it for storage, and retrieves it when needed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Encoding

A

set of mental operations performed on sensory information to convert it into a usable form for storage in the brain.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Storage

A

Holding onto information for a period of time.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Retrieval

A

Getting information from storage into a form that can be used.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Sensory Memory

A

The first stage of memory, where sensory information is briefly stored for a fraction of a second.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Short-Term Memory

A

The second stage, where information is held for about 20-30 seconds and can typically hold 7±2 items.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Long-Term Memory

A

The final stage, where information is stored more permanently and can last from minutes to a lifetime.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Information-Processing Model

A

Compares memory processing to computer memory, involving a series of three stages: encoding, storage, and retrieval.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Parallel Distributed Processing (PDP) Model

A

Proposes that memory processes occur simultaneously across a large network of neural connections.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Levels-of-Processing Model

A

Suggests that deeper processing of information based on its meaning leads to better and longer-lasting memory retention.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Sensory Memory

A

The initial stage of memory where information enters the nervous system through the sensory systems.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Selective Attention

A

The ability to focus on one specific stimulus while ignoring other sensory inputs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Short-Term Memory (Working Memory)

A

A memory system that holds information for brief periods while being used, typically around 12-30 seconds.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Capacity of Short-Term Memory

A

Approximately 7 items (± 2), allowing for 5 to 9 bits of information.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Chunking

A

Combining bits of information into meaningful units (chunks) to increase storage capacity in short-term memory.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Maintenance Rehearsal

A

Repeatedly verbalizing or thinking about information to maintain it in short-term memory.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Encoding in STM

A

Short-term memories are primarily encoded in auditory form.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Interference in STM

A

Short-term memory is susceptible to interference; interruptions can cause the individual to lose track of the information.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Long-Term Memory (LTM)
The memory system where information is stored for extended periods, often permanently.

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Elaborative Rehearsal

A

A technique for transferring information from short-term memory (STM) to long-term memory (LTM) by making it meaningful.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Consolidation

A

Changes in the structure and functioning of neurons that occur when a memory is formed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Long-Term Potentiation

A

Increased sensitivity and number of synaptic receptors due to repeated stimulation, enhancing memory formation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Nondeclarative (Implicit) Memory

A

A type of long-term memory involving skills, procedures, and conditioned responses that are not consciously recalled.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Hippocampus

A

Brain region crucial for the formation of long-term memories.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Declarative (Explicit) Memory

A

Long-term memory involving facts and knowledge that can be consciously recalled.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Semantic Memory

A

A type of declarative memory containing facts + general knowledge, such as language and educational information.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Episodic Memory

A

A type of declarative memory containing personal information and experiences, such as daily activities and events.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Priming

A

The process where prior exposure to information or concepts enhances later performance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Summary of Long-Term Memory Types

.

A

Nondeclarative Memories (Procedural): Skills, habits, and conditioned responses (implicit).
Declarative Memories (Knowledge): Factual and conscious (explicit).
Episodic Memories: Personal experiences.
Semantic Memories: General knowledge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Organization of Memory

A

Long-term memory (LTM) is organized by related meanings and concepts.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Retrieval Cue

A

A stimulus that aids in remembering information

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Semantic Network Model

A

A theory suggesting that information is stored in the brain in a connected manner, with related concepts stored closer together than unrelated ones.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Encoding Specificity

A

The principle that memory retrieval is improved when related information (like context or state) present during encoding is also available during retrieval.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

State-Dependent Learning

A

The phenomenon where memories formed in a specific physiological or psychological state are more easily recalled when in a similar state.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Recall

A

Memory retrieval that requires pulling information from memory with minimal external cues.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Retrieval Failure.

