Medical Screening Part 4 Geriatrics Flashcards
1
Q
what are the MSK decline we may see in the geriatric populations?
A
dec ms mass and strength
dec motor unit recruitment
dec speed of movt
dec joint flexibility
dec bone mass and strength
cartilage degeneration
2
Q
what ms fiber type is the first to atrophy?
A
type 2, fast twitch fibers
3
Q
what are the neural declines we may see in the geriatrics populations?
A
dec conduction=altered pain
dec enzymatic activity
dec reflexes
inc postural sway
dec responsiveness
change in sleep patterns
4
Q
what are the CV declines we may see in the geriatric populations?
A
dec cardiac output
inc vascular resistance
dec lipid catabolism
dec vascular elasticity=inc DBP (can also be from diet-cholesterol in vessels)
dec response to postural stress
5
Q
what are the pulmonary declines we may see in the elderly populations?
A
dec recoil within the lung
calcification of soft tissue in the chest wall
dec PO2 from 20-70 yrs
dec VO2max
dec pulmonary blood flow=dec O2 sat
inc RV
6
Q
what are the integ declines we may see in the geriatric populations?
A
dec vascularity=altered thermoregulation
dec subQ tissue inc risk for hypothermia
dec thickness with inc risk of breakdown
uneven pigmentation
7
Q
what are the GI declines we may see in the geriatric populations?
A
dec peristalsis
dec enzymatic activity
processing of meds slows down
8
Q
what are the urogenital/renal declines we may see in the geriatric populations?
A
dec bladder capacity
dec bladder elasticity
prostate hyperplasia
dec kidney mass
dec glomerular filtration rate
dec creatinine clearance
9
Q
what are the declines in special senses we may see in the geriatric populations?
A
dec visual acuity
dec hearing
dec smell and taste
dec thymus fxn
dec Ca2+ control
dec sweating
10
Q
what are the immune system declines we may see in the geriatric populations?
A
dec fxn/resistance
dec T cells
dec temp regulation
11
Q
t/f: decreased size of the thymus as we age can contribute to dec immune fxns with age
A
true
12
Q
what are the psychosocial declines we may see with the geriatric populations?
A
inc incidence of depression
inc fatigue
cog deficits
13
Q
t/f: there is a need for dec meds with inc age bc the liver and kidney metabolism is slowed
A
true
14
Q
the ____ filters meds and the ____ helps get rid of them
A
liver, kidneys
15
Q
are supplements included in meds?
A
yes, but pts often don’t think so, so we may have to ask about supplements
16
Q
what factors may contribute to falls?
A
dec fxn
fear
isolation
inactivity
weakness
17
Q
many Americans over ___ yo have falls
A
65
18
Q
what are tests and measures we can use to assess for falls?
A
Berg balance scale
Tinetti assessment tool
TUG/TUGcog
gait abnormality rating scale
gait velocity
5xSTS
DGI
ABC
“balance” Borg
19
Q
what is a unique feature of the TUG?
A
pts can use an AD and there is a breakdown of score with age and genders
20
Q
what is the task with the TUG?
A
get up, walk 3m, go around an object, walk back, and sit down
21
Q
what is the task with the TUGcog?
A
get up, walk 3m, go around an object, walk back, and sit down
AND have the pt subtracting 3 for any given # from 66-100
22
Q
what is the cutoff score for the TUG/TUGcog?
A
15 sec
23
Q
what is the gait velocity of slow walkers?
A
<0.6m/sec
24
Q
what is the % hospitalization w/in 12 months for slow walkers?
A
41%
25
what is the gait velocity of intermediate walkers?
0.6-1.0m/sec
26
what is the % hospitalization w/in 12 months for intermediate walkers?
26%
27
what is the gait velocity of fast walkers?
>1.0m/sec
28
what is the % hospitalization w/in 12 months of fast walkers?
