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DCNP Review > Medications Encountered General Dermatology > Flashcards

Medications Encountered General Dermatology Flashcards

1
Q

Bleaching of clothing and hair may occur with the use of what topical agent?

A

Benzoyl peroxide

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2
Q

Rosacea is an indication for which topical agent?

A

Metronidazole

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3
Q

Post-inflammatory pigmentation may be improved with application of what topical agents?

A

Azelaic Acid

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4
Q

Topical dapson may cause a non-permanent orange discoloration of the skin when combined with

A

Benzoyl peroxide

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5
Q

Which oral ABX may have a cross-reactivity with PCN allergy?

A

Cephalosporin

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6
Q

Medication of choice used to treat Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever?

A

Doxycycline

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7
Q

Ochronosis may be associated with long term use of

A

Minocycline

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8
Q

A potential serious side effect of oral Clindamycin is

A

C. Difficile diarrhea

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9
Q

A potential serious side effect of oral Clindamycin is

A

C. Difficile diarrhea

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10
Q

Inhibition of folic acid synthesis is the mode of action for?

A

Sulfamethoxazole/trimethoprin

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11
Q

Best class of medications to treat canidiasis

A

Azoles

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12
Q

Tavaborole 5% antifungal nail lacquer should be applied daily to affected nails for how long

A

48 weeks

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13
Q

The medication of choice to treat tinea capital caused by M. canis is?

A

Griseofulvin

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14
Q

The recommended terbinafine dosing for an individual weighing over 59 kilograms?

A

250mg/day

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15
Q

Oral antifungal have many medication interactions. Which one has the least interference with metabolism of other medications?

A

Terbanifine

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16
Q

Which oral antifungal medicatio. Is the drug of choice when treating candida infections?

A

Fluconazole

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17
Q

Recommended lab monitoring for the patient on an oral antifungal includes?

A

Liver enzymes

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18
Q

Which topical antiviral agents is available OTC?

A

Docosanol

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19
Q

Valacyclovir is often the preferred medication over acyclovir to treat HSV infections due to?

A

Less frequent dosing schedule

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20
Q

The recommended dosing schedule of famcyclovir for herpes zoster is?

A

500 mg every 8 hours x 7 days

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21
Q

Patients that have a hypersensitivity to ragweed and chrysanthemums may also have an allergic reaction to

A

Pyrethrin

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22
Q

Which topical antiparasitic agent has obicidal actions?

A

Malathion

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23
Q

Intake of alcoholic beverages may cause a potential disulfiram-like reaction with the topical use of?

A

Benzoyl alcohol

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24
Q

A pregnant woman has been diagnosed with scabies. Which antiparasitic agent would be appropriate?

A

Precipitated sulfur

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25
Q

Which medication used to treat scabies has anti-pruritic actions?

A

Crotamiton

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26
Q

The available tables strength of Ivermectin?

A

3 mg

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27
Q

Albendazole is indicated for treatment of

A

Cutaneous larva migrans

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28
Q

Hydroxychloroquine sulfate is FDA indicated for the treatment of?

A

Lupus erythematous

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29
Q

The most common ocular side effect associated with hydroxychloroquine sulfate is?

A

Loss of accommodation

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30
Q

FDA indication for the use of Azathioprine is?

A

Solid organ transplant rejection prophylaxis

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31
Q

A thiopurine methyltransferase assay (TMPT) should be performed prior to the initial administration of what medication?

A

Azathioprine

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32
Q

Hydroxychloroquine sulfate recommended dosing is

A

200-400 mg/day

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33
Q

Methotrexate may be used to treat Bullous Pemphigoid, Atopic Dermatitis and pityriasis rubra pilaris. But only has FDA indications for

A

Sezary syndrome, severe psoriasis

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34
Q

A liver biopsy or liver scan is recommended when the total cumulative dosage of Methotrexate reaches

35
Q

Recommended dosage of oral dapsone is

A

100-200 mg/day

36
Q

Oral dapsone often causes oxidative stress to the RBCs leading to?

A

Methemoglobin

37
Q

Recommended baseline laboratory monitoring prior to starting a patient on oral dapsone is

38
Q

Recommended dosing for mycophenolate mofetil is

A

500 mg QID

39
Q

Cyclosporine is FDA indicated for treatment of

40
Q

Cyclosporine can be most toxic to

A

Renal system

41
Q

Can cyclosporine be used during pregnancy?

42
Q

Prednisolone is preferred over prednisone in patients with

A

Liver dysfunction

43
Q

Systemic corticosteroids may worsen which condition?

44
Q

The term tachyphylaxia is defined as

A

Rapid decrease to medication effectiveness after repeated administration

45
Q

An appropriate topical steroid vehicle to treat scalp dermatitis is

A

Gel, liquid

46
Q

Myopathies cab be a side effect of what

A

Systemic Corticosteroids

47
Q

Acitretin should not be used in women of child bearing potential unless essential. Which pregnancy testing schedule should be followed when a woman of child bearing potential completes therapy?

A

Every 3 months x 3 years

48
Q

Desired cumulative dosing of isotretinoin is

A

120-150 mg/kg

49
Q

Crisaborole is classified as a

50
Q

Which biologic has an indication to treat psoriasis in children?

A

Etanercept (approved for 4 and older), Ustekinumab (approved for 13 and older), secukunumab (approved for 6 and older)

51
Q

Which biologic has indication to treat hidradentitis suppurativa?

A

Adalimumab

52
Q

Which biologic is associated with worsening inflammatory Bowel disease?

A

Ixekinumab, secukinumab, brodalumab

53
Q

IL 17 biologics include

A

Secukinumab, ixekizumab, brodalumab

54
Q

Which biologic is given as a maintenance dose subcutaneous every 12 weeks?

A

Ustekinumab (Stelara)

55
Q

Which biologic medication has indication for chronic urticaria?

A

Omalizumab (Xolair)

56
Q

Which biologic has an indication for atopic dermatitis?

A

Dupilumab (dupixent)

57
Q

Which test must be obtained prior yo starting a biologic for treatment of psoriasis?

58
Q

The mode of topical retinoids include

A

Increasing microcomedone formation, inhibition of keratinocyte over proliferation, reduction of inflammatory lesions

59
Q

Which topical retinoids do not cause photosensitivity?

60
Q

Which topical retinoid is approved for the treatment of psoriasis?

A

Tazarotene

61
Q

Bexarotene is indicated for

A

CTCL stage 1A and 1B

62
Q

Calcineurin inhibitors are FDA indicated for treatment of

63
Q

The usual dosing for topical vitamin D analogues is

64
Q

The MAJOR reaction of first-generation antihistamines that differs from 2nd generation os

65
Q

Macrolide antibiotics, azole antifungal and SSRIs may increase serum levels of 1st generation antihistamines creating potential risks of the

A

Cardiovascular system

66
Q

The major advantage of prescribing second-generation antihistamines instead of first-generation antihistamines is

A

Very limited sedation and anticholinergic activity

67
Q

Which is a tricyclic antidepressant that possesses potent H1 and H2 antihistamine properties?

68
Q

The nurse administering omalizumab in the office monitors the patient for any signs of

A

Anaphylaxis

69
Q

The recommendeded dosing of omalizumab is 150 mg to 300 mg SQ every

70
Q

Spironolactone improves acne by

A

Blocking androgen levels

71
Q

Amitriptyline may be used off-label to treat post-herpetic neuralgia. Usual starting dose is

A

10 to 25 mg at HS

72
Q

When should paroxetine be taken?

A

At night time

73
Q

The mode of venlafaxine is to inhibit reuptake of

A

Dopamine, norepinephrine and serotonin

74
Q

Bupropion is different from other antidepressants as its mode of action has no effect upon

75
Q

The FDA indication for pimozide is

A

Tourette’s syndrome

76
Q

A patient taking pumozide develops involuntary rhythmic movements of the face. This is termed

A

Tardive dyskinesia

77
Q

The FDA package labeling for Imiquimod 5% cream when used for actinic keratosis us to apply to lesions

78
Q

Blocking the action of thymidylate synthetase is the mode of action for

A

5-flouracil

79
Q

The mode of action for rituximab is binding to the B cell surface antigen of

80
Q

Vismodegib is indicated for the treatment of

81
Q

Dysguesia may be an adverse reaction of Vismodegib. This term describes

A

Distorted sense of taste

82
Q

Guselkumab (tremfya) is effective in treating psoriasis by the following action:

A

Blocks IL23

83
Q

Which of the TNFs has a negated arm which reduces transmission across the placental border?

A

Certolizumab (cimzia)

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