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MSRA > Medicine - Random > Flashcards

Medicine - Random Flashcards

1
Q

Osler weber Rendau syndrome

A

Heredirary hemorrghagic telagentasia

  1. epistaxis/bleeds
  2. visercal AVMs
  3. Telangectasia
  4. First degree relative with condition
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2
Q

HOCM inheritance pattern

A

Autosomal dominent

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3
Q

Organism that causes pneumonia following an influenxa infection

A

Staph aureas

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4
Q

Donovanosis

A

Donovanosis, also known as granuloma inguinale, is a bacterial infection of the genital region caused by Klebsiella granulomatis. It is chronic and progressive and causes genital ulcers.

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5
Q

Genital ulcer with ragged edges

A

Chancroid

PAINFUL

tropical disease caused by Haemophilus ducreyi

(also associated with painful unilateral lymhadenopathy)

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6
Q

Painless genital ulcer with smooth edges and base that spontaneously resolves

A

Chancre (syphilis)

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7
Q

Lymphogranuloma venereum stages

A

Lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV) is caused by Chlamydia trachomatis. Typically infection comprises of three stages
stage 1: small painless pustule which later forms an ulcer
stage 2: painful inguinal lymphadenopathy
stage 3: proctocolitis

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8
Q

What cancers is dermatomyositis associated with?

A

Lung and breast

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9
Q

What antibiodies is Srojens associated with

A

Anti Ro/La

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10
Q

Antibodies associated with CREST/systemic sclerorsis

A

Anti-centromere

Also diffuse systemic scelosis: Anti SCl 70

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11
Q

What is classed as a mild flare of UC?

A

Up to 4 loose stools /day
Nil systemic upset
Small amount of blood

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12
Q

What is classed as a moderate flare of UC

A

4-6 motions /da
Variable amount of blood
nil systemic upset

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13
Q

What is classed as a severe flare of UC

A

> 6 bloody motions per day
Systemuc upset

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14
Q

Treating mild-to-moderate ulcerative colitis: proctitis

A

topical (rectal) aminosalicylate: for distal colitis rectal mesalazine has been shown to be superior to rectal steroids and oral aminosalicylates

if remission is not achieved within 4 weeks, add an oral aminosalicylate

if remission still not achieved add topical or oral corticosteroid

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15
Q

Treating mild-to-moderate ulcerative colitis proctosigmoiditis and left-sided ulcerative colitis

A

topical (rectal) aminosalicylate

if remission is not achieved within 4 weeks, add a high-dose oral aminosalicylate OR switch to a high-dose oral aminosalicylate and a topical corticosteroid

if remission still not achieved stop topical treatments and offer an oral aminosalicylate and an oral corticosteroid

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16
Q

Treating mild-to-moderate ulcerative colitis. extensive disease

A

topical (rectal) aminosalicylate and a high-dose oral aminosalicylate:

if remission is not achieved within 4 weeks, stop topical treatments and offer a high-dose oral aminosalicylate and an oral corticosteroid

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17
Q

What DMARD is not recommended for UC treatment but is second line for maintaining remission in Crohns

A

Methotrexate

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18
Q

When would you give ABx prophylaxis for SBP?

A

Ascites and (<15g of protein)

Would have ciproflox as prophylaxis

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19
Q

Treatment for severe campylobacter infection

A

Clarithromycin

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20
Q

Heamochromatosis inheritance pattern

A

Autosomal recessive

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21
Q

What maliganacies is EBV infection liked to

A

Hodgkins lymphoma
Burkitts lymphoma
Nasopharygneal CA

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22
Q

BBPV - which maneouvre is diagnostic and which is treatment?

A

Dix - Hallpike - DIAGNOSTIC
Eply - TREATMENT

‘dix to diagnose, epley to end’

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23
Q

Liver failure clotting factors

A

In liver failure, all clotting factors are low except for factor VIII which is supra-normal. Both PT and APTT can be prolonged.