A

A temporary inability to recall information, often referred to as the tip of the tongue (TOT) phenomenon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Serial Position Effect

A

The tendency to remember the first and last items in a list better than those in the middle.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Primacy Effect

A

The tendency to remember the first items in a list better than those that follow.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Recency Effect

A

The tendency to remember the last items in a list better than those that came before.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Recognition

A

The ability to match a piece of information or a stimulus to a stored image or fact.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

False Positive

A

An error of recognition where a person mistakenly thinks they recognize a stimulus that is not actually in memory.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Misinformation Effect

A

Tendency of misleading information presented after an event to alter the memories of the event itself

(memory retrieval problems)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Familiarity vs. Accuracy

A

Familiarity does NOT equal accuracy; what we think we know can mislead us in various ways.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

True Recognition (v. Familiarity)

A

The accuracy of recognizing information or stimuli based on memory, distinguishing it from merely feeling familiar without actual recall.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Familiarity does NOT Equal accuracy

What we think we know, fools us by

A

-applying associations that are no longer appropriate, accurate, or useful
-misinforming perception
-disrupting presents (“ the timeless Now”)
-perpetuating cognitive distortions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Importance of Accurate Recognition

A

Accurate recognition enables responsibility (response-ability) in decision-making.

so you can have the ability to respond in a decision-making situation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Responsibility is about first…

A

Recognizing your reactions to cues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Automatic Encoding

A

Tendency for certain types of information to enter long-term memory with little or no effortful processing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Eyewitness Testimony (Creator + Reliability)

A

Elizabeth Loftus: Research shows that post-event information can affect the accuracy of eyewitness memories.

Reliability: Eyewitness testimony is not always reliable due to the influence of subsequent information.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Flashbulb Memories

A

Automatic encoding because Vivid memories of unexpected events with strong emotional associations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Constructive Processing

A

Memory retrieval process where memories are reconstructed from information stored during encoding.

Each retrieval can lead to alterations, revisions, or influences from newer information.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Hindsight Bias

A

Tendency to believe one could have predicted an event’s outcome after it has occurred by revising older memories to include new information.

Example: “Monday morning quarterbacking.”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Misinformation Effect

A

Tendency of misleading information presented after an event to alter memories of the event itself.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Ebbinghaus Curve of Forgetting

A

A graph illustrating that forgetting is rapid within the first hour after learning a list, then gradually tapers off.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

False Memory Syndrome

A

Creation of inaccurate or false memories through suggestions from others, often during hypnosis.
Plausibility: Evidence indicates that false memories cannot be created for just any kind of memory; they must be at least plausible.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Memory Trace Theory

A

Memory Trace: Physical change in the brain when a memory is formed.

Note: Memories recalled after many years may not be fully explained by this theory.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Distributed Practice

A

Spacing study sessions to produce better retrieval of information.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Massed Practice

A

Studying a complete body of information all at once, leading to poorer retrieval compared to distributed practice.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Decay (Memory Trace Theory)

A

Loss of memory over time when the memory trace is not used.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Disuse (Memory Trace Theory)

A

Another term for decay, suggesting that unused memories will eventually fade.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Retrograde Amnesia

A

Loss of memory from the point of injury or trauma backwards; inability to recall past memories.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Anterograde Amnesia

A

Loss of memory from the point of injury or trauma forward; inability to form new long-term memories.

Example: Often associated with conditions like “senile dementia.”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Importance of Sleep

A

Essential for forming memories and consolidation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Memories rehearsed during

A

sleep and waking are more likely to be consolidated.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Sleep Deprivation

A

Severely interferes with hippocampal function and memory.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Omega-3 Fatty Acids

A

DHA (docosahexaenoic acid) helps memory cells communicate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Physical Activity

A

Even brief exercise can improve memory.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Theoretical, orientations, and cognitive science :Representations

A

Symbols, schemata, imagery, and mental constructs used to process information.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Theoretical orientations in cognitive science: Embodied Cognition

A

Cognitive processes for interacting with the world

Internally embodied cognition: information storage and retrieval, and process occurs primarily within the person

Externally embodied cognition: information storage and maintenance process occurs primarily externally; retrieval requires accessibility to the external source

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

The radical orientations and cognitive science: Biological Perspective

A

Neurophysiological processes of cognitive functions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What is the primary memory difficulty in Alzheimer’s disease?

