Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Medical Derm Revision > Melanocytic naevi and Melanoma > Flashcards

Melanocytic naevi and Melanoma Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
USMLE® Step 1 flashcards Dermatology Board Prep flashcards
1
Q

T/F

Freckling inherited as autosomal dominant trait

A

T
onset age 5 ish
MC1R gene mutation may lead to freckling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

T/F
freckles, CALMs and vulval/penile/oral melanosis all have increased melanin production but no increase in number or distribution of melanocytes

A

T

In vulval melanosis may be slight increase in number of melanocytes esp in larger, darker lesions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

T/F

Lentigines have increased melanin production but no increase in number or distribution of melanocytes

A

F
In lentigines the number of melanocytes is often increased
melanocytes remain limited to basal layer
Solar lentigo may or may not have increased melanocyte numbers
Melnaocytes are usually normal in appearance but PUVA lentigines have large melanocytes with mild cytological atypia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

T/F

Freckles are independent risk factor form melanoma

A

T

people with many freckles are more than twice as likely to get a melanoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

T/F

freckles and lentigines fade with time out fo the sun

A

F
freckles do lentigines may fade a little but tend to persist
CALMs do not change

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

T/F

Freckled people have more naevi

A

T

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are Rx for freckles?

A

Sun protect
IPL first line about 3 treatments
QS 532nm (freq doubled Nd:YAG) laser - end point is even frosting
Can use ablative or fractionated laser – fractionated probably better esp erbium
35% TCA peel
2-4% hydroquinone in morning and retinoic acid in evening and high SPF (UVA blocking) sunscreen
Gentle cryotherapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What syndromes are associated with freckles?

A 
XP
NF (trunk, axilla, groin - Crowe's sign)
Progeria
LEOPARD
Moynihan’s syndrome (HOCM + LEOPARD)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

T/F
Regarding CALMs
10-20% of normal population have one
1% of normal population have up to 3

A

T

Rare to have more than 3 unless part of a syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

T/F

CALMs are rare in afro-caribbeans

A

F

more common

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

T/F

In CALM there are usually fewer melanocytes than in surrounding normal skin

A

T

but increased melanin production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What syndromes are assoc w/ CALMs?

A

Cheer leader with CALMs spins the BATANS
Bloom’s syndrome
Albright (McCune-Albright) syndrome (coast of Maine)
Tuberous sclerosis
Ataxia telangiectasia
NF1
Silver-Russell (Russell-Silver) syndrome

Also;
Idiopathic
NF1-like syndrome (Legius syndrome)
NF2
Watson syndrome (Allelic to NF1)
Noonans syndrome
LEOPARD syndrome (cafe noir), Moynihan's
Carney complex (cafe noir)
Fanconis anaemia
Gorlin’s
Cowdens (sometimes)
MEN1 (sometimes)
Mafuccis
Gaucher
Chediak-Higashi
Hunter syndrome
Multiple mucosal neuroma syndrome
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What syndromes are assoc w/ Cafe noir macules?

A

LEOPARD syndrome

Carney complex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

T/F

NF1 typically has several CALMs >15cm diameter

A

T

but only size >15mm in adult required for diagnostic criteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

T/F

topical skin lighteners help CALMs

A

F
no effect
generally Rx resistant
Can try pulsed dye, QS Ruby or freq doubled Nd:YAG lasers
ablative erbium laser has also been used
variable response, high risk of recurrence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is lentiginosis?

A

Lentiginosis means either many lentigines or lentigines in a specific distribution in keeping with a clinical syndrome
NB lentiginosis syndromes often also have ephelides and/or CALMs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the types of lentigo?

A 
Simple lentigo (lentigo simplex)
Solar lentigo (=senile lentigo) + variants;
- Ink spot lentigo
- PUVA lentigo
Scar lentigo
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

T/F

Solar lentigo can evolve into lichenoid keratosis or reticulated seb K

A

T

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

T/F

Xeroderma pigmentosum is associated with many CALMs

A

F

Many ephelides and solar lentigines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are treatments for solar lentigo?

A

simialr to freckles but topical whiteners rarely effective
Sun protect
QS 532nm (freq doubled Nd:YAG) laser - end point is even frosting - 1st line treatment
IPL – may need up to 5 Rx at monthly intervals
35% TCA peel
Gentle cryotherapy - C tip spray; 3-5secs from 2cm
Can use ablative or fractionated laser – fractionated probably better esp Erbium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

PUVA lentigo occurs in 90% of pts treated with PUVA

A

False
50%
More develop if – receive more treatments, older age, male sex
Fewer develop in darker skin phototypes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

T/F

PUVA lentigines can occur on any skin exposed to PUVA regardless if normally sun exposed or not

A

T

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

T/F

PUVA lentigines occcur early during PUVA Rx

A

F
usually after 5-7 yrs of Rx
Persist for years after PUVA stopped

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

T/F

PUVA lentigines are a marker for increased risk for PUVA-related malignancy

A

T

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

T/F

PUVA lentigines are darker and more stellate appearance than solar lentigines

A

T

look more like simple lentigo than solar lentigo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

T/F

lentifo simplex is more common in darker skin types

A

T
M=F
simple lentigo may be present at birth or appear shortly after birth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

T/F

simple lentigo of the nail matrix are a common cause of longitudinal melanonychia

A

T

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

T/F

simple lentigo is a brown-black homogenous pigmented macule. usually

A

T

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

T/F

Acral pigmented lesions are most often lentigo simplex histologically

A

T

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is Generalized lentiginosis (syndrome)?

A

Multiple lentigines appearing singularly in small crops from infancy onwards
No known cause or association

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is Eruptive lentiginosis (syndrome)?

A

Rare, widespread development of numerous lentigines over months-years
Adolescents and young adults
No systemic illness/associations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is Unilateral (zosteriform/segmental) lentiginosis (syndrome)?

A

Lentigines appearing on one side of the body during childhood
May be zosteriform appearing in dermatome like distribution – often naevoid
May be associated neurological abnormalities – usually not in zosteriform cases
2-10mm lentigines clustered without background hyper pigmentation as seen in naevus spillus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is Centrofacial lentiginosis?