11%
29
what is the task of the 5xSTS?
sit with back against the chair and feet in a comfortable position
start timing when the person begins to move and stop timing when their butt hits the chair
30
what is the mean 5xSTS score of someone <60 yo with no balance problems?
8.2
31
what is the mean 5xSTS score of someone <60 yo with balance problems?
15.3
32
what is the mean 5xSTS score of someone >60 yo with no balance problems?
13.4
33
what is the mean 5xSTS score of someone >60 yo with balance problems?
16.4
34
what are the warning signs of elder abuse?
bruises, black eyes, welts, lacerations
multiple reports of falls/fx
open wounds, cuts, punctures, pressure ulcers (untreated in various stages of healing)
internal injuries/bleeding
broken eyeglasses
signs of being restrained (rope marks)
depression
multiple trips to the ER
over and under utilization of prescirbed meds
soiled or torn clothing
malnutrition/weight loss
frequent changes in medical providers
sudden change in an elder’s behavior
confusion attributed to dementia
a caregiver’s refusal to allow visitors to see an elder alone
35
what are the top reasons for ER visits in the elderly?
injuries from falls or accidents
pneumonia
complications after a surgery
chest pain
side effects from meds
dehydration
stroke
back pain or abdominal pain
36
what MSK pathologies may affect the geriatric populations?
arthritis
osteoporosis
37
~12% of women from ___ to ____ yo have vertebral compression fxs
50, 60
38
~20% of women >___ yo have vertebral compression fxs
70
39
what spices can be taken 1/2 tsp 2-3x/day to help with OA?
ginger and cinnamon
40
what does osteochondroitan sulfate do?
influences the viscosity of the synovial fluid
41
how long does osteochondroitan sulfate have to taken for to see any results?
at least 3 months
42
what is the technique for the patellar-pubic percussion test (AKA Barford test)?
pt in supine, scope on symphysis pubis and tuning fork on patella; listen for a change in sound quality with both LEs
43
what tuning fork is used to ID fxs (although not the best tool)?
a 128 Hz tuning fork with stethoscope
44
what is fluoroquinolone (FQ)?
a gram neg antibiotic used for resp, uro, and GI infections
45
what is the risk of FQ?
tendon injuries
46
what tendon has the most risk of injury with FQ?
the Achilles tendon
47
t/f: FQ effects on the tendons with age has a lot to do with dec renal clearance abilities
true
48
if a pt is on FQ, what should we check?
make sure tendons are intact
check for limping
49
why does FQ affect tendons?
bc it has a high affinity for connective tissues
50
FQ is toxic to what type of collagen?
type 1
51
t/f: FQ promotes collagen degeneration
true
52
t/f: the risk of tendon damage with FQ is dose dependent
true
53
how long can the effects of FQ last in the geriatric populations?
a yr
54
the mean onset of damage from FQ is how long?
after 6 days
55
risk of tendon injury with FQ increases with what factors?
>60 yo
concurrent corticosteroid use (46 fold inc)
renal failure
DM
hx of tendon rupture
56
where is the pain with an Achilles tendon injury?
2-3cm proximal to the calcaneal attachment
57
what are the s/s of an Achilles tendon injury ?
pain 2-3cm prox to calcaneal attachment
swelling and inflammation
“snap” or “pop” with bruising
(+) Thompson sign
58
s/s of an Achilles tendon injury can occur up to ____ wks b4 the rupture
2
59
how can we avoid Achilles tendon rupture?
tendon is protected from WBing
heel lift is used
crutches and bracing is used
60
protection of the Achilles tendon may be done for up to how long?
6 months
61
what neuromuscular pathologies may affect geriatric populations?