A

Anterograde amnesia (inability to form new long-term memories).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

How many cases of Alzheimer’s disease are there in the U.S.?

A

Approximately 5.3 million cases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What type of amnesia can occur as Alzheimer’s disease progresses?

A

Retrograde amnesia (loss of memory for the past).

58
Q

Are there any cures for Alzheimer’s disease?

A

No cure exists, but there are various drugs in use or development to slow or stop its progression.

59
Q

Theoretical Orientations in Cognitive Science

A

Different frameworks used to understand how cognitive processes occur, focusing on various aspects of cognition.

59
Q

What are some risk factors for Alzheimer’s disease?

A

High cholesterol, high blood pressure, smoking, obesity, Type II diabetes, lack of exercise.

60
Q

Imagery

A

Mental pictures or visual representations of objects, events, or concepts used in cognition.

60
Q

Thinking (Cognition)

A

Mental activity that occurs in the brain when a person is processing information, including organizing, understanding, and communicating information to others.

61
Q

Organizing

A

The process of structuring information in a meaningful way to facilitate understanding and retrieval.

61
Q

Understanding

A

The ability to grasp the meaning or significance of information, leading to insights and knowledge.

62
Q

Formal Concepts

A

Concepts defined by specific rules or features

63
Q

Concepts

A

Ideas that represent a class or category of objects, events, or activities.

63
Q

Communicating Information to Others

A

The process of sharing and conveying information to others effectively.

64
Q

Mental Images

A

Mental representations that stand for objects or events and possess a picture-like quality, allowing individuals to visualize concepts.

65
Q

Theory-Based Concepts

A

Concepts derived from theoretical frameworks that outline specific criteria and relationships within a category.

66
Q

Operationalized Concepts

A

Concepts defined in terms of measurable variables or procedures, allowing for empirical testing.

67
Q

Natural Concepts

A

Concepts that form as a result of people’s experiences in the real world, often reflecting more flexible and subjective understandings.

68
Q

Constructs

A

Abstract concepts that represent complex phenomena or variables, often used in research and theory development.

68
Q

Fuzzy Concepts

A

Concepts that are not sharply defined and have degrees of applicability, such as ‘hot’, ‘young’, ‘approximately equal’, or ‘scary’.

69
Q

Formalized Constructs

A

Constructs that are defined with specific, clear criteria or rules, allowing for consistent measurement and application.

69
Q

Constructs Are Concepts

A

Constructs can be considered as a type of concept, representing specific ideas or categories used to understand and analyze phenomena.

69
Q

Natural (Fuzzy) Constructs

A

Constructs that are based on real-world experiences and may not have precise definitions; they often involve subjective interpretations and varying degrees of applicability.

70
Q

What is decision making?

A

Decision making involves identifying, evaluating, and choosing between alternatives.

70
Q

What is problem solving?

A

Problem solving occurs when a goal must be reached by thinking and behaving in certain ways, typically through explicit, deliberative cognitive processes and goal-oriented actions.

71
Q

What is trial and error in problem solving?

A

Trial and error is a method where one possible solution after another is tried until a successful one is found.

72
Q

What is a heuristic?

A

A heuristic is an “educated” guess based on prior experiences that helps narrow down possible solutions for a problem, also known as a “rule of thumb.”

73
Q

What are algorithms?

A

Algorithms are very specific, step-by-step procedures for solving certain types of problems that will always result in a correct solution if one exists (e.g., mathematical formulas).

74
Q

What are cognitive efficiencies in heuristics?

A

Heuristics afford cognitive efficiencies, working within limits and providing a general approach to problem solving.

Working backwards from the goal.

Breaking a goal down into sub goals.

75
Q

What is working backward in problem solving?

A

Working backward from the goal is a useful heuristic that helps in identifying steps needed to achieve the desired outcome.