A

Very rare poorly defined triad;
Lentigines limited to medial face
Neuropsychiatric problems
Dysraphic anomalies
AD inheritence
Small black/brown macules appear in infancy in horizontal band across central face
Also; coalescence of eyebrows, high-arched palate, absent upper median incisors, spina bifida, sacral hypertrichosis & scoliosis
Frequent learning difficulties and epilepsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is Laugier-Hunziker syndrome?

A

Rare acquired lentiginosis syndrome onset in adulthood, benign cause unknown
Macular pigmentation of lips and buccal mucosa, palms and soles
Longitudinal black melanonychia
No systemic associations, good prognosis
DD for Peutz-Jeghers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Which lentiginosis syndromes have pigment change only with no systemic features?

A

Generalized lentiginosis
Unilateral (zosteriform/segmental) lentiginosis
Eruptive lentiginosis
Inherited patterned lentiginosis in black people
Laugier-Hunziker syndrome

NB Dowling-Degos and variants can look like lentigines but often look more reticulate and may be hypopigmented/erythematous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Which lentiginosis syndromes have pigment change with systemic features?

A 
Centrofacial lentiginosis
Cronkhite-Canada syndrome
Carney complex
Peutz-Jeghers syndrome
LEOPARD syndrome
all AD except Cronkite-Canada (acquired, cause unknown)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Mucosal melanotic macules, mucosal melanosis or mucosal lentiginosis are all the same thing

A

T

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

T/F

Mucosal melanosis is common and usually benign

A

T
but vulval melanosis is seen in middle aged women (esp early 40s)
- if occurs in older women think of melanoma even if multifocal
- if occurs in children think of lentiginosis or similar syndromes;
Peutz-Jeghers
Carney complex
LEOPARD
Bannayan-Riley-Ruvalcaba
Dowling-Degos

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

T/F

smoking, trauma and inflammatory demratoses can trigger mucosal melanosis

A

T

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

T/F

mucosal melanosis is pre-malignant

A

F

also No proof that melanosis is a risk factor for melanoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

T/F

Labial melanotic macules are most common on the lateral parts of the lip

A

F

Most commonly central 1/3 of lower lip, ?due to UV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

T/F

Vulvar melanoma is the most common vulval cancer

A

F
2nd most common after SCC
10% of vulval cancers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

T/F

Vulval bleeding, pruritus, discharge, irritation or lymphadenopathy can ll be due to vulval melanoma

A

T

take these serious;y and examine carefully

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

T/F

Molecular typing of vulval melanoma is more like acral melanomas than cutaneous ones

A

T

KIT gene is most common mutation – up to 35% of cases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

T/F

radical vulvectomy is performed for vulval melanoma

A

False
treat simialrly to skin melanoma
WLE is best if possible
vulvectomy rarely indicated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

T/F

Vulvar naevi arise in younger women than melanosis or melanoma

A

T
naevus - late 20s, early 30s
melanosis - 40-44yrs
melanoma - 40-70 or older

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

T/F

Vulvar naevi occur in 20% of adult women

A

F
2%
account for 23% of all pigmented vulvar lesions
arise on lab maj, lab min or clitoral hood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

T/F

Atypical Melanocytic Naevi of Genital Type (AMNGT) are generally seen in slightly younger women

A

T
can be children and teens
more often on lab min and on mucosal parts esp in girls under 10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

T/F

Atypical Melanocytic Naevi of Genital Type (AMNGT) account for 5% of vulval naevi

A

T

may be large, irregular, darkly pigmented. May have personal or FHx of dysplastic naevi or melanoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

T/F

Atypical Melanocytic Naevi of Genital Type (AMNGT) ae pre-malignant lesions

A

F
Both vulval naevi and AMNGT appear to have benign behaviour
AMNGT is a special site naevus - may have focal pagetoid, cytological atypia and rare mitoses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

T/F

most vulval melanomas arise from a naevus

A

F
Vulval melanomas on mucosal and border of mucosal and hairy skin rarely have a benign naevus associated (2%)
35% of melanomas on hairy vulva may arise from a naevus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

T/F

Both vulval melanosis and AMNGT can arise on a background of vulval lichen sclerosus

A

T

but LS not a risk factor for vulval melanoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

T/F
In first 1-2 years of life infants may develop acquired naevi which clinically and histologically resemble congenital naevi

A

T

‘congenital naevus tardive’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

T/F

Congenital melanocytic naevi (CMN) are present in up to 12% of newborns esp Asian and black skin

A

F
2%
and 2% of adults have lesions resembling congenital naevi which may or may not be truly congenital

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

T/F

Congenital melanocytic naevi are due to a postzygotic mutations in BRAF gene

A

F
NRAS gene
type of mosaic RASopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

T/F

There is a higher risk of melanoma in congenital naevi >10cm diameter when an adult

A

T

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What is the calssification of CMN?

A 
Small less than 1.5cm
medium/large 1.5-19.9cm
large/giant 20cm and over
- based on adult diameter attained
some call naevi >40cm diameter ‘garment naevi’
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

T/F

Naevi >9cm on scalp in adults are considered giant

A

T
Also naevi >6cm on the body in neonates
size grows in proportion with child

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

T/F

Giant/garment naevi in lumbosacral region often called ‘bathing trunk’ naevi

A

T
Bathing trunk naevi usually cover lower back, buttocks and extend to thighs
75% also have many satellite naevi and develop more with time esp in first 2 years. These can be at distant sites to the main naevus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

T/F

Most congenital naevi are in small category

A

T

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

T/F

Congenital melanocytic naevi dont change in appearance with age, only in size

A

F
Many become more pale in first 2 years
can become thicker in childhood
Surface often becomes thick/rugose or warty - esp on scalp; simulates cutis verticis gyrata
Often also develop nodules within larger naevi
Can be increased terminal hair in naevus skin esp on scalp – hair often dark, thick and wiry

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What are the associations of CMN on the skin?

