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DCNP Review > Infections, Infestations & Bites > Flashcards

Infections, Infestations & Bites Flashcards

1
Q

Anthrax occurs most often in humans via which route?

A

Cutaneous inoculation

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2
Q

Which individuals have the highest risk of contracting anthrax?

A

Meat packer

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3
Q

The most significant clinical finding for diagnosis of cutaneous anthrax is

A

Location

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4
Q

The recommended treatment for a large carbuncle is

A

Incision and Drainage

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5
Q

A patient presents to the emergency department with agonizing muscle spasms. He reports feeling a bite about 1 hour prior to the onset of spasms. You suspect which insect bite?

A

Black widow spider

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6
Q

Appropriate treatment for the muscle spasms from a balcony widow bite include:

A

IV benzodiazepines

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7
Q

A patient presents to the office with a bull’s eye lesion on his right thigh. His history is significant for hiking in a wooded area within the past week. You suspect:

A

Lyme disease

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8
Q

Drug of choice for treatment of Lyme disease is

A

Oral doxycycline for 21 days

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9
Q

A 60-year-old female patient presents with a hyperesthetic area on her right thigh. There is a grayish blue hall surrounding a central punctum. You suspect:

A

Brown recluse spider bite

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10
Q

The drug of choice to treat a brown recluse bite is

A

Dapsone

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11
Q

Effective methods to remove an attached tick from the skin include what

A

Grasp the tick with a tweezer close to the skin and pull upward

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12
Q

Honeybees and bumblebees have a venom sac attached to their stinger which injects what substance when stinging?

A

Forming acid

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13
Q

A mother calls the dermatology office triage nurse stating her 3-year-old son has been stung on the arm by a honeybee. The most important information the triage nurse should tell this mother is

A

Remove the stinger

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14
Q

The imported fire ant bite creates an erythematous wheal that develops into

A

Sterile pustules with neutrophils

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15
Q

An adult epi-pen consists of which dosage of epinephrine?

A

0.3 mg of 1:1000

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16
Q

What clinical presentation of intertrigo would suggest candidiasis?

A

Satellite pustules

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17
Q

A 29-year-old seemingly healthy male presents with persistent oral candidiasis. What test should be ordered?

A

HIV

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18
Q

What is the daily amount of vaginal cream treatment for vulvovaginal candidiasis?

A

5 gram

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19
Q

Treatment of oral candidiasis should be discontinued when?

A

7 days after symptom resolution

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20
Q

Patient presenting with cellulitis on the lower leg that culture came back positive for MRSA. This can be treated with all of the following antibiotics but:
A. Clindamycin
B. Doxycycline
C. Levaquin
D. Bactrim DS

A

C. Levaquin

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21
Q

Cutaneous larva migrNs is caused by the larvae of

A

Hookworms

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22
Q

Prevention of cutaneous larva migrans is most likely accomplished by

A

Wearing shoes when working outdoors

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23
Q

A frequent cause of pitysporum folliculitis is

A

Antibiotic use

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24
Q

A condition of the hair where fungal elements adhere to one another to form firm nodules describes

A

Black pledra

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25
Q

The age group most likely to develop tinea capitis is

A

Children

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26
Q

The dermatophyte infection that originates from animals describes

A

Zoophilic

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27
Q

The tinea capitis pattern type that includes the presence of scutula is:

A

Favus

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28
Q

The organism that is the leading cause if tinea capitis in the US is

A

T. tonsurans

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29
Q

A granulomatous lesion starting at a hair follicle describes:

A

Majocchi’s Granuloma

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30
Q

The type of tinea pedis that can be quite chronic and resistant treatment best describes

A

Moccasin

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31
Q

Tinea cruris has a high association with

A

Tinea pedis

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32
Q

Which of the following oral antifungal agents do not inhibit the cytochrome p450?

A

Terbanifine

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33
Q

Which of the following oral antifungal agents is associated with fulminant hepatitis?

A

Ketoconazole

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34
Q

A toddler presents with a low grade fever and symmetrical asymptomatic papular eruption affecting the face and extremities. There are no lesions on the trunk. The parents note that child had “cold” symptoms prior to outbreak of the lesions. This child most likely has:

A

Gianotti-Crosti

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35
Q

The most common cause of Gianotti-Crosti sybdrome in the US is

A

Epstein-Barr Virus

36
Q

Early diagnosis of leprosy is necessary to prevent or minimize problems with

A

Peripheral neuropathy

37
Q

Contact with what has been associated with the development of leprosy?

A

Armadillos

38
Q

One to three well-demarcated lesions with central hypopigmentation and hypoesthesia describes which type of leprosy?