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24
Q

Caplans syndrome

A

Pulmonary fibrosis seen in RA and coal/asbestos exposure that forms nodules on CXR that can cavitate

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25
Q

Drug induced lupus antibody

A

Anti-histone

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26
Q

Dermatomyositis antibody

A

Anti-Mi2

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27
Q

Scleroderma/CREST syndrom antibody

A

Anti-centromerre

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28
Q

Scleroderma antibody

A

Anti-topoisomerase 1

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29
Q

Max age for BCG vaccination

A

35years

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30
Q

Serum test for anaphylaxis

A

Serum tryptase (can remain high for up to 12 hours)

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30
Q

De mussets signs

A

Aortic regurgitiation - head bobbing in time with pulse

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31
Q

Early diastotlic murmur

A

Aortic regurgitation

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32
Q

Collapsing pulse

A

Aortic reguritation

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33
Q

Scan for renal artery stenosis

A

Digital subtraction angiography

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34
Q

Pataltial petichae associated with what disease?

A

Glandular fever

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35
Q

Travellers diarrhoea microorganism and ABx treatment

A

E coli
Clarithromycin

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36
Q

Salmonella gastroenteritis ABx treatmnet

A

Ciprofloxacin

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37
Q

Hiccups in palliative care meds

A

chlorpromazine or haloperidol

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38
Q

Which PPI reduces the effect of clopidogrel?

A

Omeprazole (inhibits CYP2C19)

Lansoprazole or pantoprazole is fine

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39
Q

Amyloidosis diagnosis

A

CT scan and Biopsy and Congo red staining of affected tissue (will also be red-green birifringence under polarised lihgt)

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40
Q

Crypt abscesses found more commonly in which IBD

A

UC

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41
Q

Duodenal ulcer pain releived by what

A

Eating
Pain often after eating and releived with eating

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42
Q

Gastric ulcer pain classically

A

after meals

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43
Q

Triceps reflex nerve roots

A

C7-C8

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44
Q

Ankle reflex nerve roots

A

S1-S2

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45
Q

Organophosphate poisoning treatment

A

e.g sarine gas

Treatment is atropine

Features can be predicted by the accumulation of acetylcholine (mnemonic = SLUD)
Salivation
Lacrimation
Urination
Defecation/diarrhoea

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46
Q

Fasting glucose level needed for diagnosis of diabetes

A

> 7.0

If symptomatic - one off is enough for diagnosis

If asymptomatic - two readings needed

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47
Q

Impaired fasting glucose level

A

6.1 -7.0

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48
Q

Which herpes virus is oral lesions

A

Oral lesion - HSV 1 (1 mouth)

Gential lesion - HSV2 (2 balls)

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49
Q

Group A strep/strep pyogenes Ix

A

Anti-streptolysin O tire

To check for strep throat

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50
Q

First line anti spasmodics in MS

A

Baclofen & gabapentin

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51
Q

Tests to diagnose Cushing

A

Overnight dexamethasone suppression test or 24hr urinary cortisol for first diagnosis

Then to determine cause (ie primary or secondary) high dose dexamethsaone suppresion/MRI pituitary/CRH test

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52
Q

HLA b5/51

A

Behcets

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53
Q

microscopic polyangitis antibody

A

p-ANCA

(kidneys and pulm heamorraghe)

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54
Q

Granulomatosis with polangitis antibody

A

c-ANCA

(upper, lower resp trract and kidneys)

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55
Q

R-CHOP regimen for what

A

Non-hodkins lymphoma

rituximab
Cylophophamide
Hydroxydanurubicine
Vincristine
Prednisolone

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56
Q

Treatment for CML

A

Tyrosine kinase inhibitors - imatinib

Curative: stem cell transplant

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57
Q

Treatment of CLL

A

Chloambucil

or Vincristine + cylcophosphomide

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58
Q

Complications of thallaesaemia

A
  • osteporisis/bone beformities
  • defunctioning of pituitaryr (senstive to iron and therefore needs chelating agent)
  • cardiac complications/HF (high OP)
    0 iron overload effecting paceatic function
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59
Q

helmet cells aka

A

shistiocytes

irregular shapes appear as “helmet” cells. Such fragmented RBC’s are known as “schistocytes” and they are indicative of a microangiopathic hemolytic anemia (MAHA) or other cause for intravascular hemolysis.