A 
Absence of subcut fat and muscle mass under the naevus is most common and can cause discomfort in naevi over the sacrum etc
Atopic dermatitis
Perineavic leukoderma
Neurofibromatosis – up to 5% of NF pts have a CMN
CALMs
Mucosal naevi (30%)
Infantile haemangioma
can be part of epidermal naevus syndrome
Benign nodules
Plexiform-like overgrowths
Fascicular schwannoma
Lipoma
Lymphangioma
Fibroepithelial polyp
Ectopic Mongolian spot
Neurilemmoma
Cartilaginous hamartoma
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What are the non-skin asociations of CMN?

A

Limb hypertrophy (22.5%) club foot, atrophy or hypertrophy of musculoskeletal structures esp under naevi on limbs

EEG abnormalities (20%)

CNS symptoms due to neuro melanosis

Rasopathy induced hormonal disturbances;

  • Higher BMI compared to normal due to increased adiposity
  • Premature thelarche (breast development) 3%
  • Cryptorchidism 6%
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What is neurocutaneous melanosis?

A

Neurocutaneous melanosis = neuromelanosis associated with a CMN
Usually giant CMN or multiple smaller lesions
Involvement of nervous system by melanocytic proliferation – can be amygdala, cerebrum, cerebellum, midbrain, pons, medulla, meninges or spinal cord
Present before age 3 in most cases; often before or around age 2;
2nd peak in teens-20s
Complications rare but can cause raised ICP, hydrocephalus, spinal space-occupying lesions
Risk if CMN overlying spin – meningeal involvement, spina bifida, meningocele, tethered spinal cord, pits, lipoma
Can develop melanoma in skin lesions or in neuromelanosis but not in both

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What are the histo features of CMN?

A

Dermal or compound type melanocytic naevi with naevus cells extending more deeply into dermis
Often naevus cells involve appendages and can extend into fat and muscle
Naevus cells may be arranged in ‘splaying’ pattern AKA single file or ‘Indian filing’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

T/F

In CMN Naevus cells start higher up and go deep in first months of life

A

F

so no benefit from early dermabrasion or similar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What investigations should be performed for CMN?

A

T1 weighted MRI of brain if want to look for neuromelanosis – some advocate screening if giant CMN; some advocate only investigating if symptoms as there is no curative Rx
MRI may be more accurate if performed before 4 months
Cannot predict which neuromelanosis cases will cause symptoms and which will be assymptomatic
MRI all pts if CMN overlies spine – can treat tethered cord with surgery but cannot sure after it becomes symptomatic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

T/F

nodular melanoma is most common type to arise from CMN

A

F
superficial spreading
but arise from dermal portion making diagnosis difficult
Higher risk of presenting with mets and unknown primary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What are the complications of CMN?

A

Melanoma - 5-7% of giant CMN pts get melanoma by age 60
Nodular proliferative neurocristic hamartoma – tumour derived from neural crest, may be present at birth, often on scalp, benign but can turn into melanoma
Nodularities caused by proliferation of epiphelioid melanocytes – simulate melanoma
Pts w/ giant naevi can develop extracutaneous melanoma – CNS, retroperitoneum etc
Other malignant tumours (rare) – malignant blue naevus, neurogenic sarcoma, fibrosarcoma, leiomyosarcoma, rhabdomyosarcoma, neurosarcoma, osteogenic sarcoma, liposarcoma
Psychological – behavioural and emotional problems, bullying

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

T/F

In CMN there is No clear evidence that removal of the naevus has any effect on melanoma risk

A

T

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

T/F

symptomatic neurocutaneous melanosis has a poor prognosis

A

T

dont excise their naevi as unnecessary morbidity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What are the treatment options for CMN?

A

Monitoring only - photos and FSE every 6-12 months lifelong
complete excision if small
staged excison with graft/flap repair
Partial thickness treatment options – remove some naevus cells but often not satisfactory;
- Dermabrasion– done in 1st 6 months of life when cleavage plane exists between naevus and underlying tissue
- Dermatome shaving
- Chemical peel
- Curettage – done in 1st 6 months of life when cleavage plane exists between naevus and underlying tissue
- Cryotherapy
- Electosurgery
- Pigment laser – QS; Ruby, Alexandrite, Nd:YAG
- Ablative laser – CO2 or Erbium:YAG
- XRT – described but least useful option and high risk AEs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

which syndromes are associated w/ naevus spillus?

A

phakomatosis pigmentovascularis (type 3+4)
phakomatosis pigmentokeratotica
Rare speckled lentiginous naevus syndrome – naevus + ipsilateral dysaesthesia, muscle weakness and hyperhidrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

T/F

Speckled and lentiginous naevus has a small increased risk of melanoma

A

T

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

T/F
Unlike the individual lentigines and junctional naevi within a naevus spillus, the background hyperpigmentation has normal melanosyte numbers

A

F

subtle increase in melanocytes in background lesion in lentiginous arrangement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

T/F

90% of naevi are junctional in childhood

A

T

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

T/F

get some new naevi up until around mid 40s then begin to involute

A

T

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

T/F

Number of naevi is mainly genetically determined

A

T

small effect of sun exposure esp if intermittent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What things can trigger development of new naevi?

A

Sun exposure esp multiple or severe sunburns
Skin injury – SJS/TEN, EB, LS
Immunosuppression inc drugs and AIDS, BMT
Hormones - Pregnancy, growth hormone, addisons Dx, thyroid hormone, afamelanotide (αMSH analogue)
Sorafenib (kinase inhibitor)

EB naevi which develop at blister sites maybe up to 3cm diameter - Should observe but no reports of melanoma developing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

T/F

A persons overall number of naevi is single biggest risk factor for melanoma

A

T

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

T/F

Renal transplant pts have fewer naevi

A

F
more
Childhood leukaemia survivors also have more than ave naevi and inc risk of melanoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

T/F

Eczema pts often have fewer naevi than average

A

T

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

T/F

Balloon cell melanoma does NOT arise from balloon cell naevi

A

T

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

T/F
In acral melanocytic naevi some degree of architectural atypia (including Pagetoid spread) and cytological atypia is normal

A

T

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What are the dermoscopic patterns of naevi on feet?