76
Q

What is breaking down a goal into sub-goals?

A

Breaking a goal down into sub-goals involves achieving smaller, manageable objectives that lead to the final solution.

77
Q

What is the representative heuristic?

A

The representative heuristic is the assumption that any object or person sharing characteristics with members of a particular category is also a member of that category, which can lead to stereotyping.

78
Q

What is the availability heuristic?

A

The availability heuristic involves estimating the frequency or likelihood of an event based on how easily relevant information can be recalled from memory or how easily related examples come to mind.

79
Q

How can media distort the availability heuristic?

A

The accuracy of the availability heuristic can be distorted by media content, editorial choices, design, and user consumption behaviors.

80
Q

What is functional fixedness?

A

Functional fixedness is the tendency to think about objects only in terms of their typical functions, limiting creative problem-solving.

81
Q

Provide an example of functional fixedness.

A

An example of functional fixedness is thinking a hammer can only be used for inserting or removing nails.

82
Q

What is a mental set?

A

A mental set is the tendency to persist in using problem-solving patterns that have worked in the past, which can hinder finding new solutions.

83
Q

How does a mental set affect problem-solving?

A

A mental set can lead to borrowing inappropriate strategies or tactics from past experiences, making it difficult to adapt to new problems.

84
Q

What is confirmation bias?

A

Confirmation bias is the tendency to search for evidence that supports one’s beliefs while ignoring evidence that contradicts those beliefs.

85
Q

How can past problems contribute to insight?

A

The present problem may be recognized as similar to a previously solved problem, allowing solution elements from the past to be translatable to the current problem.

86
Q

What is insight in problem-solving?

A

Insight is the sudden perception of a solution to a problem, often referred to as an “aha!” moment.

87
Q

What does “outside the box” thinking refer to in the context of insight?

A

“Outside the box” thinking refers to recognizing an unexpected fit or solution that is not immediately obvious.

88
Q

How does sleep affect problem-solving and insight?

A

After sleeping, there is often a pause in conscious activity that can lead to insight when returning to the problem.

88
Q

When does insight often occur?

A

Insight often occurs after a rest period following intense concentration on the elements of a problem.

89
Q

What role does taking a break play in achieving insight?

A

Taking a break and engaging in a pleasant distraction can move the problem-solving process to a background or subconscious level, facilitating insight.

90
Q

What is creativity?

A

Creativity is the process of solving problems by combining ideas or behaviors in new ways.

91
Q

How does convergent thinking approach problem-solving?

A

Convergent thinking focuses on applying known methods and logic to reach a specific solution.

91
Q

What is convergent thinking?

A

Convergent thinking is when a problem is seen as having only one answer, and all lines of thinking converge on that single answer using previous knowledge and logic.

92
Q

What is divergent thinking?

A

Divergent thinking involves starting from one point and generating many different ideas or possibilities based on that point.

93
Q

What is intelligence?

A

Intelligence is the ability to learn from experiences, acquire knowledge, and use resources effectively in adapting to new situations or solving problems.

94
Q

How is divergent thinking related to creativity?

A

Divergent thinking is a type of creativity that emphasizes generating multiple solutions and ideas, showcasing creative potential.

95
Q

What is Spearman’s g factor?

A

The g factor, or general intelligence, refers to the ability to reason and solve problems across various domains.

96
Q

What is Spearman’s s factor?

A

The s factor, or specific intelligence, is the ability to excel in certain areas or domains of knowledge.

97
Q

How do the g factor and s factor relate to intelligence?

A

The g factor represents overall cognitive ability, while the s factor accounts for specific talents or skills in particular areas.

98
Q

What is existentialist intelligence?

A

Existentialist intelligence refers to the understanding and exploration of existential questions about life, meaning, and existence.

98
Q

Who is a prime example of existentialist intelligence?

A

Rollo May is a prime example; he was a humanistic psychologist and a pioneer of existential psychology.