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60
Q

Fluid signal in MRI

A

hypointense in T1 and hyperintense in T2

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61
Q

gallop rhythm

A

left ventricular heart failure

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62
Q

systolic murmur radiating to axilla

A

mitral regurg

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63
Q

pulsatile hepatomegaly murmur

A

tricuspid incompetence

systolic murrmur

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64
Q

raised JVP with prominent a waves asscociated with murmu

A

tricuspid stenosis

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65
Q

Prizmental angina

A

usually occurs at night
angina because of coronary spasm

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66
Q

Aortic stenosis in children managment

A

Ballon angioplasty (if fails usrgical valve replacement)

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67
Q

rheumatic fever valve issue

A

mitral regurgitation

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68
Q

Histoplasmosis vectorr

A

Bats

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69
Q

common lung CA in non smokers

A

adenocarcinoma

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70
Q

Po2 for COPD patient for considerration of LTOT

A

pO2 < 7. 3

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71
Q

Featuers of asthmatic/steroid responsiveness for COPD

A

any previous, secure diagnosis of asthma or of atopy
a higher blood eosinophil count - note that NICE recommend a full blood count for all patients as part of the work-up
substantial variation in FEV1 over time (at least 400 ml)
substantial diurnal variation in peak expiratory flow (at least 20%)

routine spirometric reversibility testing is not necessary as part of the diagnostic process or to plan initial therapy with bronchodilators or corticosteroids.

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72
Q

paraquat poisoning treatment

A

activated charcol

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73
Q

B blocker OD

A
  • atropine or 2nd line IV glucagon
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74
Q

lemon tinge skin and anaemia

A

b12 and folate def anaemia

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75
Q

Reflex Sympathetic Dystrophy (RSD) Syndrome

A

RSD is an older term used to describe one form of Complex Regional Pain Syndrome (CRPS). Both RSD and CRPS are chronic conditions characterized by severe burning pain, most often affecting one of the extremities (arms, legs, hands, or feet)

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76
Q

sister mary joseph nodule

A

Sister Mary Joseph nodule (sometimes Sister Mary Joseph node or Sister Mary Joseph sign) refers to a palpable nodule bulging into the umbilicus as a result of metastasis of a malignant cancer in the pelvis or abdomen.

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77
Q

Kukenbug tumour

A

Krukenburg tumor is a metastatic malignancy of the ovary characterized by mucin-rich signet-ring adenocarcinoma that primarily arises from a gastrointestinal site in most cases

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78
Q

pulses paradoxus causes

A

cardiac tamponade and severe asthma

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79
Q

pulse associated with aortic regurg

A

collapsing/waterhammer pulse

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80
Q

Drug induced lupus HLA

A

HLA -D2
Anti histone

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81
Q

Parotid tumour histopolgy

A

Pleomorphic adenoma

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82
Q

Most aggressive thyroid Ca

A

Anaplastic cacinoma

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83
Q

Mccun albright syndrom

A

precocious puberty
bone issues
unilateral cafe au lait spots

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84
Q

which laxative do you NOT use in IBS

A

laculose

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85
Q

Glan inflammation and granulomas on historology from a scope indicate what

A

UC

Chrons is gronulomata and non gland inflammation

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86
Q

herceptin name

A

trastuzumab

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87
Q

endometrial CA after treatment for breast CA

A

Tamoxifen

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88
Q

Membranous nephropathy is associated with what

A

adenocarcinoma of the stomach

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89
Q

Features of OA on XR

A

L - loss of joint space
O- Osteophytes
S - Sunchorndal cysts
S - Subchrondral sclerorsis

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90
Q

Features of RA on XR

A

L - loss of joint space
E - erosions
S - Subluxation
S - Soft tissue swelling

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91
Q

pencil in cup deformity on XR associated with?