A

Tuberculoid

39
Q

A patient diagnosed with leprosy has been clinically improving when they suddenly develop an eruption of numerous painful nodules deep in the dermis. This describes:

A

Type 2 immunologic reaction

40
Q

An eighteen year old female presents with painful vesicles on the vulva suspicious for genital herpes. The viral etiology of this outbreak is

A

Either HSV 1 or 2

41
Q

What percentage of patients who tested seropositive for HSV2 in the NHANES survey were not aware they had the condition?

A

80%

42
Q

Which groups have the highest risk of developing HSV 2 infections according to the 2019 US data?

A

African American Females

43
Q

The most common route of transmission for varicella is

A

Airborne

44
Q

John, an 82 year old male develops herpes zoster. His wife inquires if she is at risk for “catching” zoster. The correct response is

A

A seronegative individual may contact varicella

45
Q

Which topical antiviral have the highest affinity for disrupting the viral polymerase chain?

A

Acyclovir and penciclovir

46
Q

Which antiviral is the least effective when used for suppression of HSV 1 and 2?

A

Famciclovir

47
Q

Herpes gladiatorum is more likely to occur individuals who participate in which sport?

A

Wrestling

48
Q

The medication utilized for post herpetic analgesia which inhibits norepinephrine and serotonin reuptake describes

A

Amyriptyline

49
Q

Roseola is associated with which type of herpes virus?

A

HhV-6

50
Q

Common verryca do not extend past which level of the skin?

A

Epidermis

51
Q

The subtypes of HPV that has been connected to develop.ebt of neoplasm and dysplasia are

A

16 and 18

52
Q

The black dots seen on the surface of a verruca are

A

Thrombosed capillaries

53
Q

A 4 year old female presents with condyloma at the rectal area. The practitioner should

A

Notify child protective services

54
Q

What percentage of all cases of impetigo is related to non-bullous type?

A

70%

55
Q

The causative organism for most cases of impetigo is

A

S. aureus

56
Q

Bullous impetigo may be confused with

A

Bullous pemphigoid

57
Q

1 4 year old male patient presents to the clinic with honey colored crusting on the left chin. The remainder of his examination and history findings are unremarkable. What treatment should be prescribed?

A

Topical mupirocin

58
Q

New world leishmaniasis occurs in which geographical are?

A

Americas

59
Q

Which type of leishmaniasis is specific only to the new world type?

A

Mucocutaneous

60
Q

Molluscum contagiosum is caused by

A

Pox virus

61
Q

A 4 year old female presents with multiple dome shaped umblicated lesions that are diagnosed as molluscum contagiosum. Her parents inquire about treatment options and should be told:

A

It can resolve without treatment

62
Q

Which treatment for pediculosis that is available in an oral form

A

Ivermectin

63
Q

Delusions of parasitoses describes a

A

Fixed delusions

64
Q

Psoriasis that is worsened by emotional factors describes

A

Psychophysiological disorder

65
Q

Self-induced lesions caused by a foreign object describes

A

Dermatitis artefacta

66
Q

What percentage of patients presenting with delusions of parasitoses will have an additional psychological disorder?

A

70%

67
Q

Doxepin belongs to which medication classification

A

Tricyclic antidepressants

68
Q

Peak onset age for trichotillomania is

A

Toddlers

69
Q

Acne excoriee most likely occurs in which group

A

Adolescent females

70
Q

A major adverse reaction of pimozide is

A

Tardiness dyskinesia

71
Q

“Discontinuation symptoms” with pumozide include:

A

Agitation

72
Q

Which of the following is not a characteristic of buspirone?
A. Rapid onset
B. Limited risk of dependency
C. Side effect of nausea
D. Non-sedating

A

A. Rapid onset

73
Q

The drug of choice for scabies treatment is

A

Permethrin 5% cream

74
Q

A patient with smallpox is most contagious during which phase

A

Pustular phase

75
Q

Small pox vaccine would be contraindicated in

A

Individual with pystular smallpox rash

76
Q

True or False: when comparing smallpox lesions to those of varicella, smallpox lesions almost always scar

A

True

77
Q

The rate of mortality with various major infection is

A

30%

78
Q

The mortality rates of adults with staphylococcal scalded skin sybdrome

A

50%

79
Q

Which of the following cutaneous signs is not a characteristic of Staphylococcal Scalded Skin Syndrome?

A

Oral mucosal lesions

80
Q

The group with the most rapid increase in syphilis diagnosis is

A

Men having sex with men

81
Q

The development of a chance occurs in

A

Primary stage

82
Q

Patients with a diagnosis of syphilis have a fourfold increased risk of developing

A

HIV

83
Q

The most definitive diagnosis test for syphilis is

A

Darkfield microscopic examination

84
Q

The medication of choice to treat syphilis is

A

Benzathine PCN

85
Q

Infants born to mothers with syphilis at the time of delivery often have

A

Development delays

86
Q

Clinical lesions of “gummas” occur in which stage of syphilis?

A

Tertiary stage

DCNP Review (12 decks)

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