A

Fibrillar – in friction prone, wt bearing parts
Classical groove pattern – seen in peri-wt bearing areas
Lattice pattern – seen on the arch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

T/F

conjunctival naevi are more risky than skin naevi

A

F

behave the same

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

T/F

Nail matrix naevi present as longitudinal melanonychia

A

T

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

T/F

It is common for melanocytes in IDNs to become spindle shaped (neuroid)

A

T

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

What is Sutton’s naevus

A

Halo naevus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

T/F

In older adults a sudden onset of multiple halo naevi can indicate a melanoma of the skin, eye or elsewhere

A

T

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

What are the stages of change in halo naevus?

A 
4 stages;
1 – central brown naevus
2 – central pink naevus
3 – depigmented macule only remains
4 – repigmentation of macule
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

What is the management of a new halo naevus?

A

Ensure naevus appears benign clinically, perform FSE
Ask about personal/Fam Hx of MM, atypical naevi and vitiligo (may be associations)
Reassure in young person usually best
If older but under 40 r/w in 3/12 (?w/ photo?) and then 6 monthly
If over 40; FSE and ensure examination of scalp, perianal, genital tract etc and send to ophthal
Advise sun protection as risk of burning depigmented area
Higher degree of suspicion in older pts as can get same phenomenon in melanoma esp superficial spreading or can indicate MM elsewhere
If any doubt remove for excision biopsy

93
Q

What is a Meyerson’s naevus?

A

Melanocytic naevus with associated eczematous inflammatory reaction
Treat with mod TCS then review after a few weeks to properly examine naevus

94
Q

What is a Cockade naevus?

A 
Rare phenomenon
Means rosette-shaped naevus
Occurs in young people
Usually have multiple
Central junctional naevus surrounded by concentric rings of increased pigmentation in a target-like arrangement
No significance
95
Q

T/F

75% of Spitz naevi occur under age 30 and 50% under age 14

A

T

up to 7% congenital

96
Q

T/F

Spitz navei look red due to vascularity

A

T
diascopy or dermoscopy can compress vessels and often pigment is seen
can look more pigmented esp in adults
DDs esp in kids are vasc lesions, pyogenic granuloma also histiocytoma, JXG, granulomas

97
Q

T/F

a period of rapid growth ove rmonths then long term stability is normal history of Spitz naevus

A

T

98
Q

T/F

Reed naevus most commonly seen in young females (mean age 25) esp on thighs

A

T

99
Q

T/F

indeterminate Spitzoid lesions are often reported as Atypical spitzoid tumour of unknown malignant potential (STUMP)

A

T
These should be managed as melanoma but the pt informed that the diagnosis is uncertain and it may in fact be a benign lesion

100
Q

T/F

In pts over 12 best to completely excise all spitzoid lesions

A

T
As per JAAD 2015 study
In pt of any age if there are atypical features lesion should be excised – asymmetry, irregular colour etc
Child w/ typical Spitz is low risk and should not be excised but should be monitored. Take a photo and r/w in 2-3 months to ensure no evolution of atypical features

101
Q

T/F
Pigmented spindle cell naevus of Reed should be excised routinely as hard to r/o MM clinically – ensure complete excision

A

T

If any atypical features perform WLE w/ 5-10mm margins and follow up regularly

102
Q

Which features are more c/w benign Spitz neavus than spitzoid melanoma?

A

Symmetry
Uniformity of cell nests or sheets of cells
Kamino bodies

103
Q

Which features are more c/w spitzoid melanoma than Spitz naevus?

A 
Mitoses >2 per mm2
>10mm diameter
Atypical mitoses
Deep mitoses (in base of lesion)
Sheets of atypical melanocytes in dermis
Ulceration
extends into fat
104
Q

What is Mx of suspicious Spitz or STUMP

A

Excision biopsy followed by WLE depending on Breslow thickness
1cm if 2mm deep
consider SNB for lesions >1mm deep if atypical/high risk Spitz or STUMP or melanoma

105
Q

T/F

Spitzoid melanoma has very poor prognosis

A

False
trick with Spitz is not missing the MM
Spitzoid melanoma may have a better prognosis than other types

106
Q

T/F

FISH or CGH may help distinguish benign and malignant spitzoid lesions

A

T
Spitz naevi have gains in chromosome 11p not seen in MM
Some Spitz naevi have isochromasome 5p, rarely seen in melanoma

107
Q

What is a Deep penetrating naevus?

JAAD rw 2014

A

Rare tumour
Some consider as distinct entity, some as blue naevus variant, some as spindle cell naevus variant
F>M
more common in pts under 30 but can be congenital or any age
head + neck region then trunk then arms; rare elsewhre
Deep blue-black dome shaped papule
Often sudden onset, changing and suspicious appearance
non-specific dermoscopy

108
Q

What are histo features of Deep penetrating naevus?

A

Pleomorphic spindle-shaped and epithelioid naevus cells extend into deep reticular dermis in wedge shape
Clusters of widely separated deep naevus cells esp around appendages
rare mitoses; cells have abundant pale cytoplasm, small nucleoli + large nuclear pseudoinclusions
Often (2/3) combined with combined (true & blue) naevus and Spitz naevus or congenital naevus with the other naevus occupying the superficial portion - papillary dermis
Lymphocytic infiltrate in 75%
More epithelioid cells than in blue naevus
distinguished from MM by H&E alone, usual IHC stains not that useful but is HMB45 positive
CGH or FISH may help

109
Q

What is the Mx of Deep penetrating naevus?

A

Excision is curative
If margins involved clinicians decision as to re-excision or not but sometimes can recur
If any atypical features re-excise with 5-10mm margin and palpate LNs
No follow up recommendations exist

110
Q

What is the Tyndall effect?

A 
red light (longer wavelength) diffused by dermis but blue light (shorter wavelength) reflected by deep pigment
makes melanin in dermis look blue - eg blue naevus, deep penetrating naevus and all the cerulodermas
111
Q

T/F

50% of blue naevi occur on dorsal hands and feet

A

T

face and scalp also common sites

112
Q

T/F

Cellular blue naevus is o 5x more common than common type

A

F

5x less common

113
Q

Which genes are often mutated in blue naevi?