A

Psoaritic arthritis

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92
Q

Wolff Parkinson Whit ECG findings

A

Delta wave
SHORT PR INTERVAL

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93
Q

QT in hypocalcaemia

A

prolonged

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94
Q

methanol poision sx

A

blindness

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95
Q

Autoimmune hepatitis Ab

A

Anti smooth muscle antibodies

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96
Q

MEN 2

A

RET oncogene

Medullary thyroid CA and pheocytochroma

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97
Q

MEN 1

A

MEN1 onco gene

parathyroid ca
pituitary ca

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98
Q

hyperactive/tinkling bowel sounds

A

small nowel obstruction

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99
Q

influenza virus

A

orthomyxovirus

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100
Q

viral warts virus

A

papovirus

HPV 6

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101
Q

when to treat subclinical hypothryoidism

A

do not usually treat (just monitor) on the basis of one blood test

Can treat is
- other autoimmune disease
- prev graves
- TSH >10
- positive antibodies

102
Q

India ink +ve in HIV

A

crytpococcus

103
Q

most common type of renal stone

A

calcium oxalate

104
Q

viral and bacterial pathogens of acute otitis media

A

virral - rsv

bacterial - strep pneumonia, hem influenzae & moxarrlla cathheralis

105
Q

malignant otitis externa organisma

A

psueodomonas arguinosa

106
Q

Cortisol/steroid effect on potassium

A

HYPOkalaemia

107
Q

Antihypertensive drugs that worsen glycaemic control

A

B blocker & THIAZIDE diuretics

108
Q

first line for heavy menstrual bleeding

A

ONCE PATHOLOGY HAS BEEN RULED OUT

1st: IUS
2nd pharmacological such as NSAIDs/tranexamic

109
Q

Adenosine SE

A

flushing, bronchospasm, chest pain

110
Q

Live vaccines

A

BCG
MMR
Polio
Rotavirus

flu

travel:
yellow fever
thypoid

111
Q

What does the posterior pituitary secrete

A

oxytocin & ADH

112
Q

What does the anterior pituitarysecrete

A

LH, FSH, GH, ACTH, TSH, prolactin

113
Q

Sore throat ABx

A

phenoxymethylpenicillin

114
Q

Cat scratch disease

A

bacterial ifection (bartonella) effecting LN that drain the site of incolulation can cause chronic lymphadenopathy

115
Q

when is a raised trop maximally accurate

A

12 hours

116
Q

nictotine replacement therapy

A

bupoprion or varenclecine

117
Q

Laxative in pall care

A

Stimulants such as co-danthramer/metochlopramide

co-danthramer can stain urine red

118
Q

Erysipilus organism

A

Strep pyognes

119
Q

Frontal balding, cataracts, musel weakness

A

myotonic dystrophy

120
Q

causes of gingival hypertrophy

A

ciclosporin, pheytoin and CCBs

121
Q

Steroids in order of strength

A

mild- hydrocort
moderatate - betnovate dilute & eumovate
potent - betnovate higher strength
Highly potent - dermovate

122
Q

Rubella, measles, scarlet fever, chicken pox, mumps exclusion from school

A

rubella - 6 d from onset of rash
Measles- 5 d from onset rash
scarrlet fever - 24hrs after Abx (penicillin)
Chicken pox - 5d from rash
mumps - 5 d from swollen glands

Others inc foot and mouth - nil exclusion if child well

123
Q

Rockerbottam feet - genetic disorrde

A

edwards chromosome 18

124
Q

Difference between neurological manifestations of wernickes, hepatic encephalopathy & wilsons