MG
GBS
NPH (normal pressure hydrocephalus)
PD
AD
62
what are the s/s of MG?
diplopia and ptosis
proximal ms weakness
CN weakness
problem controlling eye movt and facial expressions
difficulty swallowing and chewing
dysarthria
change in voice quality
no sensory changes and no change in DTRs
63
what are the 2 most common sx of MG?
diploplia and ptosis
64
is weakness in MG greater proximally or distally?
proximally
65
are there sensory changes in MG?
no
66
are there DTR changes in MG?
no
67
what are the s/s of GBS?
weakness-symmetrical LE>UE>respiratory
paresthesia starts in toes and progresses proximal (no loss in sensation)
asymmetrical facial weakness, dysphagia, dysarthrias
CNs effected in 45-75% of cases
unstable VSs
dec reflexes and hypotonia
fever, nausea, nausea, fatigue
pain in the LB and buttocks
68
where is the weakness greatest in GBS?
LE>UE>respiratory
69
where do paresthesias start in GBS?
in the toes and progress proximally
70
is there a loss of sensation in GBS?
no
71
is the facial weakness in GBS symmetrical?
no
72
are there dec reflexes in GBS?
yes
73
is there hypertonia or hypotonia in GBS?
hypotonia
74
where is there pain in GBS?
in the LB and butt
75
what occurs in normal pressure hydrocephalus (NPH)?
the system of draining/absorbing CSF is disrupted
76
when may NPH occur?
after a head injury, TIA, meningitis, infection, or tumor but may also be unknown
77
what is the incidence per yr of NPH?
2-20 millions
78
NPH is most common in adults over ___ yo
60
79
is NPH more common in men or women?
it is equally common in both men and women
80
what is the prevalence of NPH in those 70-79?
0.2%
81
what is the prevalence of NPH in those >80?
6%
82
what is NPH often confused with?
dementia and PD
83
how is NPH dx?
using CT and MRI
84
what are the sx of NPH in the legs?
gait disturbance-wide BOS, slow/shuffling steps
85
what are the sx of NPH in the bladder?
urinary frequency (every 1-2 hrs)-->incontinence
86
what are the sx of NPH in cognition?
dementia, forgetfulness, short-term memory loss
87
what is the clinical triad of NPH?
Wobbly (feet glued to the floor, no loss of arm swing)
Woozy (beware of misdx with hearing loss)
Wet (beware of meds)
88
what is a normal score on the NPH scale?
15
89
what are the items on gait evaluation in the NPH scale?
bedridden/unable to ambulate
ambulate with assist
independent ambulation but unstable
abnormal but stable
normal gait
90
what are the items on cog fxn in the NPH scale?
vegetative
severe dementia
severe memory and behavior probs
memory probs reported by fam
normal
91
what are the items on sphincter disturbance in the NPH scale?
urinary and bowel incontinence
continuous urinary incontinence
sporadic urinary incontinence
urinary urinary urgency
no sphincter dysfxn
92
what is the tx for NPH?
shunt to drain excess fluid
93
t/f: there is inc prevalence of PD with inc age
true
94
what age is juvenile onset PD?
10-20 yo
95
what age is young onset PD?
21-40 yo
96
what is the most common age of onset of PD?
60-70 yo (avg of 62.5 yo)
97
what are the cardinal motor sx of PD?
temor at rest-absent in ~20%
rigidity
bradykinesia (akinesia)
gait and balance probs (postural deficits)
(TRAP)
98
what are the craniofacial features of PD?
masked face
sialorrhea (drooling)
anosmia (loss of smell)
soft speech
dysarthria
dysphagia
99
what are the autonomic features of PD?
urinary urgency
constipation
sexual dysfxn
100
what are the sensory features of PD?
paresthesias
101
what are the neurophychiatrics features of PD?
depression
anxiety
apathy
dementia
psychosis
102
t/f: PD is a clinical dx
true
103
t/f: pts with PD tend to have very vivid dreams and may act them out in their sleep
true
104
t/f: the Levodopa test is very accurate and used to definitively dx PD
false
105
t/f: findings on MRI and CT with PD are unremarkable
true
106
do any lab biomarkers exist for PD?