A

GNA11 and GNAQ

same as in >80% of uveal melanomas

114
Q

What is histo of blue naevus?

A

wedge-shaped outline
spindle shaped (dendritic) melanocytes in dermis alone or in groups
Long axis of melanocytes mostly parallel to DEJ
Most profuse in deep dermis, can extend into fat
concentrate around appendages, vessels and nerves
Melanocytes have fine melanin granules and are deeply pigmented
Desmoplastic stroma with sclerotic increased collagen
macrophages containing coarse melanin
Overlying epi is normal unless it’s a true and blue
No mitoses – if any present may be a malignant blue naevus
3% amelanotic
Cellula rblue is similar but has also has islands of larger cells arranged in a neuroid or sarcomatoid arrangement
These have abundant pale eosinophilic cytoplasm and little pigment

115
Q

T/F

malignant blue naevi always arise from a blue naevus

A

F

some do and some just resemble blue naevus

116
Q

T/F

malignant blue naevi are best thought of as melanomas whoch resemble blue naevi

A

T
Often more aggressive than other melanomas
Scalp is most common site
Often >1cm diameter at presentation

117
Q

T/F

A clonal neavus has a homogenous clinical appearance

A

F
Typically tan macule and a darker central papule
Histo shows localized proliferation of pigmented epithelioid dermal melanocytes within an otherwise ordinary nevus

118
Q

When do naevi recur if incompletley removed e.g. by hsave biopsy?

A

50% recur in first 6 months post procedure

should excise if late recurrence >6 months or any other suspicious features

119
Q

T/F

recurrent naevi may show atypia

A

T
may be low grade cytological atypia and some pagetoid spread not extending beyond the scar edges. Often residual dermal naevus cells below the scar

120
Q

T/F

recurrent naevi have increased risk of melanoma

A

F

121
Q

T/F

Dysplastic naevus may be precursor lesions of melanoma

A

T

but currently No evidence that dysplastic naevi turn into melanomas

122
Q

What is Clark’s naevus?

A

means Dysplastic naevus

123
Q

Clinically atypical naevi are >8mm diameter

A

F

>5mm

124
Q

T/F

Dysplastic naevi are markers of risk of melanoma

A

T

Relative risk for melanoma is 6.36 if you have 5 atypical naevi versus zero

125
Q

What is atypical naevus syndrome?

A

Familial tendency to have multiple atypical naevi and higher incidence of melanomas
Relative risk for melanoma is 6-10 that of pts with few naevi

126
Q

What are the histo features of dysplastic naevi?

A

Atypical architectural features;
- Lentiginous proliferation of melanocytes (melanocyte hyperplasia)
- Fusion of nests of melanocytes
- Elongation of epidermal rete ridges
Atypical cytological features;
- Inc nuclear:cytoplasm ration
- Increased nuclear staining (darker)
- Occasional normal mitoses
- Sometimes other features: random slight-moderate atypia, occasional macronuclei, scattered epithelioid naevus cells, scattered cells w/ dusky pigment
Features of atypical host response;
- Lymphocytic infiltrate
- A degree of fibroplasia of collagen of papillary dermis
- Relative increase vascularity of dermis

127
Q

How should dysplastic naevi be mananged?

A

a single atypical naevus is best removed (ugly duckling!)
Syndrome need regular checks etc -f/u scheduled epends on individual pt risk factors
Controversial!
Mild or Mod dysplastic naevi completely excised don’t need WLE
5mm WLE if severely dysplastic reported
Mild atypia and excision incomplete – no need to re-excise if clinically complete (no residual pigmentation seen) – re excise if pigment seen
Moderate atypia incompletely excised – judgement call but latest paper suggests no need to re-excise if no pigment seen clinically can just monitor but often re-excised esp if pigment seen

128
Q

What is a Kossard naevus?

A

= lentiginous junctional dysplastic naevus of the elderly
Now considered melanoma in situ
Age over 60; earlier in women than men
Esp on back in men and legs in women
B/g solar damage
Histo
Atypical lentiginous proliferation of melanocytes
No nests in dermis
Cellular atypia
Sometimes pagetoid spread
Most often go on to give rise to superficial spreading MM

129
Q

What is the incidence of melanoma in Aus?

A

40-60 per 100,000

130
Q

T/F

Melanoma is responsible for 75% of skin cancer deaths

A

T

131
Q

T/F

Women have better prognosis for melanoma

A

T
almost half the relative risk of dying from their melanoma when all other factors are identical. Same if preg or non-preg and pre or post menopause

132
Q

T/F

The elderly have higher mortality from melanoma

A

T

133
Q

T/F

Intermittent sun exposure is the most important environmental risk factor for melanoma

A

T
sunny holidays with sunburn and minimal sun exposure the rest of the time is the highest risk behaviour
Painful sunburns are an important risk factor in Hx

134
Q

T/F

regular drinking causes 50% increased risk of melanoma

A

F
20%
but may be due to higher risk of severe sunburn

135
Q

T/F

Using sunbeds more than 10x in your life increases melanoma risk

A

F
Use of sunbeds for any amount of time increases risk of melanoma
esp if first sunbed use was under the age of 35
(at least 20% increased risk if ever used sunbed under age 35 – rel risk 1.2)

136
Q

T/F

Melanoma risk with sunbed use increases in dose-dependent way

A

T

137
Q

T/F

Type 1 skin is the biggest phenotypic risk factor for melanoma

A

F
many melanocytic naevi is the biggest phenotypic risk factor for melanoma
>100 naevi – 7x increased risk
>6x increased risk if 5 or more atypical naevi

138
Q

What are phenotypic risk factors for melanoma?