99
Q

What is the triarchic theory of intelligence?

A

The triarchic theory of intelligence posits that intelligence consists of three components: analytical, creative, and practical intelligence.

99
Q

What is analytical intelligence?

A

Analytical intelligence is the ability to break problems down into component parts or analyze them for problem-solving.

100
Q

What is creative intelligence?

A

Creative intelligence is the ability to deal with new and different concepts and to generate innovative solutions to problems.

100
Q

What is practical intelligence?

A

Practical intelligence, often referred to as “street smarts,” is the ability to use information effectively to navigate life and achieve success.

101
Q

What does IQ stand for?

A

IQ stands for Intelligence Quotient, a number representing a measure of intelligence.

102
Q

How is IQ calculated?

A

IQ is calculated by dividing one’s mental age by chronological age and multiplying that quotient by 100.

103
Q

What is an example of an IQ test?

A

The Stanford-Binet Intelligence Scales yield an IQ score, allowing comparison of intelligence levels across different age groups.

104
Q

What do Wechsler Intelligence Tests provide?

A

Wechsler Intelligence Tests yield a verbal score, a performance score, and an overall score of intelligence.

105
Q

What is reliability in the context of IQ tests?

A

Reliability is the tendency of a test to produce the same scores consistently each time it is administered to the same individuals.

106
Q

What is validity in IQ testing?

A

Validity is the degree to which a test accurately measures what it is intended to measure.

107
Q

What is standardization in IQ testing?

A

Standardization is the process of administering the test to a large representative group to establish norms.

108
Q

What are Deviation IQ scores?

A

Deviation IQ scores measure intelligence assuming that IQ is normally distributed around a mean of 100 with a standard deviation of about 15.

109
Q

What does an IQ of 130 represent in deviation IQ?

A

An IQ of 130 is two standard deviations above the mean.

110
Q

What does an IQ of 70 represent in deviation IQ?

A

An IQ of 70 is two standard deviations below the mean.

111
Q

What is cultural bias in IQ testing?

A

Cultural bias refers to the tendency of IQ tests to favor individuals from certain cultural backgrounds over others.

112
Q

What are cultural free tests?

A

Cultural free tests are designed to minimize cultural bias and accurately assess intelligence regardless of cultural background.

113
Q

What is the usefulness of IQ tests?

A

IQ tests are generally valid for predicting academic success and job performance.

114
Q

What role does neuropsychology play in relation to IQ tests?

A

Neuropsychology examines the impact of head injuries, learning disabilities, and neuropsychological disorders on cognitive functioning and intelligence.

115
Q

What is intellectual disability?

A

Intellectual disability, also known as intellectual developmental disorder, is characterized by deficits in mental ability and adaptive behavior.

116
Q

What is the IQ threshold for intellectual disability?

A

An IQ score falls below 70 for a diagnosis of intellectual disability.

117
Q

How is adaptive behavior defined in the context of intellectual disability?

A

Adaptive behavior is considered severely deficient for a person of a particular chronological age.

118
Q

What were the previous terms used for intellectual disability?

A

Intellectual disability was formerly known as mental retardation or developmentally delayed.

119
Q

What is giftedness?

A

Giftedness refers to the 2 percent of the population falling on the upper end of the normal curve, typically possessing an IQ of 130 or above.

120
Q

Does giftedness guarantee success?

A

No, giftedness does not guarantee success; other factors contribute to achieving success in life.

121
Q

What is emotional intelligence?

A

Emotional intelligence is the awareness and ability to manage one’s own emotions, as well as the ability to understand and empathize with others.

122
Q

What are the components of emotional intelligence?

A

The components include self-motivation (agency), empathy (feeling what others feel), and social skills (attunement, tact, communication).

123
Q

How is emotional intelligence viewed in relation to success?

A

Emotional intelligence is viewed as a powerful influence on success in life.

124
Q

What is language?

A

Language is a system for combining symbols (such as words) to create an unlimited number of meaningful statements for communication.