nope
107
adding foods rich in _____ could potentially be an easy way for people w/PD to help improve their life expectancy
flavonoid
108
what are foods rich in flavonoid?
berries, red cabbage, onions, kale, parsley, tea, red wine, dark chocolate
109
t/f: the blood test for AD is prescription only
true
110
what does the blood test for AD measure?
proteins linked to toxic amyloid plaque buildup in the brain
111
t/f: the blood test for AD is almost as accurate as a PET scan
true
112
who is the AD blood test intended for?
adults over 60 with memory loss
113
what stage of AD involved no cognitive impairment and no memory probs?
stage 1
114
what stage of AD involves a very mild decline in cog fxn with some memory lapses but no evident problems to medical professionals, friends, or fam?
stage 2
115
what stage of AD involves a mild decline and problems with memory or concentration that may be evident on clinical testing?
stage 3
116
during stage 3 AD, what are common difficulties?
word finding
dec ability to remember names when introduced to new ppl
poor reading retention
losing/misplacing valuable objects
dec ability to plan or organize
117
what stage of AD involves moderate decline in the early stages of AD with dec knowledge of recent events, impaired ability to perform complex tasks, and reduced memory?
stage 4
118
what stage of AD involves a moderately severe decline in the mid stages of AD with major gaps in memory and cog fxn, inability to recall phone or address, confusion to orientation, but requires no assistance with eating or toileting and usually retains knowledge about self and names?
stage 5
119
what stage of AD involves a severe decline in the mid stages of AD with significant personality changes, hallucinations, compulsive behaviors, lack of awareness of recent events, can recognize faces, but not names, can recall their own name, and needs help with toileting and ADLs?
stage 6
120
what stage of AD involves very severe decline in the late stage of AD with loss of ability to respond to the environments and control movt?
stage 7
121
what are the categories of the MMSE (mini mental state exam)?
orientation
registration
attention and calculation
recall
language
122
what is the max score on the MMSE?
30
123
what score on the MMSE indicates normal cog fxn?
24-30
124
what score on the MMSE indicates mild impairment/AD?
20-23
125
what score on the MMSE indicates moderate impairment/AD?
10-19
126
what score on the MMSE indicates severe impairment/AD?
0-9
127
the MoCA uses ___ pt scale and takes only a few min to complete
30
128
the MoCA is validated in pts aged ______yo
55-85
129
is the MMSE free to use?
nope
130
is the MoCA free to use?
yes, but requires certification
131
what is the avg MoCA score for mild impairment?
22 (19-25)
132
what is the avg MoCA score for moderate impairment?
16 (11-21)
133
what is the peanut butter test for AD?
measures the distance that peanut butter could be smelled through the L and R nostrils
134
why is peanut butter used to test for AD?
bc AD typically affects your sense of smell bc the olfactory cortex is the first to show signs of dysfxn in AD
135
what is a (+) peanut butter test?
the pt couldn't;t detect until 5" closer to the left compared to the right
136
what are the CVP pathologies that can effect the geriatric populations?
TIA
DVT/VTE/PE
HTN
leukemia
dehydration
pneumonia
137
what is a TIA (transient ischemic attack)?
a precursor to a stroke (CVA) that causes focal neuro signs to occur suddenly and last a short time b4 resolving w/in 24 hrs
138
what are possible s/s of TIA?
blurred vision
slurred speech
flashes of light
migraine
vertigo
facial weakness
confusion
ataxia
139
what is the Virchow's triad of factors that put one at risk for DVT?
localized trauma
venous stasis
hypercoagulation
140
what is Homan's sign used for (but not really anymore bc it high-key sucks dick)
IDing risk for DVT
141
what items are included in the Wells criteria for DVT risk?
active CA (tx ongoing or w/in 6 months)
paralysis or recent plaster immobilization of LE
recently bedridden for >3 days or major surgery <4 wks
localized tenderness along the distribution of the deep venous system
entire leg swelling
calf swelling >3cm compared to the asymptomatic leg
prev DVT documented
collateral superficial veins (nonvaricose)
142
what is the Caprini score used for?
assessing risk for VTE
143
what does a Caprini score of 0-2 mean?
very low to low risk for VTE
144
what does a Caprini score of 3-4 mean?
moderate risk for VTE
145
what does a Caprini score of 5-8 mean?
high risk for VTE
146
what does a Caprini score of >8 mean?
very high risk for VTE
147
what are strong risks for DVT?
SCI
major trauma
COVID-19
major surgery
fx (pelvis, femur, tibia)
total jt replacement
148
what are additional risk factors for DVT?
obesity
acute MI
anti-thrombin deficiency
pregnancy
airline flights >2hrs
recent central venous cath
pacemakers
oral contraceptives
blood type A
AIDS
varicose veins
149
30% of pts who've had a DVT will suffer a recurrent DVT within how many yrs?
10 yrs with the greatest risk within 2 yrs
150
when does the CPG for DVT from 2022 tell us to mobilize a pt with recently dx DVT?
mobilize pt when therapeutic level of anticoagulation is achieved
151
does the CPG for DVT from 2022 recommend mechanical compression for a pt with recently dx DVT?
NO!
152
performing 1 min of active ankle pumping decreased venous stasis and increases venous blood flow up to ____ min after the exercise
30
153
to avoid attenuation of ASA, when should ASA and ibuprofen be taken in relation to each other?
ASA should be taken at least 30 min b4 or more than 8 hrs after ibuprophen (NSAID)
154
what conditions can mimic DVT?
baker’s cyst
sciatica
cellulitis
hematoma
myositis
155
where do VTEs first appear?
in the superficial veins at the valve/cusp
156
90% of VTE occur in what vein?
the long saphenous vein
157
is there greater or lesser mortality associated with VTE distally in the leg (below the knee)? why?
lesser bc the veins are smaller so the clot can be smaller and still cause an obstruction
158
is there greater or lesser mortality associated with VTE more proximally in the leg (above the knee)? why?
greater bc the veins are larger, so to obstruct one the clot ahs to be very large
159
what is the Khorana used for?
risk assessment for VTE in CA pts
160
what CA locations pose the highest risk for VTE according to the Khorana?
stomach and pancreas
161
what CA locations pose a high risk for VTE according to the Khorana?
lung, lymphoma, gynecological, bladder, or testicular
162
what pre-chemo platelet count poses a risk for VTE according to the Khorana?
>/=350 x 10^9/L
163
what pre-chemo hemoglobin level poses a risk for VTE according to the Khorana?
<100g/dL or use of red cell growth factors
164
what pre-chemo leukocyte count poses a risk for VTE according to the Khorana?
>/= 11x10^9
165
what BMI poses a risk for VTE according to the Khorana?
>/=35kg/m^2
166
the risk for VTE after neurosurgery is as high as ____% and remains in hypercoagulation state for wks
50
167
t/f: COPD increases risk for VTE due to immobility
true
168
what level pressure is used in preventative compression for VTE?
15-20 mmHg
169
what level pressure is used for therapeutic compression for VTE?
20-30 mmHg
170
what are the s/s of PE?
angina-like pain or crushing chest pain
dyspnea, wheezing, rales
dec BP
hemoptysis, chronic cough
fever
tachypnea (>16/min)
tachycardia (>100/min)
diaphoresis
171
are the rates of PEs increasing or decreasing?
increasing
172
what are the clinical signs of HTN?
spontaneous epitaxis
occipital HA
dizziness
visual changes
nocturnal urinary frequency
flushed face
173
what are the major CV risk factors?
tobacco use, particularly cigarettes, including chewing tobacco
elevated LDL cholesterol (or total cholesterol >/=240 mg/dL)
DM
obesity (BMI>/=30 kg/m^2
age >55 yrs for men or >65 yrs for women
estimated glomerular filtration rate <60 mL/min perf 1.73m^2
microalbuminuria
fam hx of premature CVD
lack of exercise
174
what age is considered premature CVD in men? in women?
men <55 yo
women <65 yo
175
HTN is associated with a ___ fold inc in sarcopenia
2
176
what are the s/s of leukemia?
epitaxis, bleeding gums
hematuria, rectal bleeding
brusing of the skin, petechiae
infections, fever
weakness, fatigue
enlarged lymph nodes
weight loss, loss of appetite
enlarged spleen
177
what is a key sign of leukemia?
enlarged lymph nodes
178
what are the causes of dehydration?
dec CNS fxn with dec thirst
vomiting/diarrhea
DM
excess sweating/fever
surgery
meds (diuretics)
179
what are the s/s of dehydration?
altered mentation
lethargy/agitation
light-headedness or syncope
OH
weakness
180
what is one of the most common causes of death in the elderly?
pneumonia
181
what are the typical sx of pneumonia?
productive cough (rust-colored sputum)
fever, chills
pleuritic chest pain
SOB
182
what are additional sx of pneumonia?
confusion
loss of appetite
change in sleep habits
183
what is the Braden scale used for?
risk for pressure ulcers
184
what are the categories of the Braden scale that determine risk for pressure ulcers?
sensory perception
moisture
activity
mobility
nutrition
friction and shear
185
t/f: cellulitis is a bacterial skin infection that commonly occurs in those already vulnerable
true
186
pts with what conditions are at risk for cellulitis?
DM
circulatory probs
CHF
liver disease
eczema
psoriasis
severe acne
187
what are the s/s of cellulitis?
recent skin disruption
pain, swelling, warmth
erythema with streaks and vague borders
fever and chills
HA
low BP
enlarged lymph nodes
small red spots appear on top of reddened skin
188
what is the usual tx of cellulitis?
oral antibiotics
189
when would a pt be hospitalized and given IV antibiotics for cellulitis?
if it is near their face, neck, our shoulder bc of the proximity to the brain
190
what should we do to mark the size of cellulitis infection if a pt has cellulitis?
mark their skin with sharpie
191
2/3 of pts with herpes zoster are >__ yo
50
192
how does herpes zoster spread?
via respiratory droplets or direct contact with blisters
193
what sx of shingles may appear 3-5 days b4 the vesicular eruption of shingles?
pain, tenderness, and paresthesia in the dermatome
194
prodromal pain with shingles may mimic what?
cardiac or pleural pain
195
the pustular vesicles in shingles typically last how long?
2-3 wks
196
what dermatomes are most affected by shingles?
thoracic (50%) and ophthalmic division of trigeminal nerve
197
what is the tx for shingles?
antibiotics (oral or IV) within 72 hrs of rash onset
198
does the rash in shingles cross the midline?
nope, it's UL
199
t/f: the s/s of Grave disease stay pretty much the same throughout the lifespan
true
200
what is the issue in Gout?
inc purine leads to uric acid crystals to form
201
where does 2/3 of purine come from?
the body
202
where does 1/3 of purine come from?
food
203
what are foods high in purine?
shellfish, organ meats, dried beans, peas, anchovies, high-fructose corn syrup
204
what are the tx options for Gout?
NSAIDs
colchicine
corticosteroids
205
when would we use corticosteroids to tx Gout?
when NSAIDs and colchicine don't work
206
t/f: meds that dec uric acid level may be used to prevent Gout
true
207
where does Gout occur?
1st MTP, knee, wrist, or elbow
208
what part of the body is Gout most commonly found in? why
the first MTP of the foot bc it is the coldest part of the body and the uric acid can only crystallize in cold environments
209
what are the s/s of hypothyroidism (Hashimoto's)?
dec basal metabolic rate
dry skin
ms/jt pain
proximal weakness
lethargy, depression, apathy
confusion
weight gain
edema aorund the eyes
loss of lateral eyebrow
cardiomegaly
constipation
cold intolerance
brittle nails
sparse/coarse hair
peripheral edema
jt effusion with Ca2+ deposits
CTS
slow healing
hoarseness
HR<60 in untrained person
210
what are the s/s of hyperthyroidism from most to least common in pts that are
tachycardia
hyperactive reflexes
inc sweating
heat intolerance
fatigue
tremor
nervousness
polydipsia
Weakness
inc appetite
dyspnea
weight loss
211
what are the s/s of hyperthyroidism from most to least common in pts that are >/=70yo?
tachycardia
fatigue
weight loss
tremor
dyspnea
apathy
anorexia
nervousness
hyperactive reflexes
weakness
depression
inc sweating
polydipsia
212
what are the endocrine disorders that can effect the geriatric populations?
Gout
hypothyroidism (Hashimoto's disease)
hyperthyroidism (Grave's disease)
DM
213
what are the urogenital s/s?
pain with micturition
leukocytes and bacteria inn urine (white casts)
cloudy urine
back pain
fever, chills
nausea
loss of appetite
pain with percussion over the kidneys
214
t/f: UTIs can be caused by any 1 of at least 5 dif bacteria
true
215
what are the most common primary sites of metastatic tumors?
lung
breast
prostate
renal
colon
216
what is the screening tool used for high risk pts for lung CA?
low dose CT scan
217
what are the risk factors for lung CA?
>60yo
smoker
218
what are common s/s of lung CA?
c-spine, shoulder, and chest pain
TOS sx
chronic cough
bloody sputum
wt loss; malaise
fever
dyspnea; wheezing
fecal breath odor
neural sx 2/2 spinal fluid mets
219
what age is most affected by prostate CA?
those over 50yo
220
what are the s/s of prostate CA?
L/S pain
frequent urination
weak urine stream
difficulty starting urination
sacral plexus sx
221
elevated PSA levels indicate prostate CA only __% of time
30
222
t/f: the updated PSA testing guidelines say that men should generally be referred for a prostate tissue biopsy when their PSA >3ng/mL, but other say if over 10
true
223
t/f: blood work for PSA levels should be repeated a few times b4 going to get a biopsy
true
224
panel members agreed that PSA testing should ONLY be offered to men with a life expectancy >____yrs
10-15
225
what can cause transient rise in PSA levels?
acute prostatitis
226
if there is a life expectancy of <___ yrs, the value of screening PSA is questioned
5
227
what foods have "claimed" to reduce prostate risk?
greens
cooked tomatoes
citrus fruits
olive oil
soy foods
228
what are typical PSA levels bw age 40-49?
0-2.5
229
what are typical PSA levels bw age 50-59?
0-3.5
230
what are typical PSA levels bw age 60-69?
0-4.5
231
what are typical PSA levels bw age 70-79?
0-6.5
232
what age is most affected by renal CA?
55-60 yo
233
what are the s/s of renal CA?
hematuria
wt loss
malaise
fever
palpable posterior lateral abdominal mass
234
what ages are most affected by breast CA?
20-50 yo and >65 yo
235
what are the s/s of breast CA?
nipple discharge
dimpling of breast
palpable mass
brachial plexus sx
236
t/f: >2.2kg weight gain doubles the risk of reoccurrence of breast and prostate CAs
true
237
wt gain of __% body fat increase breast and prostate mortality
true
238
what diet decreases risk of all CAs by 8% and breast CA by 15%?
a plant-based diet
239
t/f: alcohol increases breast CA risk in pre and post menopausal but more postmenopausal
true
240
what age is most affected by colon CA?
those >50 yo
241
what are the s/s of colon CA?
abdominal pain
lumbosacral pain
change in bowel habits
bloody stools
malaise
wt loss
pain unaffected by position