A 
Many naevi
Dysplastic naevi
Type 1 skin/poor tanning ability
Many freckles
Blue eyes
Red hair or fair hair colour
139
Q

T/F

dysplstic naevus syndrome pts are the pts at highest risk for melanoma

A

F
The pts at overall highest risk are those who have multiple family members with melanoma - must take FHx
More than double risk if one parent or sib has a melanoma
9x increased risk if a parent and a sibling had melanoma
Highest risk if a parent has had multiple melanomas

140
Q

T/F

the risk of melanoma in Parkinsons disease is the same as the risk if you have >100 naevi

A

T

both 7x risk

141
Q

What are the melanoma risk genes in families?

A

CDKN2A gene which codes for the tumour suppressor p16
CDK4 is a rarer melanoma gene in some families
BAP1 mutations found in some kindreds with uveal or skin melanomas

142
Q

T/F

MC1R gene mutations directly cause increased melanoma risk

A

F
MC1R mutations which cause red hair phenotype resulting in 2.44x increased melanoma risk due to phenotype alone (not due to cellular level changes predisposing to cancers)
MC1R is G-protein coupled receptor which binds αMSH

143
Q

What habits or medicines may protect from melanoma?

A

smoking

NSAIDs

144
Q

T/F

Men >60 years are most likely to benefit from screening FSE

A

T

145
Q

Which pts are classified as high risk for primary melanoma?

A

High risk = any of;
1st degree relative with melanoma
Increased number of naevi (not specified but >50 in Canadian guideline)
one or more clinically atypical naevi (2-15x increased rsik)
Fitzpatrick type 1 or 2 skin
Hx of non-melanoma skin cancers

146
Q

Which pts are classified as very high risk for primary melanoma?

A

Very high risk = any of;
Familial CDKN2A mutation
>100 total naevi
>5 atypical naevi

147
Q

T/F

Radial growth phase melanomas are unlikely to metastasize

A

T

148
Q

What are the ABCDE of suspicious lesions?

A

A – assymetry
B – border irregularity
C – colour variation
D – diameter > 5/6mm (originally reported as 6, some use 5 or simply ‘increasing’)
E - Evolution
Some like to try to incorporate nodular MMs by adding;
E – elevated
F – firm
G -growing
Some groups recommend biopsy if any of the ABCDE criteria are met

149
Q

What is the Glasgow 7 point checklist?

A 
3 Major criteria
- change in size
- change in shape
- change in colour
4 Minor criteria
- diameter >5mm
- inflammation
- oozing or bleeding
- mild itch or altered sensation
should consider for excision any lesion with one or more major criterion or a combination of minor criteria
150
Q

What is the little red riding hood sign?

A

Melanomas may be erythematous or inflamed

151
Q

what are the key things in the concerning mole consultation?

A 
Should ask about
- Duration of lesion
- Change in size, shape or colour
- Symptoms e.g. itch or bleeding
- Risk factors – sunburns, immunosuppression, skin phototype, personal/FHx
- Ask if any other concerning naevi and if a female has cheked her vulva for pigmented spots
Should document
- Size – max diameter
- Whether any elevation/nodularity
- Other descriptive features – irreg margins, irreg pigmentation, ulceration etc
Should always do FSE and document;
- Any other concerning lesions
- Estimate of total number of naevi
- Estimate of number of atypical naevi if any
- Presence of any congenital naevi
- Examination of LNs
152
Q

What do smartphone apps for moles offer?

A 
functions include; 
information
education 
classification
risk assessment
monitoring change 
Reminders to self examine
in some cases automated or remote dermatological diagnosis
153
Q

What are drawbacks of smartphone apps for moles?

A

Mostly not evidence based
May not be reliable – mostly low sensitivity and specificity esp if automated
cannot perform comparative analysis or grade naevus atypia
only assesses the lesions which have already been designated as the lesions of concern
cost to patient

154
Q

What are drawbacks of teledermatology for mole chacking?

A

only assesses the lesions which have already been designated as the lesions of concern (Pts often overlook lesions in areas they cannot see or genital areas)
Non melanoma skin cancers may be detected by dermo at FSE but missed by telederm
Does not allow the identification of the ‘ugly duckling’ or familiarity w/ a pts ‘signature naevi’
Photo factors may affect assessment

155
Q

What new technologies are available for melanoma detection?

A

Dermatoscopy
Total body photography
Confocal microscopy
Multispectral imaging/SIAscopy – SIAscope, Molemate, Melafind
Electrical impedance spectroscopy device e.g. Nevisense
Smartphone Apps/ telemedicine

156
Q

T/F

combination IHC stains may help differentiate melanoma from benign naevus

A

T

157
Q

What is a triple negative melanoma?

A

BRAF/NRAS/KIT wild type

158
Q

T/F

BRAF mutations seen in up to 50% of melanomas

A

T

159
Q

T/F

BRAF mutations dont occur in benign naevi

A

F

common

160
Q

T/F

Comparative genomic hybridization may help differentiate melanoma from benign naevus

A

T

80-90% sensitive for melanoma and 80-90% specific

161
Q

T/F

FISH is highly sensitive in detecting melanoma but not very specific

A

F
sensitivity in order of 80-100%
specificity of approx 95% for distinguishing MM from naevi

162
Q 
T/F
The standard 4 probe FISH assay for MM Vs naevus looks at the following locations and associated genes;
6p25 – RREB1
6q23 - MYB
11q13 – CCND1
Centromere 6 – CEP6
A

T

163
Q

T/F

Sunscreen use can prevent melanoma

A

T

164
Q

T/F

Pts with sun sensitive skin phenotypes are most likely to use sun protection measures

A

T

165
Q

What are margins for melanoma?

A

In situ – 5mm margin (Bolognia recommends 1cm margins for LM of face if >1.5cm diameter due to increased risk of local recurrence)
Up to 1mm thick – at least 1cm margin
1.01-2mm thick – 1-2cm margin (2 preferred)
2.01-4mm thick – >2cm margin
>4mm thick – >2cm (some still say >3cm)

166
Q

What is a field effect in melanoma?

