Medications Flashcards

1
Q

Aminoglycoside toxicity

A

Hearing loss (can be unilateral), some, mostly Gent can cause vertigo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

TCA overdose

A

anticholinergic + seizures
QRS prolongation
NaBicarb to treat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Side effects of 2nd gen antipsychotics

A

General: weight gain, dyslipidemia, increased blood glucose.
Clozapine: severe neutropenia/blood dyscrazia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Direct Xa inhibitors

A

Apixaban and Rivaroxiban
Are as effective as warfarin in treatment of acute DVT or PE and do not increase the risk of bleeding. Do not require bridging therapy or lab monitor. Good for patients who aren’t compliant with warfarin. Do not use in those with severe renal impairment or DVT/PE 2/2 malignancy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Tamoxifen

A

SERM for receptor+ breast cancer

Side effects: Hot flashes, VTE, Endometrial hyperplasia and possible carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Bupropion

A

Contraindicated in bulimia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Adjuvant Chemo/Rad

A

Chemo in addition to standard therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Consolidation Chemo/Rad

A

Given after induction with multiple drugs to further decrease tumor burden.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Induction Chemo/Rad

A

Initial treatment to decrease tumor burden.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Maintenance Chemo/Rad

A

Given after induction or induction/consolidation, usually a daily or scheduled dose.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Neoadjuvant Chemo/Rad

A

Tx given before standard therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Salvage Chemo/Rad

A

Tx given after standard therapy fails

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Phenytoin, cabamazapine, and valproate in pregnancy

A

Infant will present with microcephaly, frontal bossing, cleft lip and palate, distal phalangeal hypoplasia, and cardiac defects.

If the mother cannot be removed from medication, it should be titrated down to the lowest therapeutic dose and high dose folate should be started.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Dobutamine

A

B1 agonist predominately, used in decompensated HF. Increases contractility and HR to boost CO.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Dangerous side effect of PTU and Methimazole

A

Agranulocytosis, once the patient presents with a fever/sore throat/low white count you should discontinue the drug.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Lithium labs

A

25% hypothyroidism (TSH/T4)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Lithium Toxicity

A

Occurs in overload, volume depletion, and drug interactions (NSAIDs, Thiazides, ACEi, tetracyclines, metronidazole)

Acute: N/V/D, followed later by confusion, agitation, ataxia, tremors/fasiculations.

Late: Just neuro side effects.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Side effects of thiazide diuretics

A

hyperglycemia: decrease insulin release from the pancreas.

Hyperlipidemia, hyperuricemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Aspirin Toxicity

A
Respiratory alkalosis (stimulates respiratory center)
Metabolic Acidosis (Uncouples oxidative phosphorylation --> Lactic acid)

ABG will show: decreased CO2, decreased HCO3 with near-normal pH.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Digoxin Toxicity

A

Life-threatening arrhythmias, anorexia, N/V, abdominal pain, fatigue, confusion, weakness, color vision changes.

Can be induced by Amiodarone, verapamil, quinindine, and propafenone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Cyclophosphamide black box

A

Bladder Cancer. Toxic metabolite.

22
Q

Hydroxychloroquine class and adverse effects

A

TNF & IL-1 suppressor, Retinopathy

23
Q

Methotrexate class and adverse effects

A

Purine antimetabolite, Hepatotoxic, Stomatitis, cytopenias

24
Q

Leflunomide class and side effects

A

Pyrimidine synthesis inhibitor, Hepatotoxic, cytopenias

25
Q

Sulfasalazine class and side effects

A

TNF & IL-1 suppressor, hepatotoxic, stomatitis, hemolytic anemia

26
Q

Monoclonal TNF inhibitor side effects

A

Infection, demyelination, CHF, malignancy

27
Q

First Line Alcoholism drugs

A

Naltrexone, Acamprosate

28
Q

Venlafaxine specific side effect

A

Dose-dependent HTN

29
Q

Furosemide side effects

A

Hearing loss, especially in those with renal dysfunction.

30
Q

Adverse effects of methimazole and PTU

A

Agranulocytosis
M: teratogen in 1st trimester
PTU: Hepatic failure, ANCA vasculitis

31
Q

Epinephrine Anaphylaxis

A

IM first, then IV if not working.

32
Q

Oxytocin Toxicity

A

Hyponatremia, hypotension, tachysystole

33
Q

Bupropion

A

Norepinephrine and dopamine reuptake inhibitor

Activating does not cause weight gain, no sexual side effects.

34
Q

Epo side effect

A

Delayed severe HTN

35
Q

Nitroprusside side effect

A

Use for longer than 24 hours can cause cyanide toxicity

36
Q

Contraindications to olanzapine and clozapine

A

DM2, use ziprasidone/aripiprazole/lurasidone

37
Q

Serum sickness-like reaction

A

Rash, joint tenderness, lymphadenopathy, and fever 1-2 weeks after a B lactam or sulfadrug

38
Q

TMP associated electrolyte disturbance

A

Hyperkalemia

39
Q

Beta-agonists electrolyte disturbance

A

transient hypokalemia

40
Q

Succinylcholine electrolyte disturbance

A

hyperkalemia

41
Q

Effects of Class I antiarrhythmics on QRS

A

Widen the QRS at higher heart rates

42
Q

Iron Toxicity

A

Abdominal pain, hematemesis, diarrhea
Anion gap metabolic acidosis, pills visualized on xray
tx: deferoxamine and whole bowel irrigation

43
Q

Fluid replacement in burns

A

LR, no risk of hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis as with NS

44
Q

False positive for amphetamines

A

Atenolol, propranolol, Bupropion, nasal decongestants

45
Q

False positive for PCP

A

Dextromethorphan, benadryl, doxylamine, ketamine, tramadol, venlafaxine

46
Q

Nitrofurantoin lung injury

A

Can be with acute or chronic use
Typically 3-10 days after starting
Basilar cracks, pleural effusions
Eosinophilia

47
Q

OCPs can cause this in roughly 5% of users

A

HTN

48
Q

Tramadol + amtidepressants

A

Serotonin syndrome

49
Q

Warfarin targets in valvular disease

A

Mitral: 2.5-3.5
Aortic: 2-3

50
Q

DRESS Syndrome

A

Reaction that usually takes place 2-8 weeks after starting new meds

Drug: Allopurinol, antiepileptics
Rash/Reaction: Morbilliform rash that starts on the face and spreads
Eosinophilia
SS: systemic symptoms, fever, malaise, LAD, kidney/liver/lung damage