Medicine: Neuro Flashcards

1
Q

Where can the tendon reflex arc be broken?

A
Stretch Receptor
Afferent Pathway
Spinal Cord
Efferent Pathway
Muscle Contraction

Therefore sensory + motor sign

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What can lead to abnormal tone?

A

Reduced: LMN, myopathy, cerebellar

Pyramidal/Spasticity: clasp knife, velocity dependent, directional given away by posture

Extrapyramidal/Rigidity: lead pipe + palpable tremor = cog wheel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What can help you elicit cog wheel rigidity?

A

Froment Manoeuvre

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Where is the lesion if the pt has normal hand function denoted by their lace up shoes but a scissoring gait?

A

T2-12

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What should you look for if the pt has bilateral high stepping gait?

A

Pes Cavus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What would a motor and sensory peripheral neuropathy gait look like?

A

Foot Drop + Stamp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is dystonia?

A

Abnormal interaction b/w agonist and antagonist eg writers cramp and spasmodic torticolis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What should you look for when testing shoulder aBduction?

A

The speed at which they raise their arms and to what height

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How do you test power grip?

A

By pulling it apart w your own NOT by asking them to squeeze your fingers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How do you test the motor function of the ulnar nerve?

A

Stabilise, Observe, Feel

Place their hand on the couch/in yours, do each index/little in turn, apply resistance and feel the muscle bulk w other hand ie first dorsal interosseous/hypothenar eminence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What should you do if there is marked weakness in knee extension/flexion?

A

Swing their knee out and see if they can slide their foot up and down the couch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the additional UMN reflexes?

A

Finger Jerks
Hoffman Sign
Crossed Adductors
Absent Abdo Reflexes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is coordination testing?

A

Finger nose/heel shin - intention tremor and dysmetria

Hand flip/foot tap - break in rhythm (PD) and dysdiadochokinesia (MS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How is the SCM innervated?

A

Ipsilaterally

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

How can you exacerbate the signs on PD?

A

Rigidity: coactivate the contralateral limb by producing voluntary action

Bradykinesia: use big pincers/foot taps and observe for fading out and decline in amplitude

Tremor: place hands on their lap palms down and ask them to recite the mnths backwards w their eyes closed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the MRC scale of grading muscle power?

A

0: None
1: Flicker
2: Along
3: Gravity
4: +/-Weak
5: Normal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

UMN Signs

A
Hypertonic
Weakness
Clonus
Brisk Reflexes
Pos Babibski’s
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

LMN Signs

A
Hypotonic
Weakness
Fasciculations
Dec Reflexes
Neg Babibski’s
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Presenting query stroke

A

Acute onset, time critical, urgent CT as a potential candidate for thrombolysis within 4.5hrs, CIs to thrombolysis, contact stroke team, CTA target for thrombectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Absolute CIs to thrombolysis

A

Uncertain onset, GCS <8, SBP >185 or DBP >110, BM <2.7 or >22, pl <100k, INR >1.7, LMWH within 48h, advanced liver disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Presenting query meningitis

A

Conscious level, signs of meningism, focal neuro, rash, fundoscopy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What can you give before abx when treating bacterial meningitis?

A

Dexamethasone 15-20mins before abx to reduce hearing loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

When would you aim for lower O2 sats around 88-92%?

A

Pts at risk of hypercapnic resp failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What does a low diastolic blood pressure suggest?

A

Arterial vasodilation - anaphylaxis or sepsis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What does a narrow pulse pressure suggest?

A

Arterial vasoconstriction - cardiogenic shock or hypovolaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Does a normal CT scan exclude a stroke?

A

It only excludes a bleed and hence able to thromblyse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

After stabilising meningitic pts where do they go?

A

HDU

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What should you always know when analysing the ABG?

A

How much oxygen the pt is on and also compare to prev gas results

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Spinothalamic Tracts (3)

A

Ant: Crude Touch

Lateral: Pain + Temp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Dorsal Columns (3)

A

Light Touch, Vibration, Proprioception

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Spasicity vs Rigidity

A

Spasicity - unidirectional, velocity dependent, clasp knife phenomenon, umn lesion

Rigidity - all directions, velocity independent, cog wheel and lead pipe, parkinsons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

How can you elicit receptive vs expressive dysphasia?

A

Receptive - ask them to do something

Expressive - what is this, repeat this sentence after me, make your own sentence up about

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What can interfere w dx of receptive dysphasia?

A

Deaf, confused, different language

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is the best way to elicit a cerebellar lesion?

A

Ask the pt to tap out a rhythm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What can interfere w testing dysdiadochokinesia?

A

Parkinson’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Cerebellar Signs in H+N (3)

A

Over/undershooting saccades, nystagmus, slurred staccato speech

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Cerebellar Signs in Limbs (7)

A

Ataxia, difficulty tapping out rhythm, past pointing of nose to finger + knee to toe, dysdiadochokinesia, intention tremor, hypotonia, slow to dampen reflexes due to rebound oscillation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What does the EMG show in cerebellar dysfunction?

A

Triphasic EMG w phases: high first, delayed second, rebound third

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

How do you differentiate b/w sensory and cerebellar ataxia?

A

Check for toe proprioception to inc/exc sensory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What are the nerve roots for each reflex?

A
S1/2 - Ankle
L3/4 - Knee
C5 - Biceps
C6 - Supinator
C7 - Triceps
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

How do you test for the knee jerk if the pt is in an above knee cast?

A

Test by hitting above the knee or anterolateral thigh

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

If you have umn signs in the leg, but normal function of the intrinsic muscles of the hands, where is the lesion confined to?

A

The thoracic spine as C8+T1 must be in tact for hand function and a lesion below L1 would result in LMN signs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

When you say a certain part of the neuro exam was normal what do you mean?

A

Normal for those patient demographics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What are the four broad categories of neuropathy?

A

Motor, Sensory, Motor Sensory, Autonomic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What should you get the pt to do after gait to exacerbate problems?

A

Generally: heel toe walking to remove gait base, hopping, squatting

Specifically: Stand on toes (S1/2 weakness), stand on heels (L4 weakness), great toe dorsiflexion (L5 weakness)

NB: looking to see if they’re the same height on both sides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What should you always ask before any sensory examination?

A

The pt to outline any areas of sensory abnormality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

The three dys of speech

A

Dysphasia (language), dysphonia (voice), dysarthria (articulation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What are the two types of dysphonia?

NB: the pt isn’t breathless

A

Vocal Cord:
aDduction - strained
aBduction - breathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What should you test next after eliciting a hemiparesis of the face, arm and leg? (2)

A

Speech + Sensory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is the premise of the Romberg’s test?

A

You require two of the following to maintain balance whilst standing: proprioception, vestibular function, vision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

How do you elicit the spastic catch in the upper limb?

A

Start distally and attempt: wrist extension, supination, elbow extension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What could give a false neg fhx?

A

Disputed paternity, estrangement, suicide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

How do you test the motor function of the radial, ulnar and median nerves?

A

Wrist extension, finger aBduction, breaking okay sign

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

How do you test the sensory function of the radial, ulnar and median nerves?

A

Dorsal thumb web space, ulnar palmar aspect, median palmar aspect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

At which point on the legs would you expect sx of peripheral neuropathy on the arms?

A

Just above the knees as it is length dependent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

CNS Anatomy

A

Cerebral hemispheres, basal ganglia, cerebellum, spinal cord

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

PNS Anatomy

A

Anterior horn cells, nerve roots inc cauda equina, brachial and lumbosacral plexi, peripheral nerves, NMJ, muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What you say T8 what three different levels can this be referring to?

A

Vertebrae, canal, cord

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What signs do you usually pick up in a pt w MND?

A

UMN: brisk reflexes

LMN: fasciculations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Why do you get wasting in both UMN and LMN lesions?

A

UMN: disuse trophy - not sig

LMN: lack of supply - significant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What is the distribution of weakness in the limbs due to an UMN lesion?

A

Upper Limbs: extension > weaker > flexion

Plus weak shoulder aBductors

Lower Limbs: flexion > weaker > extension

Plus weak hip aBductors and foot eversion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What are important findings from a neuro exam to document?

A

Alert, Oriented, GCS

Facial droop, speaking in full sentences, gait assessment

T - N; P - 5/5; R - equal bilaterally w downgoing plantars; C - N; S - grossly intact in modalities tested

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Which muscle raises the forehead?

A

Frontalis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Where is the damage in receptive + expressive dysphasia?

A

Receptive: Wernicke’s area in the dominant temporal lobe

Expressive: Broca’s area in the dominant frontal lobe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Which muscles are spared in UMN facial weakness?

A

Frontalis + Orbicularis Oculi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Are the CN nuclei UMN or LMN?

A

LMN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Where on the brainstem does each CN nuclei originate?

A

Midbrain: 3+4

Pons: 567

Junction: 8

Medulla: 9-12 and either above/below decussation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Cribriform Plate

A

CN1 + ant ethmoidal nerves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Optic Canal

A

CN2 + ophthalmic artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Superior Orbital Fissure

A

CNs 3-6 + lacrimal nerve, superior ophthalmic vein, branch of the inferior ophthalmic vein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Foramen Rotundum

A

CN5 - Maxillary Branch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Foramen Ovale

A

CN5 - Mandibular Branch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Foramen Spinosum

A

Middle meningeal artery + vein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Internal Acoustic Meatus

A

CN7+8, vestibular ganglion, labyrinthine artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Jugular Foramen

A

CN9-11, jugular bulb, inferior petrosal and sigmoid sinuses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Hypoglossal Canal

A

CN12

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Foramen Magnum

A

CN11, medulla and meninges, vertebral arteries, anterior and posterior spinal arteries, dural veins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Which foramen goes through the ethmoid bone?

A

Cribriform Plate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Which foramen go through the sphenoid bone?

A
Optic Canal
Superior Orbital Fissure
Foramen Rotundum
Foramen Ovale
Foramen Spinosum
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Which foramen go through the petrous part of temporal bone?

A

Internal acoustic meatus and anterior aspect of jugular foramen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Which foramen go through the occipital bone?

A

Posterior aspect of jugular foramen, hypoglossal canal, foramen magnum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

What are the afferent + efferent nerves of the light reflex?

A

Afferent - 2nd

Efferent - 3rd

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

What are the respective actions produced from C5-T1?

A

aBduction C5
aDduction C7

Biceps C5-6
Triceps C7-8

Extensor Carpi Radialis C6
Extensor Carpi Ulnaris C7

Fingers + Thumb C8-T1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What causes a mixed UMN and LMN picture? (2)

A

MND + spinal cord pathology that also affects the anterior horn cells i.e. UMN below and LMN at level

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

When does vertebrae pathology switch from UMN -> LMN signs in the legs?

A

L1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

What are the sinister causes of a headache?

A

VIVID: vascular, infection, vision threatening, raised ICP, carotid dissection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

What examination can you do to distinguish central vs peripheral vertigo?

A

HiNTs: head impulse, nystagmus, skew

88
Q

How is BPPV dx + tx?

A

Dx: Dix-Hallpike Test

Tx: Epley Manoeuvre

89
Q

What ix can you carry out for a suspected TIA w/o delaying transport to hosp? (2)

A

Glucose + ECG

90
Q

Tx for a suspected TIA

A

If within last week give aspirin 300mg immediately and arrange urgent assessment by specialist unless: contraindicated, on low dose regularly, bleeding disorder

91
Q

Raised ICP: Cushing’s Reflex

A

Inc BP
Dec HR
Irregular Breathing

92
Q

Ddx for Raised ICP (5)

A

Meningitis/Encephalitis/Abscess, Cerebral Oedema, Hydrocephalus, Haemorrhage, Tumour

93
Q

What are the different types of jerking?

A

Chorea, Myoclonic, Tics

94
Q

What is the early sign of papilloedema?

A

Loss of venous pulsation at the optic disc

95
Q

What makes back pain an emergency?

A

Loss of bladder function

96
Q

What should you always measure whilst performing a LP?

A

Opening Pressure

97
Q

Ddx of Foot Drop

A

Common peroneal, sciatic, L5, CMT, MND, glioblastoma

98
Q

Cauda Equina vs Conus Medullaris

A

CE: dec tone, dec reflexes, downgoing plantars

CM: inc tone, dec reflexes, upgoing plantars

Both have saddle anaesthesia, bladder/bowel dysfunction, erectile dysfunction

99
Q

Ix for GBS

A

Bedside: thorough neuro exam, spirometry 4hrly, ECG

Bloods: FBC, U+Es, LFTs, CRP, ESR, Glucose, ABG (T2RF)

Imaging: CXR, LP (inc protein + normal WCC), nerve conduction studies (slow)

100
Q

Ddx of Parkinson’s Disease

A

Depression + Essential Tremor

Plus Syndromes: MSA (autonomic insufficiency), PSP (loss of vertical gaze), CBD (alien limb), LBD (fluctuating cognition)

Secondary: vascular, drug induced, toxins, trauma, CNS infection

Young Pts: Wilsons, Huntingtons, dopa-responsive dystonia

101
Q

What can a DaT scan be helpful in distinguishing between?

A

PD vs essential tremor, vascular, drug induced

102
Q

Mx of PD

A

Consrv: MDT and carers, postural exercises and wt lifting, monitor mood and BP

Medical: predominantly used for sx control, start levodopa and carbidopa early, dopamine agonists if <70yrs as it has more non-motor SEs, MAO-BI/COMT inhibitors

Surgical: ablation and deep brain stimulation are only short term solutions and don’t prevent disease progression

103
Q

What are CIs for taking levodopa? (3)

A

Psychosis, Glaucoma, MAO-AI

104
Q

How can you give parkinson’s medications if the pt is NBM?

A

Use a NGT with L-dopa dose in dispersible form OR rotigotine patch at equivalent dose

105
Q

What is the genetic basis of Huntington’s disease?

A

Expansion of CAG repeat on chr4

106
Q

Headache Red Flags

A
Papilledema
Seizures
Focal Neuro
Cancer/HIV
Visual Disturbance
Postural Change
Pregnancy
N+V
Vasculitis
Diabetes
Worsening
AM Sx
107
Q

What is the typical pt w idiopathic intracranial hypertension?

A

Obese female in her 3rd decade who presents with: signs of raised ICP, narrowed visual fields, blurred vision, sixth nerve palsy, enlarged blind spot

108
Q

Mx of IIH

A

Consrv: neuro-ophthalmology input + optimise wt

Medical: acetazolamide/topiramate, loop diuretics, prednisolone

Surgical: optic nerve decompression + CSF shunting

109
Q

What are the triggers for a migraine?

A
Chocolate
Hangovers
Orgasms
Cheese/Caffeine
Oral Contraceptives
Lie Ins
Alcohol
Travel
Exercise
110
Q

What is the diagnostic criteria for a migraine w/o aura?

A

> =5 Headaches lasting 4-72h AND N+V AND any two of: unilateral, pulsating, impairs routine activity

111
Q

Tx of Migraine

A

Prophylactic: propranolol 40-120mg/12h or topiramate 25-50mg/12h

Attacks: warm/cold pack, rebreathing into paper bag, oral triptan combined w paracetamol/NSAID

112
Q

What considerations must you consider with topiramate?

A

Teratogenic + Dec Pill Efficacy

113
Q

What is the typical pt w cluster headaches?

A

Male, Smoker, FHx

114
Q

Tx of Cluster Headaches

A

Prophylactic: verapamil 360mg

Attacks: 100% O2 + s/c triptan 6mg

115
Q

What are the common triggers for trigeminal neuralgia?

A
Washing
Shaving
Talking
Eating
Dental
116
Q

Mx of Trigeminal Neuralgia

A

You must do a MRI to exclude secondary causes: aneurysm, tumour, MS

Start carbamazepine first line and if refractory tertiary referral for surgical options

Screen for depression which can often accompany recurrent headaches

117
Q

What HiNTs results are consistent with peripheral vertigo?

A

A pos head impulse test, unidirectional and horizontal nystagmus, negative skew test

118
Q

What is the ABCD2 score used for?

A

Stratifies which pts are at high risk of having a stroke following a suspected TIA: a score of >=4 must be assessed by specialist <24h and <4 are seen within 7d

119
Q

Workup for TIA

A

Bedside: obs/ABPM + ECG/24h tape/echo

Bloods: FBC, U+Es, LFTs, CRP, ESR, Glucose, Lipids

Imaging: unenhanced CT head if any concern wrt intracranial bleeding, CXR (infection aspiration sarcoidosis), carotid doppler US +/- angiography

120
Q

Mx of TIA

A

Antipl: 2w aspirin -> long term clopidogrel/ticagrelor

BP: ACEi/CCB +/- diuretic

Cholesterol: atorvastatin

Diabetic: meds if indicated

121
Q

What is the Bamford classification of strokes?

122
Q

What is Guillian-Barre syndrome?

A

An ascending progressive acute inflammatory demyelinating polyradiculopathy usually triggered by an infection

123
Q

Sx of GBS

A

Weakness
Paraesthesia
Autonomic
Pain

124
Q

What will the LP show in GBS?

A

N/High Protein + N/Low WCC

125
Q

Mx of GBS

A

Always call for senior support

Supportive: resp, freq turning to prevent pressure sores and contractures, VTE prophylaxis

Medical: IVIG, plasmapheresis, analgesia

Prognostic: involve PT and OT to aid recovery and psychological input support counselling

126
Q

What is the lesion in INO?

A

Medial Longitudinal Fasciculus

Unilateral: Stroke vs Bilateral: MS

127
Q

What are the examination findings of INO?

A

Weakness in aDduction of the ipsilateral eye

Nystagmus in aBduction of the contralateral eye

128
Q

What are the eponyms of MS? (6)

A
Devic’s Syndrome
Lhermitte’s Sign
Uhthoff’s Phenomenon
Charles Bonnet Syndrome
Pulfrich Effect
Argyll Robertson Pupil
129
Q

What diagnostic criteria is used for MS?

A

McDonald +/- MRI/LP

130
Q

How can MS affect the eyes?

A

Optic Neuritis

Internuclear Ophthalmoplegia

Argyll Robertson and Marcus Gunn Pupil

131
Q

Where is the stroke if there’s double vision upon look laterally?

132
Q

What is the antiplatelet regime for a stroke/TIA once a haemorrhagic stroke is excluded?

A

All OD 2wks Aspirin 300mg -> long term Clopidogrel 75mg OR if CI Aspirin 75mg combined w slow release dipyridamole

133
Q

What anticoagulation should the pt receive from 2wks following a stroke if they also have AF?

A

DOAC/Warfarin

134
Q

What can be used to assess ADL’s following a stroke?

A

Barthel’s Index

135
Q

What is Miller Fisher syndrome?

A

Variant of GBS w ophthalmoplegia, ataxia and areflexia

136
Q

What antibody is seen in the serum of pts with Miller Fisher syndrome?

137
Q

Ddx for Bilateral Ptosis

A

MG, Dystrophy, Mitochondrial Disease

138
Q

What are the classic pt demographics w bells palsy? (3)

A

20-40yo
Female
Pregnant

139
Q

Is the forehead affected in bells palsy?

A

Yes it’s only unaffected in UMN

140
Q

What others sx could a pt w bells experience? (4)

A

Dry eyes, altered taste, hyperacusis, post auricular pain

141
Q

Tx of Bells Palsy

A

Pred 1mg/kg for 10d + consider artificial tears and eye taping at night

142
Q

What are the tx targets for ischaemic stroke after you’ve excluded haemorrhagic?

A

Thrombolysis w alteplase within 4.5hrs of onset + thrombectomy within 6hrs

143
Q

What is the most common comp of meningitis?

A

Sensorineural hearing loss

144
Q

Why would a laminectomy be performed?

A

To relieve pressure on the spinal cord

145
Q

What is microvascular decompression classically the surg option for?

A

Disabling trigeminal neuralgia if medical mx fails

146
Q

How does Parkinson’s lead to postural hypotension w/o compensatory tachycardia upon standing up?

A

It’s due to autonomic failure

147
Q

What are the causes of postural hypotension w compensatory tachycardia? (4)

A

The 4D’s: deconditioning, dysfunctional heart, dehydration, drugs

148
Q

What are other features of Parkinson’s aside from the triad of bradykinesia, tremor, rigidity? (6)

A

Mask-like facies, quiet monotonous speech, flexed posture, micrographia, postural hypotension, psych

149
Q

When does NICE suggest starting AEDs after the first seizures? (3)

A

The pt considers the risk unacceptable or has a neuro deficit, brain imaging shows structural abnormality, EEG shows unequivocal epileptic activity

150
Q

Which seizures can carbamazepine exacerbate? (2)

A

Absence + Myoclonic

151
Q

When can you consider stopping AEDs and for over how long?

A

Seizure free for >5yrs and stopped over 2-3mnths

152
Q

Def of TIA

A

A transient episode of neuro dysfunction caused by focal brain, spinal cord or retinal ischaemia w/o acute infarction

153
Q

What are the metabolic consequences of refeeding syndrome?

A

Hypokalaemia
Hypomagnesaemia
Hypophosphataemia
Abnormal Fluid Balance

154
Q

What do you prescribe for pts at risk of refeeding syndrome?

A

Start at up to 10kcal/kg/day and inc to full needs over 4-7days

PLUS vit B co strong, 2-4K, 0.2-0.4Mg, 0.3-0.6PO4 all in mmol/kg/day

155
Q

How is hypophosphataemia classified?

A

Mild 0.64-0.80
Mod 0.32-0.64
Severe <0.32

156
Q

How is hypophosphataemia tx?

A

Mild-Mod: phosphate sandoz effervescent tabs w each tab containing 20.4Na, 3.1K, 16.1PO4

Severe: IV phosphate polyfusor w each 500ml containing 81Na, 9.5K, 50PO4

157
Q

What is Hoffman’s sign?

A

A reflex test to assess for cervical myelopathy by gently flicking one finger and looking for twitching of the others

158
Q

What is the gold standard test for DCM?

159
Q

Tx of DCM

A

Decompressive surgery +/- physio and analgesia

160
Q

What type of tremor is the essential tremor?

A

Postural that can be exacerbated by outstretching the arms

161
Q

How does internuclear ophthalmoplegia px?

A

The lateral gaze w abnormality shows:

Ipsilateral - impairment of aDduction

Contralateral - can aBduct but w nystagmus

162
Q

Where is the lesion in INO?

A

The medial longitudinal fasciculus located in the paramedian area of midbrain and pons that interconnects the 3/4/6 CNs

163
Q

What doesn’t MND typically affect?

A

Extraocular Muscles + Cerebellum

164
Q

What are cutaneous features of tuberous sclerosis? (5)

A

Ash leaf spots, Shagreen patches, angiofibromas, subungual fibromata +/- cafe-au-lait spots

165
Q

What are neuro features of tuberous sclerosis? (2)

A

Developmental Delay + Epilepsy

166
Q

Ocular Hamartomas: NF vs TS

A

NF: iris ie Lisch nodules vs TS: retinal

167
Q

Autonomic Dysreflexia

A

Spinal cord injury @ >= T6 characterised by HTN + bradycardia

168
Q

Where does the autonomic nervous system leave the CNS?

A

Sympathetic: thoracolumbar

Parasympathetic: medulla + sacral

169
Q

Cushing’s Triad

A

HTN, Bradycardia, Irr Breathing

170
Q

What are the red flags for trigeminal neuralgia?

A

Onset <40yo, fhx of MS, optic neuritis, pain only in ophthalmic division, sensory changes, deafness, hx of skin or oral lesions that could spread perineurally

171
Q

What is the first line tx for trigeminal neuralgia?

A

Carbamazepine

172
Q

Where is the lesion in conduction aphasia?

A

Arcuate Fasiculus b/w Broca’s + Wernicke’s

173
Q

Where is the lesion in Broca’s expressive aphasia?

A

Inf Frontal Gyrus supplied by superior division of left MCA

174
Q

Where is the lesion in Wernicke’s receptive aphasia?

A

Sup Temporal Gyrus supplied by inferior division of left MCA

175
Q

Ddx of non fluent speech

A

Comprehension relatively intact - broca’s

Comprehension impaired - global

176
Q

Ddx of fluent speech

A

Comprehension relatively intact - conduction

Comprehension impaired - wernicke’s

177
Q

Bitemporal Hemianopia Ddx

A

Optic chiasm lesion or compression: inferior comp is upper quadrant defect from pituitary macroadenoma + superior comp is lower quadrant defect from craniopharyngioma

178
Q

Ischaemic Stroke + AF

A

Aspirin 300mg OD 2wks before any anticoags

179
Q

Triptan CI

180
Q

What are indications for urgent CT head in pts w headache? (5)

A

Vomiting >1 w no other cause, new neuro deficit, red GCS, valsalva or positional headaches, progressive headache w fever

181
Q

What is the ROSIER score?

A

After excluding hypoglycaemia:

-1 for LOC or seizure

+1 for asymmetric weakness in face, arm, leg, speech disturbance, visual field defect

If total score >0 a stroke is likely

182
Q

What should you exclude in an older pt w headache + sev unilateral eye pain?

183
Q

Which cranial nerves are affected in vestibular schwannomas?

184
Q

What is the class hx of vestibular schwannoma?

A

Vertigo
Tinnitus
Hearing Loss
Absent Corneal Reflex

185
Q

What is given during an acute relapse of MS?

A

5d methylpred

186
Q

Which nerve supplies the nail bed of the index finger?

187
Q

Which nerve supplies the medial aspect of the dorsum?

188
Q

Aside from the extensors what else does the posterior interosseous branch innervate?

A

Supinator + Abductor Pollicis Longus

189
Q

What are the most common antiepileptics?

A

Gen: Na Valproate - P450 inhibitor

Focal: Carbamazepine - P450 inducer

2nd Line: Lamotrigine - SJS

190
Q

Which comp of bacterial meningitis is routinely tested for?

A

Sensorineural Hearing Loss

191
Q

What is classified as a MOH?

A

Using triptans/opioids on 10d or more per mnth for 3m AND sx resolve within 2m of stopping

192
Q

Acute mx of cluster headache

A

100% O2 + S/C Triptan

193
Q

Prophylactic mx of cluster headache

194
Q

Which haematoma is limited to the suture lines?

195
Q

Mx of Raised ICP

A

Ix and tx underlying cause, head elevation to 30°, IV mannitol, controlled hyperventilation, CSF removal

196
Q

What do you do w a pt w new unexplained confusion?

A

Always admit for further ix: Geriatric Admission Profile (GAPS), CXR and MSU for infection, ECG for arrhythmia, CT head for bleed

197
Q

What is included in GAPS?

A

FBC, U+E, LFT, TFT, CRP, glucose, calcium, vit D, B12, folate, iron, ferritin, transferrin

198
Q

What can the density of a subdural haematoma tell you?

A

It becomes less dense over time so it’ll appear mixed following a rebleed

199
Q

What is the Bamford Stroke Classification for the four types?

A

Unilateral weakness +/or sensory deficit of the face, arm and leg PLUS homonymous hemianopia PLUS higher cerebral dysfunction

Partial Anterior Circulation Syndrome (PACS) - 2/3

Total Anterior Circulation Syndrome (TACS) - 3/3

Lacunar Stroke Syndrome (LACS) is defined as pure motor or pure sensory deficit.

Posterior Stroke Syndrome (POCS) presents differently to those describe above. It can have a varied clinical picture such with sx such as vertigo, dizziness, nystagmus and ataxia.

200
Q

Which vasc territory is involved for a TACS?

201
Q

When do you tx the HTN during the acute mx of an ischaemic stroke?

A

Hypertensive heart failure, MI, encephalopathy, nephropathy

Aortic Dissection

PET or Eclampsia

202
Q

What are the potential underlying causes of delirium that can be addressed initially before more invasive tests?

A

Drugs / Dehydration

Electrolyte Imbalance

Level of Pain

Infection / Inflammation

Respiratory Failure

Impaction of Faeces

Urinary Retention

Metabolic Disorder / MI

203
Q

Which drugs can be used to sedate a pt?

A
  1. Lorazepam 0.5mg PO

2. Haloperidol 0.5mg PO

204
Q

Why are these drugs PO > IV?

A

Risk of resp arrest

205
Q

Why is haloperidol second > first line?

A

Risks of giving it to pts w Parkinson’s disease or Lewy body dementia

206
Q

List drugs that cause hypoNa

A
Carbamazepine
Citalopram
Indapamide
Spironolactone
Bisacodyl
Omeprazole
207
Q

Which electrolyte disturbance does salbutamol cause?

208
Q

List drugs that predispose to urinary retention

A

Amitriptyline
Oxybutinin
Codeine

209
Q

Which CXR view can you tell there is definite cardiomegaly?

210
Q

What is a positive postural BP test?

A

A drop in SBP of >=20mmHg, DBP of >=10mmHg w sx or to below 90 mmHg on standing

211
Q

Mx of postural hypotension

A

Conservative: withdraw offending meds, rise slowly, avoid prolonged standing, raise head of bed, exercise, inc salt and water intake

Pharmacological: fludrocortisone (fluid overload and electrolyte imbalance SEs)-> midodrine (cardiac SEs)

212
Q

What’s the ECG finding in hypothermia?

A

J wave formation

213
Q

Which core temp implies hypothermia?

214
Q

What is the recommended rate of rewarming?

A

0.5-2 degrees per hr

215
Q

What might be the first sign of too rapid rewarming?

A

Falling BP

216
Q

Comps of hypothermia

A
MI
DIC
Arrhythmia
Pneumonia
Renal Failure