A

scattered atypical melanocytes away from the maintumour bulk

often occurs in LMM but can be any type of MM

167
Q

T/F

30% of LM progress to invasive melanoma LMM

A

False

5%

168
Q

T/F

desmoplastic melanoma may arise in a LM

A

True
most nodules will be just invasive MM but should query desmoplastic on path form
LM is more likely to give rise to radial growth phase MM than nodular

169
Q

T/F

In LM atypical melanocytes may involve hair follicle epithelium (outer root sheath)

A

T

170
Q

T/F

LM has high recurrence rate

A

T
8-20%
take wider margin if possible

171
Q

T/F

second line treatemnt for LM which cannot be excised is always XRT

A

F
not clear XRT used so is immiquimod
cryo can be used if palliative

172
Q

T/F

Grenz rays are suitable for LM

A

F
do not penetrate deep enough to get follicular extension
use superficial XRT

173
Q

How is LM terated with immiquimod?

A

Need at least 6 days per week for at least 10 weeks (60 treatments minimum) – 12 weeks suggested
Go at least 1-2cm beyond clinical edge of lesion if possible
adding Tazarotene may give better results
Must take multiple post Rx biopsies and follow up very closely
BAD guidance is to use only within a clinical trial

174
Q

T/F

immiquimod is useful for any melanoma in situ

A

False

only for LM

175
Q

How does desmoplastic melanoma behave differently to other types?

A

Local recurrence risk higher than other types of MM
Lower nodal recurrence rate than other MMs
Similar risk of mets to other MMs but seem to metastasize less than expected given depth at diagnosis

176
Q

Why is desmoplastic MM hard to diagnose?

A

Often amelanotic pink/red scar-like nodule clinically
On Histo Stromal change is more obvious and may only be a few malignant melanocytes
but often has associated lymphoid aggregates – important clue!
If any suspicion get pathologist to do S100 to show up the atypical spindle shaped melanocytes

177
Q

T/F

PREVALENCE of Acral lentiginous melanoma similar across all ethnic groups

A

True

but accounts for 50% of MM in dark skin types and only 10% of MM in caucasians

178
Q

T/F

Hutchinson’s sign is commonly seen in nail matrix melanomas

A

False
classical presentation is uncommon! Many subungual MMs are hypopigmented or amelanotic – often present as progressive destruction of a nail beginning proximally – MUST BIOPSY matrix

179
Q

T/F

Mucosal melanomas are often amelanotic

A

T

35%

180
Q

T/F

Mucosal melanomas are often cKIT mutation +ve

A

T

40%

181
Q

T/F

Mucosal melanomas often present at a late stage

A

T

182
Q

Where should you look if a melanoma presents with liver mets?

A

must assess eyes as ocular MM metastasize to liver first in most cases

183
Q

T/F

Advanced stage melanomas from an unknown primary may have a better prognosis than those from a known primary

A

T

184
Q

What is the approach to melanoma mets from unknown primary?

A

Try to locate primary – FSE, genital, perianal/proctoscopy, ophthalmology review
Most pts can recall a pigmented lesion which has resolved or have a depigmented macule somewhere in skin draining to the affected LN basin
Assess for disease extent – examine LNs and for hepatosplenomegaly, CT chest, abdo, pelvis and head
Treat as per stage – usually by surgeons and oncologists eg if only one LN basin involved should stage as stage III and perform LN dissection

185
Q

T/F

melanoma in pregnancy has poor outcomes

A

F

No evidence of worse outcome of pregnancy or melanoma for mother or baby directly from MM

186
Q

How is Breslow thickness emasured?

A

Measure from granular layer to deepest invasive malignant melanocytes using an ocular micrometer

187
Q

T/F
At diagnosis lesions within 2 cm of the primary melanoma are termed satellite lesions – lesions occurring >2cm from the primary are in transit mets

A

T

188
Q

T/F
A recurrence within 2cm of the primary is called a local recurrence but usually it is in fact an in transit metastasis rather than direct extension of the primary tumour – lesions occurring >2cm from the primary are in transit mets

A

T

189
Q

When and how is melanoma staging investigation indicated?

A

SLNB for stage 1B if tumour 0.76mm or more (some say alos 1A if this deep)
For stage 3 and above (nodes involved)
CT with contrast of chest and abdo and CXR (as baseline) and LFTs and LDH
If stage 4 disease suspected or diagnosed or any new neurology should CT the brain as well

190
Q

T/F

High serum LDH confers worse prognosis in stage 4 melanoma (metastatic)

A

T

Not of proven use in earlier disease

191
Q

T/F

Stage 1A melanoma corresponds to a T1a tumour with no spread

A

T

192
Q

T/F

Stage 1B melanoma corresponds to a T1b tumour with no spread

A

T
T1b is 1.0mm deep or less + one of ulceration, >1 mitoses per mm2 or Clark level 4 or 5
but can also be a T2a tumour - 1.01-2mm thick without ulceration

193
Q

What are the tumour stages of melanoma TNM staging?

A 
Tx = primary cannot be assessed e.g. severely regressed or curetted
T0 = primary tumour not identified
Tis = melanoma in situ
T1 = melanoma 1mm thick or less
T2 = melanoma 1.01-2mm thick
T3 = melanoma 2.01-4mm thick
T4= melanoma >4mm thick
a if not ulcerated, b if ulcerated
194
Q

T/F

In transit mets form part of LN staging for melanoma

A

T
N2c = in transit mets w/out local node involvement.
corresponds with at least stage IIIb disease
40-70% 5 year survival depending on primary depth, ulceration etc

195
Q

What are tumour stages and 5 year survival figures for stage I and II melanoma?

A 
0	Tis	               100%
IA	T1a	                97%
IB	T1b or T2a	93%
IIA	T2b or T3a	80%
IIB	T3b or T4a	70%
IIC	T4b	         	53%
196
Q

T/F
high expression of FOXP3 is an independent (of Breslow thickness) marker of increased risk of disease progression of melanoma

A

T

197
Q

T/F

BRAF mutations in early melanomas (I-III) are associated with better melanoma specific survival esp the V600E mutation

A

False

poorer survival

198
Q

When should SLNB be offered?