125
Q

What is cognitive universalism?

A

Cognitive universalism posits that concepts are universal and influence the development of language.

126
Q

What is the linguistic relativity hypothesis?

A

The linguistic relativity hypothesis suggests that thought processes and concepts are controlled by language.

127
Q

What are mental activities that can help keep the brain active?

A

Mental activities that can keep the brain active include those requiring creativity and memory abilities.

128
Q

What is grammar?

A

Grammar is the system of rules governing the structure and use of a language.

129
Q

What are morphemes?

A

Morphemes are the smallest units of meaning within a language.

130
Q

What are phonemes?

A

Phonemes are the basic units of sound in a language.

131
Q

What is syntax?

A

Syntax is the system of rules for combining words and phrases to form grammatically correct sentences.

132
Q

What is semantics?

A

Semantics involves the rules for determining the meaning of words and sentences.

133
Q

What is pragmatics?

A

How context influences the interpretation of meaning in communication.

Pragmatics refers to aspects of language involving the practical ways of communicating with others and the social niceties of language.

134
Q

What is Ellis’s ABC model?

A

Ellis’s ABC model consists of three components: Action (direct or observed), Beliefs (which modify psychological consequences), and Consequences.

135
Q

What is Bandura’s social cognitive theory?

A

Bandura’s social cognitive theory integrates social learning and cognitive theories, emphasizing the role of observational learning, imitation, and modeling.

136
Q

How do beliefs affect consequences in Ellis’s ABC model?

A

In Ellis’s model, beliefs modify the consequences, meaning that the psychological effects of an action are influenced by an individual’s beliefs about that action.

137
Q

What are cognitive distortions according to Beck?

A

Cognitive distortions are troubling beliefs that distort the interpretation of experiences and often have detrimental effects on mental health.

138
Q

What are personal constructs according to Kelly?

A

Personal constructs are individual frameworks through which people interpret their experiences, and Kelly developed the Rep Test to explore these constructs.

139
Q

What is overgeneralizing?

A

Overgeneralizing involves making broad generalizations based on a single event and minimal evidence.

140
Q

What does magnification-minimization refer to?

A

Magnification-minimization is the tendency to magnify the positive attributes of others while minimizing one’s own.

141
Q

What is emotional reasoning?

A

Emotional reasoning is interpreting experiences based on how one is feeling in the moment.

142
Q

What does “shoulding” and “musting” mean?

A

“Shoulding” and “musting” refer to making unrealistic and unreasonable demands of oneself and others.

143
Q

What is labeling/stereotyping?

A

Labeling/stereotyping involves making global statements about oneself or others based on situation-specific behavior.

144
Q

What is catastrophizing?

A

Catastrophizing means blowing circumstances out of proportion by making problems seem larger than life.

145
Q

What does black and white thinking entail?

A

Black and white thinking involves seeing things as all or nothing (e.g., good vs. bad, right vs. wrong).

146
Q

What is personalization?

A

Personalization is the tendency to take blame for everything that goes wrong in one’s life.

147
Q

What does jumping to conclusions mean?

A

Jumping to conclusions involves making irrational assumptions about people and circumstances.

148
Q

What is mental filtering?

A

Mental filtering is focusing on negative events while neglecting positive ones.

149
Q

What is literal embodiment in the context of embodied cognition?

A

Literal embodiment refers to the idea that cognitive processes are deeply rooted in the body’s interactions with the world.

150
Q

What was Socrates’ concern regarding writing?

A

Socrates expressed concern that writing would diminish people’s self-possession and their ability to hold knowledge, as they would rely on external sources.

151
Q

What is the challenge of balancing externally embodied cognition?

A

The challenge lies in finding a balance between relying on external tools for cognition (like writing) and maintaining internal cognitive skills.

152
Q

What is embodied cognition?

A

Embodied cognition is an emerging field of research that explores how our physical experiences influence our cognitive processes.