A

wernickes - cerebellat signs : nystagmus, ataxia, cofusion, opthamoplegia

HE - personality changes, reduced levles of conciousness and intellectual impairment

wilsons - behavioural changes, depression and asymmetrical tremor

125
Q

Estimate weight of child formula

A

(age + 4) x2

126
Q

up to what age do you do chest compressions in a ratio of 15:2

A

12 years

127
Q

emeregency fluid bolus calculation in children

A

10ml/kg

128
Q

What Ix for devopmental dysplasia of hip for Ix with US and XR

A

<6 months - ultrasound
>6 months - XR

129
Q

pomphylox

A

puritic vesicles on palms fingers and soles

130
Q

DIscoid xcema

A
  • coin shaped
  • start as itchy vesicles/papules
  • ooze serum & crust over
  • on extensor serfaces of extremities and buttocks
  • Appear heal and reappear at the same sites
131
Q

what lipid lowering therapy can be used in pregnancy ?

A

NONE!!!

sometimes resins/nile sequestrants can be considered

132
Q

what abx can be used topically for rosacea

A

metronidazole

133
Q

what malignancies other than mesoothelioma can asbestos cause

A

lung carcinoma
gastrointestinal lymphoma renal adenocarcinoma

134
Q

antigliadin Ab

A

ceoliac disease

along side anti TTG & anti endomysial

135
Q

variation in size of breast lump with periods

A

breast cyst

136
Q

which staph organism is associated with UTIs in young fit and health women

A

Staph saprophyticus

137
Q

PKU features

A

Usually present within first yeat

behavioral difficulties
mousy/musty aroma
lighter colouring - fairer with blue eyes compaired to others in fam
learning disability

138
Q

Maple syrup urine disease

A

encephalopathy and progressiveneurodegeneration usually withing fist weeks of life

sweet odour of maple syrup in sweat and urine

139
Q

homocysteinuia

A

marfaniod features

CNS< MSK and CVS effected

140
Q

normal anion gap and calculation

A

12-17

(Na + K) - (HCO3 - CL)

141
Q

When would you not give anti D to someone who was rhesus -ve and had or was threatened miscarriage

A

if the miscarrage was <12 weeks

142
Q

MCR breathlessness vs modified MCR breathlessness (GOLD)

A
143
Q

H pylori associated with what cadiac issue

A

coronaritis - inflammatorion of coronary artereies

144
Q

Cyst with punctum

A

sebaceous cyst

145
Q

what CA is asbestosis most likley to cause

A

Lung CA

!!! not mesothelioma !!!

146
Q

what is the commonest cause of failure to thrive in teh UK

A

Non-organic causess - e.g. social etc

147
Q

when is the UK breast screening programme

A

3 yearly mammogams 50-70

148
Q

Where would a cystic hygroma be?

A

Posterior triangle of the neck

149
Q

MRC grades of muscle power

A

0 - nil
1 - flickers of muscle contraction
2 - active movement - some
3 - movement against gravity
4 - movement against resistance
5 - normal

150
Q

What is used to classify CKD

A

eGFR (using MDRD equation) and ACR

151
Q

most common cause of post coital bleeding

A

cervical ectropion

152
Q

paraneoplastic sydromes related to small cell lung ca and squamous cell lung ca

A

small cell
- SIADH
- ATCH secretion & cushiod reaction
- lambert eaton myasthenic syndrome

squamous cell
- PTHrP secretion and hypercalcaemia

153
Q

What common drug reacts with azathioprine to cause myelosuppression

A

ACE i & azathioprine = myelosuppression

anaemia and severe leukopenia

154
Q

E coli is what on gram stain

A

Gram negative

155
Q

Stage 1,2,3 HTN values

A

Stage 1: Clinic BP >140/90 or ABPM >135/85
Stage 2: Clinic BP >160/100 or ABPM >150/95
Stage 3: Clinic BP >180 systolic or over 120 diastolic

156
Q

Listeria antibiotics

A

amoxicillin and gentamycin

The treatment of choice for bacterial meningitis caused by LM remains amoxicillin, ampicillin or penicillin G,

157
Q

Toxoplasmosis organism and treatment

A

protozan

Spiramycin is a macrolide antibiotic and antiparasitic. It is used to treat toxoplasmosis and various other infections of soft tissues

can be given spriamycin in pregnancy or babies pyrimethamine & sulfaiazine)

158
Q

dapsone uses

A

Dapsone is used to treat leprosy (Hansen’s disease) and to help control dermatitis herpetiformis, a skin problem

sulpha ABx

159
Q

Pyrazinamide SE

A

gout/joint issues

160
Q

Discribe what the notation 6/6 and 12/6 means in Snellen charts

A

12/6 - someone can read at 6 metrres what people with normal eyesight can read at 12

161
Q

most common cause of septic arthritis

A

staph aureas

162
Q

commonest cause of heavy uterine bleeding

A

dysfunctional uterine bleeding

163
Q

Features of salmonella tyhpi in exam questions (typhoid)

A
  • isolated on blood culturres & bone cultures (though specific is painful)
  • blanching tuncal maclopapular rash on trunk
  • Constipation before pea soup diarrhoea
  • peyers patches on bowes that can perforate
  • relative BADYCARDIA and splenomegaly
164
Q

Dengue fever on exams

A
  • facial flushing
  • caused by mosquitoes
  • Serology IgG and IgM
  • thrombocytopenia nad leukopenia
165
Q

inability to straight leg raise in knee trauma

A
  • patellar fracture
  • quadriceps tendon reputure
  • patellar tendon rupture
166
Q

heridary angiooedema

A

low levels of C1 inhibitor

167
Q

Chediak Higashi

A
  • albinism
  • easy bruising
  • recurrent pyogenic infections
168
Q

distended neck veins in cadiac arrest

A

cardiac tampondade

could be from bleeding into pericardium e.g. LV wall rupture

169
Q

what is the max dose of lidocaine with adrernaline that can be administered

A

7mg/kg with adrenaline

3mg/kg of just lidocaine

  • this is because adrrenaline cuases local vascontriction so the LA is more likley to stay in the area and not into the blood stream causing LA toxicity
170
Q

what should not be used in the treatment of primary open angle glaucoma?

A

anti-muscarics that dialate the eye

note even though sympathomimetics may dialate the eye too - they also reduced aqueous humour production and increase drainage

171
Q

Tests for H pylori - ivasive and non invasive

A

Non invasive
- 13C urea breath test
- stool antigen test
- blood antibody test

invastive
- histological biopsy
- CLO test
- microbial culture

have to have stopped PPI 2 weeks before and not have ABX within 4 weeks

172
Q

name for erotomania

A

de cleranbault syndrome

173
Q

name for syndrom when you think you’re dead / dying / nihilistic delusions s

A

Cotards syndrome

174
Q

syndrome when a familiarr person is falsely identified in other

A

Fregoli syndrome

F for fake

175
Q

syndrome when you believe someone you know has been replaced by a stranger who is their exact double

A

capgras syndrome

176
Q

delisuion of infestation with insects

A

Ekholm’s syndrome

177
Q

galeazzi fracture

A

The Galeazzi fracture is a fracture of the middle to distal one-third of the radius associated with dislocation or subluxation of the distal radioulnar joint (DRUJ).

177
Q

fracture common in children falling onto outstrectched hand

A

supracondylar humeral fracture

178
Q

asthenozoospermia

A

reduced sperm molility

Asthen = aspen = skiing = movement

179
Q

azoospermia

A

no sperm

180
Q

hypospermia

A

reduced semen volume

181
Q

oliogospermia

A

low sperm count

182
Q

teratospermia

A

poor sperm morphology

183
Q

formula for plasma osmolarity

A

2Na + urea + glucose

Just add them up but count for sodium twice

184
Q

plasma osmo for HHS and normal range

A

noraml range 284-295

HHS >320

185
Q

Freidreichs Ataxia associated with what

A

Cardiomyopathy

(ataxic gait, pes cavus, scoliosis and muscle weakness)

Most common inheritied axatia iinthe UK

186
Q

fascioscapulohumeral muscular dystrophy

A

progressive difficulty sucking straw/whistling

dominently inherited
progresses from face downward
winging of scapula also seen

187
Q

perennial allergic rhinitis cause/allergen

A

house dust mites

188
Q

hyposensitisation is of benefit with which allergen?

A

Wasp sting anaphylaxis

189
Q

Downs associated with what

A
  • Early onseet alzheimers
  • Endocardial cushion defects
  • hypothyroid
  • T1DM
  • Hirshsprung’s disease
  • ALL
  • ## duodenal atresia
190
Q

most common cause of high Ca

A

primary hyperparathyroidism

191
Q

plummer vinson syndrome

A

v=Plummer-Vinson syndrome is defined by the classic triad of dysphagia, iron-deficiency anemia and esophageal webs.

192
Q

common valve defect in rheumatiod fver

A

mitral stenosis

jones criteria for rheumatic fever

193
Q

What blood group is associated with gastric carcinoma?

A

blood group A

194
Q

Commonest bacterial gastroenteritisi in UK

A

campylobacter

195
Q

opiod that can provoke seizures

A

tramadol

196
Q

neonatal life support after delivery - when to start chest compressions and what ratio

A

HR <60 after 5 rescue breaths etc
Ratio 3:1for 30 sec

197
Q

Common HAP organismsa

A

Pseudomonas
staph aureas
Klebsiella

198
Q

waterhouse friedrickson syndrome

A

disease of adrenals cause by bacteria neisseria meningities

heamorrhage into adrenals and then adrenal insufficiency

199
Q

which of the following cause hypokalaemia and hypernatraemia

Conns
Cushings
Addisons

A

Conns & cushings

ADDISONS CAUSES HYPERKALAEMIA

200
Q

gey membrane ove inflamed pharynx

A

diphtheria

201
Q

Most common cause of meningitis in adults in the UK

A

steptococcus pneumoniae

202
Q

freibergs disease

A

osteochondrosis effecting the toes, comming in 12-13 year old girls
Collapse of2nd or 3rd metatarsal heads

203
Q

When would an innocent murrmur be head

A

SYSTOLE or continuously durinf systole & diastolye

diastoloc mumurs arre always pathological

204
Q

HRT increases the risk of what CA

A

breast and endometrial

205
Q

Gene changes ALL

A

t 4;11

206
Q

Philidelphia chromosome

A

t 9;22

207
Q

Burkitts lypmphoma gene

A

t 8;14

208
Q

Acute promyelocytic leukemia gene

A

t 15;17

treated with retinols

15 &17 y.o. get acne -> retinols -> APML

209
Q

Lichen simplex

A

not a pimary process occurs after repetitive itching

210
Q

Test to test lung function in long standing lung disease

A

Lung diffusion test

  • gas exchange of CO
211
Q

arnold chiari malformaltion

A

herniation of the cerebellum through the foramen magnum

212
Q

Treatment of radiation pneumonitis

A

Prednisolone/steroids

213
Q

footling breech associated with what pregnancy complication

A

cord prolapse

214
Q

buttock first breech presentation

A

extended breech

215
Q

Flexed breech presentation is what

A

mixing of feet and buttocks as presenting part

216
Q

Drugs that can cause aplastic anaemia

A

Chlorampenicol
Phenytoin
Carbemazepine
Quinine

217
Q

Aortic regurgitation features

A
  • Early diastolic murmur
  • Loudest in xpiration
  • Accentuated by leaning forward
  • High pitched
  • nail bed capillary pulseations (Quinke’s sign)
  • Carotid pulsation (corrigans sign)
218
Q

Aortic sclerosis

A

Aortic valve sclerosis is defined as calcification and thickening of a trileaflet aortic valve in the absence of obstruction of ventricular outflow. Its frequency increases with age, making it a major geriatric problem

219
Q

Largyneal pappilomatosis

A

Related to HPV

Laryngeal papillomatosis are benign (noncancerous), wart-like tumors that form inside of your larynx

220
Q

HIV antibody test in children born to HIV +ve mothers timing

A

18 months

221
Q

Polycythemia ruba vera treatment

A

aysypmtomatic - venesection & aspirin
Organospegaly - immunotherapy
Severe - splenectomy

222
Q

primary myelofibrosis treatment

A

immunosupression

223
Q

del castillo syndrome

A

galactorrhea following cessation of hormonal contraception

224
Q

Treatment for autoimmune thrombocytopenia that reduces need for spenectomy

A

Rituxumab reduced need for splenectomy

225
Q

hepatic cysts vs heamangiomas surveillance

A

cysts - USS
haemangioamas - CT scan

226
Q

Kartagners syndrome trias

A

Bronchiectasis, deafneess & infertility

due to dysfunction of cilia

227
Q

tests lymphatic drainage

A

para=aortic nodes

228
Q

Bacterial keratitis organism

A

Pseudomonas aruginosa

229
Q

Drug that can worsen autoimmune hepatitis

A

Interferon (used to treat Hepatitis C)

230
Q

midgut malrotation acute presentation

A

with symptoms of volvulus

231
Q

Hypertension in pregnancy in usually defined as

A

systolic > 140 mmHg or diastolic > 90 mmHg
or an increase above booking readings of > 30 mmHg systolic or > 15 mmHg diastolic

232
Q

difference between Ransons score and modified Glasgow score

A

Ransons only used in ALCHOL induced pacreatitis

Both scoring systems for pancreatitis

233
Q

Tumour markers for germ cell tumours

A

seminomas: seminomas: hCG may be elevated in around 20%
non-seminomas: AFP and/or beta-hCG are elevated in 80-85%
LDH is elevated in around 40% of germ cell tumours

234
Q

Unpasteurised milk/farm working infection

A

Brucellosis

aka mediterranean fever

Really long course of doxy and streptomycin need to treat - approx 6 weeks

235
Q

Cabergoline

A

D2 agoninst used in treatment of prolactinomas and parkinsons

236
Q

amantadine

A

indirect dopamine-releasing action and a direct stimulation of dopamine receptors.

Amantadine, sold under the brand name Gocovri among others, is a medication used to treat dyskinesia associated with parkinsonism

237
Q

Benserazide

A

part of co-carlydopa

peripherial dopa-decarboxylase inhibitor which stops peropheral breakdown of dopamine

238
Q

pericardial calcification

A

constrictive pericarditis

239
Q

framingham score

A

A Framingham score shows the risk of developing heart disease over the next 10 years. T

240
Q

Cancers links to ceoliac disease

A

oesophaeal
small bowel
intestinal lymphoma

NOT colon CA

241
Q

Turcots syndrome

A

Turcot syndrome is the association of primary brain tumors with colorectal cancer. Hereditary non-polyposis colorectal cancer (HNPCC) and familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP) are the 2 most well-known inherited colorectal cancers

242
Q

What starchy foods can ceoliacs each

A

Rice, maize, potatoes, soya products

243
Q

Fasting glucose threshold

A

> 7

244
Q

Random glucose threshold

A

> 11.1

245
Q

OGTT threshold

A

> 11.1

246
Q

Impaired oral glucose tolerance

A

7.8 - 11.1 after glucose. challenge

and fasting <7

247
Q

Criteria to diagnose IBS

A

Rome criteria

248
Q

ACS caused by cocaine - what DO you given and what DONT you give

A

IV Benzos - do give

Dont give b blockers as thought to worsen the coronary spasm

249
Q

What do you replace first - B12 or folate and why?

A

B12

Risk of subacude degeneration of the cord

250
Q

Blood stained breast discharge likely cause

A

Duct papilloma

251
Q
A

MSRA (16 decks)

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