A

Should be offered to clinically node negative pts Tumour stage T1b or above; i.e.
tumour >1mm thick (especially this group)
Tumour 1mm or less (0.76mm or more) but has ulceration Or >1 mitoses per mm2 Or if not ulcerated and mitotic rate cannot be determined tumour is Clarks level 4 or 5
Note - some recommend offering SLNB even for 1A tumours of 0.76mm or more

199
Q

T/F

SLNB has no effect on disease specific survival proven from trials so far

A

T
but it can offer some prognostic information
For intermediate thickness melanomas (1.2-3.5mm) 5 year survival if node positive on SNB is 75% but is 90% if node negative

200
Q

T/F
The presence or absence of micromets as determined by SNB (in clinically node negative pts) is required for accurate Node staging

A

T

201
Q

T/F

SNB followed by urgent completion lymphadenectomy may have a survival benefit in some patients

A

T

202
Q

What is the complication rate of SLNB?

A

5-10% of pts get complications
mostly minor; seroma, infection most common
lymphoedema v rare

203
Q

T/F
lymphadenectomy for +ve SLNB has fewer complications than LN dissection performed when there is clinically evident LN involvement

A

T

204
Q

T/F

Small sentinel LN deposits

A

T

205
Q

T/F

SLNB is +ve in up to 5% of melanomas

A

T

206
Q

T/F

pts with histologic regression are more likely to have positive SLNB

A

F

less likely

207
Q

T/F

USS +/- FNA can be offered as an alternative to SLNB

A

T

208
Q

T/F

most melanoma recurrence is found by pts in between f/u

A

T

75% of recurrences in Aus are pt detected

209
Q

T/F

1st year after diagnosis is highest risk period for another melanoma

A

T

Young pts under 40 are at highest risk of another melanoma

210
Q

T/F

Most second melanomas occurs at same body site as first

A

T

211
Q

T/F

In the case of positive LNs should stage prior to LN dissection to exclude widely metastatic disease

A

T

Also do biomarker testing for V600 BRAF mutations

212
Q

T/F

Melanoma lung and soft tissue mets are more responsive to chemo than CNS or liver mets

A

T

213
Q

T/F

Desmoplastic melanomas should have adjuvant XRT after WLE

A

T

214
Q

T/F

XRT in melanoma used for locoregional disease not amenable to surgery

A

T

also used for palliation e.g. bone mets

215
Q

T/F
Adjuvant XRT to LNs after excision results in reduced morbidity and reduced LN relapse but no improvement in overall survival demonstrated so far

A

T

is recommended in some countries guidelines now

216
Q

T/F

Dacarbazine is standard of care chemo for melanoma

A 
F
No longer first line
about 10% response rate - usually partial
Median response duration 8 months
Has not been shown to prolong survival
217
Q

Which drugs are BRAF inhibitors?

A

Vemurafenib (Zelboraf)
Dabrafenib (Tafinlar)
Both have ‘raf’ and ‘nib’ in the name

218
Q

Which drugs are MEK inhibitors?

A

Trametinib (Mekinist)
Cobimetanib
Both have ‘met’ and ‘nib’ in the name

219
Q

What kind of drug is Ipalimumab (Yervoy)?

A

Fully humanized mAb against the T-cell antigen CTLA-4 (cytotoxic T-lymphocyte associated antigen 4)
name contains ‘lim’ for lymphocyte and ‘umab’ for human monoclonal antibody

220
Q

Which drugs are antibodies against programmed death 1 receptor PD1?

A

Pembrolizumab (Keytruda)
Nivolumab
Lambrolizumab
all have ‘ol’ and ‘umab’ in the name

221
Q

What is the first line treatment for unresectable BRAF mutation +ve metastatic melanoma?

A 
Dabrafenib + Trametinib 
Combi Rx improves progression-free survival and alters adverse effect profile of dabrafenib w/ higher risk of fever (Mx w/ low dose steroids and dose reduction) and lower incidence of skin AEs;
Much lower SCC risk
Much lower verrucal keratosis risk
Much lower Grover’s disease disease risk
Increased folliculitis
Other AEs at similar rates
222
Q

What is the first line treatment for unresectable BRAF wild type metastatic melanoma?

A

Ipalimumab

223
Q

What is the second line treatment for unresectable BRAF mutation +ve metastatic melanoma?

A

Pembrolizumab (Keytruda)
In Aus available on PBS as 2nd line for unresectable stage 3 or 4 melanoma which has progressed following Rx with a BRAF inhibitor w/ or w/out a MEK inhibitor (pts must have V600 mutation)

224
Q

What are the skin side effects of BRAF inhibitors?

A

Grover’s disease, Acneiform eruptions, AKs, SCC, Photosensitvity, keratosis pilaris, cysts, folliculitis, alopecia, plantar hyperkeratosis, verrucal keratosis, verruca vulgaris, vitiligo, panniculitis, Cymotrichous (wavy hair)

225
Q

T/F

4-14% of melanoma pts get in transit mets

A

T

226
Q

T/F

Local melanoma recurrence often still has a good prognosis

A

F
is strongly predictive of development of in transit, regional or distant mets
Pts usually get local LN involvement either concurrently or eventually
Rarely pts get in transit Dx for years w/out LN spread

227
Q

T/F

In transit mets on a limb can be distal to the site of the original tumour

A

T
although usuallly proximal
anywhere >2cm from tumour site designated in transit mets

228
Q

What are the Rx options for in transit mets?

A

Excision if small and small number; aim for clear margins with curative intent and perform SLNB
Isolated limb perfusion if limb recurrences cannot be surgically controlled – usually Melphalan +/- TNF which may increase efficacy. Sometimes use dacarbazine or fotemustine
Isolated limb Infusion - less invasive procedure; Uses Melphalan and Actinomycin D
CO2 laser if numerous small mets
XRT can be used for disease not controlled by other methods
Intralesional BCG
Intralesional IFNalpha
Topical immiquimod
DPCP topical immunotherapy

229
Q

What is the risk of missing an invasive melanoma if only a partial biopsy of lentigo maligna is taken?

A

about 20%

best to take one or multiple shaves

Medical Derm Revision (51 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions