Infectious Disease Flashcards

1
Q

T/f: infectious disease is the number one cause of death worldwide

A

False, it used to be, but now it is chronic diseases

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2
Q

What are some reasons infectious disease is no longer the leading cause of death worldwide?

A

Vaccinations
Antibiotics

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3
Q

What are the current challenges in the world of infectious disease?

A

Parents not vaccinating their children decreases herd immunity
Antibody resistant organisms
New infectious agents
More rapid worldwide transmission
Aging population

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4
Q

What are the s/s of infectious diseases?

A

Systemic s/s
System specific signs
Rash
Red streaks
Inflammation lymph nodes
Jt effusion
Fever

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5
Q

What are the systemic s/s of infectious diseases?

A

Fever
Chills
Sweating
Nausea
Vomiting
Malaise

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6
Q

What are the s/s of infectious diseases in older adults?

A

Confusion
Memory loss
Difficulty concentrating
Hypothermia
Bradycardia/tachycardia

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7
Q

What do red streaks indicate?

A

Acute lymphangitis from an infected wound along the lymph channels that can lead to bacteremia and acute deterioration

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8
Q
A
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9
Q

T/f: with acute infection, lymph nodes can become tender, enlarged, and asymmetric

A

True

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10
Q

What does jt effusion signal may be going on?

A

Infectious arthritis

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11
Q

Body temperature is controlled by the ______

A

Hypothalamus

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12
Q

What does it mean that leukocytes and endotoxins from bacteria are pyrogenic?

A

It means that they act on the hypothalamus to increase temperature

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13
Q

When a fever is over 40deg C/104 deg F, what symptoms may we see?

A

Delirium
Seizures
Irreversible cell damage

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14
Q

What are some infectious causes of fever?

A

UTI, respiratory tract infection, catheter, surgical wound, pressure injury, colitis, peritonitis, meningitis

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15
Q

What are some non infectious causes of fever?

A

Drug reactions
PE
neoplasm
Tissue necrosis (stroke/MI)
Autoimmune disease

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16
Q

What factors make older adults more susceptible to infectious diseases?

A

Decreased # of naive T cells (slower to respond to new infections)
Decreased bone marrow (decreased # of B cells)
Increased reliance on memory cells (if activated too much, they become unable to respond)

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17
Q

T/f: older adults have reduced cell mediated immunity from T cells

A

True

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18
Q

Do older adults have a better or reduced reaction to vaccines?

A

Reduced reaction

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19
Q

What extrinsic factors increase susceptibility in older adults?

A

Atrophic skin makes it easier for infections to enter the skin
Decreased gag and cough reflexes
Decreased mucociliary activity
Denture associated infections
More often being in places where exposure can occur (hospitals and doctors offices)

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20
Q

Why are more severe infection less easily recognized in older adults?

A

Impaired thermoregulatory system
Vague/atypical symptoms
Implanted devices

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21
Q

What is the definition of an infection?

A

When an organism establishes a parasitic relationship w/a host an immune response is triggered and produces s/s

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22
Q

What is the definition of colonization?

A

When there is the presence of microorganisms without a/s of infection bc the host is a carrier
Host can transmit the infection
Those with immune system compromised may develop s/s

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23
Q

What is the definition of the incubation period?

A

The time bw the pathogen entering the host and the s/s appearing that can be days to months

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24
Q

What is the definition of latent infection?

A

When the pathogen has invaded and replicated but remains dormant and inactive for months to years

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25
Q

What are some examples of infections that have a latency period?

A

Tuberculosis, herpes zoster

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26
Q

What is the definition of the period of communicability?

A

The period that occurs during the latency period when the pathogen is present in height enough #s to shed but hasn’t yet produced s/s
The period of asymptomatic infection when the host can spread the infection from one person to another

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27
Q

What are the three possible results of disease transmission?

A

Destroyed by the first line defenses and never enters the host
Sub clinical infection with no s/s but a clinically identifiable immune response (increased WBCs)
Infectious disease where there is a clinically identifiable immune response and one or more clinical symptoms

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28
Q

What is the chain of transmission in infections?

A

There must be a pathogen present and capable of causing disease
There must be a reservoir for the pathogen to live and multiply (can be internal or external)
There must be a port of exit for the pathogen to leave the reservoir
There must be a way to get transmitted from host to another person
There must be a mode of entry for the pathogen to enter a new host
There must be a susceptible host with personal factors that decrease resistance to infection

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29
Q

What are the various modes of transmission of infections?

A

Contact
Airborne
Droplet
Vehicle
Vector borne

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30
Q

What is contact transmission?

A

Direct host to host transmission
Indirect host to surface to host transmission

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31
Q

What is airborne transmission of infections?

A

When an organism is less than 5um it can travel on air currents and stay suspended for hours

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32
Q

What is droplet transmission of infection?

A

When an organism is greater than 5um it can travel only up to 3 feet in the air then falls to surfaces

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33
Q

What is vehicle transmission of infection?

A

When one common source spread an organisms to many hosts often through infected food or water

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34
Q

What is vector-borne transmission of infection?

A

When infection travels through insect/animal

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35
Q

What are some examples of vector borne transmission infections?

A

Lyme disease
West Nile disease
Rabies

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36
Q

What is the goal of infection prevention and control?

A

To break as many chains in the chain of transmission as possible

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37
Q

T/f: where the chain of transmission is most effectively broken depends on the organism

A

True

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38
Q

What are some strategies for infection prevention and control?

A

Isolation/barriers
Immunizations
Drug prophylactics
Improved nutrition
Improved living conditions
Avoidance of risk behaviors like IV drug use and risky sex practices
Correction of environmental factors

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39
Q

What are the indications to use soap and water hand hygiene?

A

Hands are visibly soiled
Before eating
After using the restroom
With exposure to c diff

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40
Q

What are the indications for using an alcohol based rub for hand hygiene?

A

Exposure to bodily fluids
Direct client contact
Before and after donning gloves
After attending to a contaminated body area before moving onto a second area
Contact with objects in a client area

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41
Q

What are standard precautions?

A

Clean pt care areas and equipment
Hand hygiene
Handle laundry carefully
Proper handling of sharps

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42
Q

What are airborne precautions?

A

Private room
Door closed
N95 respirator mask
Limited pt transport
Restricted entry of susceptible persons

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43
Q

Who are standard precautions used for?

A

Everyone

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44
Q

Who are airborne precautions used for?

A

Varicella, zoster, COVID-19

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45
Q

What are droplet precautions?

A

Private room/shared with others with the same infection
Surgical mask
Limit pt transport

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46
Q

Who are droplet precautions used for?

A

Influenza
RSV
Adenovirus

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47
Q

What are contact precautions?

A

Private room/with others with the same infection
Gloves and gown (removed before leaving the room)
Limit transportation
Single use equipment where possible

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48
Q

Who are contact precautions used for?

A

MRSA
CRE
C diff

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49
Q

What are the healthcare associated infections (HAIs)?

A

Central line associated bloodstream infections (CLABSIs)
Catheter associated UTIs (CAUTIs)
Ventilator associated pneumonia (VAP)
Surgical site infections (SSIs)

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50
Q

What is involved in prevention of central line associated bloodstream infection (CLABSI)?

A

Dressing integrity
Hand hygiene

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51
Q

What is involved in prevention of catheter associated UTIs?

A

Hand hygiene before and after handling
Avoid kinks in the tubing
Avoid lifting above the level of the bladder

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52
Q

When does ventilator associated pneumonia occur?

A

Within 48-78 hours after intubation

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53
Q

How can we prevent ventilator associated pneumonia?

A

Raise the HOB 30%
Early mobility

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54
Q

What can we do to prevent surgical site infections?

A

Education about modifiable risk factors like smoking, obesity, and glucose control
Education about incisional care

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55
Q

What is enterobacteriaceae?

A

An infection typically found in the human GI tract that causes a range infections elsewhere

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56
Q

Why is enterobacteriaceae such a threat?

A

Bc we used to treat it with carbapenems, but now carbapenem resistant enterobacteriaceae (CRE) exists and doesn’t respond to this last resort treatment making it extremely hard to treat with only supportive care available

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57
Q

_____ is now recognized as one of the most urgent antimicrobial threats and can cause severe infection with few treatment options

58
Q

What is the most common cause of healthcare associated diarrhea worldwide?

59
Q

T/f: c diff infections can range from mild diarrhea to severe colonic inflammation that can lead to death

60
Q

C diff is associated with _____ use and any factors that reduces normal GI tract flora/mucosa

A

Antibiotics

61
Q

What is the route of transmission of c diff?

A

Fecal oral

62
Q

What is a spore forming infection that can survive on surfaces for weeks to months and is resistance to alcohol to kill it?

63
Q

When would we suspect a c diff infection?

A

With 3 or more loose stools in 24 hours with risk factors present

64
Q

How can we prevent the spread of c diff?

A

Soap and water hand hygiene
Bleach contact precautions
Private room/grouping (not used much anymore)
Single use equipment
Antibiotic stewardship (not overusing antibiotics)

65
Q

Is staphylococcus infection an issue if colonizing the skin?

A

No, only when there is a break in the skin and it can enter the body does it become an issue

66
Q

Staphylococcus infections are common in _____ ______ areas

A

High contact

67
Q

How is staphylococcus transmitted?

A

Via contact transmission

68
Q

T/f: Staphylococcus infections are more common in people who are colonized

69
Q

Which type of staphylococcus infection can be treated with methicillin?

70
Q

Which type of staphylococcus infection can’t be treated with methicillin?

71
Q

How does staphylococcus usually enter the body?

A

Through damaged skin

72
Q

What is the wide range of clinical diseases that can be caused by staphylococcus infection?

A

Wound infection
Skin infection/abscess
Food poisoning
Bacteremia
Endocarditis
Infection of cardiac prostheses
Surgical incision infection
Osteomyelitis
Prosthetic joint infection
Septic arthritis
Pneumonia

73
Q

What are the group A streptococcus infections?

A

Strep throat
Scarlet fever
Impetigo
Necrotizing fasciitis
Cellulitis
Myositis
Puerperal sepsis
Toxic shock syndrome
Rheumatic fever

74
Q

Who is most at risk with group B streptococci?

A

Neonates
Peripartem women
Elderly
Immunocompromised

75
Q

What does streptococcus pneumoniae lead to?

A

Meningitis
Bacteremia
Pneumonia
Otitis media
Sinusitis

76
Q

What is the most common cause of meningitis?

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

77
Q

Are vaccines available for streptococcus pneumoniae?

A

Yup for infants, young children, adults with risk factors, and adults over 65

78
Q

What is crostridial myonecrosis?

A

Gas gangrene
A sever life threatening Ms infection caused by anaerobic bacteria

79
Q

How does anaerobic bacteria lead to necrosis in crostridial myonecrosis?

A

The toxins produced by the bacteria cause tissue necrosis and aggregation of platelets and neutrophils, occluding the blood vessels and leading to further ischemia and the immune response can access the site

80
Q

What is the presentation of someone with crostridial myonecrosis?

A

Sudden onset severe pain, edema, skin darkening, gas bubbles, and foul odor

81
Q

T/f: pseudomonas is usually hospital acquired

82
Q

What does it mean that pseudomonas is an opportunistic infection?

A

It occurs in severely immunocompromised pts

83
Q

What infections result from pseudomonas?

A

Pneumonia, UTI, wound infection, bacteremia

84
Q

What are the risk factors for pseudomonas?

A

Burns, catheterization, CF, chronic lung disease, ventilation, neutropenia, diabetes

85
Q

T/f: pseudomonas thrives in dry environments

A

False, it grows in moist environments

86
Q

What is the #1 cause of death for people with CF?

A

Pseudomonas that leads to respiratory failure

87
Q

T/f: once someone with CF has pseudomonas, it is very hard to get rid of

88
Q

T/f: all herpes viruses have a primary sub clinical infection then persist in a latent phase

89
Q

How is varicella zoster virus acquired?

A

From airborne droplets

90
Q

What two inflections are caused by varicella zoster virus?

A

Chicken pox and shingles

91
Q

What is ALWAYS the result of first infection with varicella zoster virus?

A

Chicken pox

92
Q

T/f: you can only catch chickenpox from someone with chickenpox

A

False, you can get chicken pox from someone with chickpox or shingles

93
Q

Where does varicella zoster remain dormant after the initial infection?

A

In the DRG

94
Q

What is reactivation of varicella zoster virus called?

95
Q

T/f: varicella zoster is highly contagious in both active states

96
Q

How long is varicella zoster contagious for?

A

From 1-2 days before the rash until all lesions have crusted

97
Q

Chicken pox occurs when varicella zoster virus enters via where?

A

Mucus membranes

98
Q

Chicken pox down regulates ____ cells

99
Q

How does chickenpox spread throughout the body?

A

Through the bloodstream

100
Q

What kind of rash forms from chickenpox.

A

A disseminated rash that is all over the body

101
Q

Where does the chickenpox rash usually begin and where does it usually move to from there?

A

Scalp—>trunk—>extremities

102
Q

What are common complications for chickenpox in young infants, adults, and the immunocompromised?

A

Pneumonitis
Cerebellar ataxia
Encephalitis

103
Q

What is shingles?

A

Reactivating of the dormant varicella zoster virus that causes a painful blister like lesion along a dermatome

104
Q

What are the risk factors for shingles?

A

Over 50 yo, immunocompromised, college students living in dorms

105
Q

What are the most common dermatomes affected by shingles?

106
Q

When does shingles become a medical emergency?

A

If it affects the trigeminal nerve and comes near the eye bc it can cause serious vision issues

107
Q

When do influenza epidemics occur?

A

During late fall, early spring

108
Q

T/f: new subtypes of influenza can cause more morbidity and mortality than normal types A and B

109
Q

How is influenza spread?

A

Through droplets

110
Q

What are the symptoms of influenza?

A

High fever, chills, malaise, HA, sore throat, nasal congestion, non productive cough

111
Q

What are high risk groups for influenza?

A

Young children
People with chronic disease
The immunocompromised
Frail elderly

112
Q

T/f: COVID-19 still has higher mortality rates than SARS-CoV-1 and influenza

113
Q

How is COVID-19 spread?

A

Via inhaled droplets, but can also be aerosolized, or spread via contact

114
Q

What is the incubation period of COVID-19?

115
Q

When is viral load the highest with COVID-19?

A

1 days before symptom development

116
Q

Who is at the highest risk for COVID-19?

A

Those over 65
Those with HTN
Those with cardiac disease
The immunocompromised Frail
Those with COPD
Those with asthma
Those with diabetes

117
Q

What are the symptoms of COVID-19?

A

Fatigue, aches, SOB, dry cough

118
Q

T/f: susceptible people can develop severe disease from COVID-19 5-10 days after initial symptoms

119
Q

What severe diseases can result from COVID-19?

A

cytokine release syndrome, high fever, hypoxemia, pneumonia, ARDS

120
Q

What are common non respiratory complications of COVID-19?

A

CVA
DVT
PE
cardiomyopathy

121
Q

Long Covid has similar presentation and treatment to what with the addition of respiratory symptoms?

A

Chronic fatigue syndrome

122
Q

T/f: COVID-19 causes increased clotting and risk for DVT/PE

123
Q

What causes Lyme disease?

A

Spirochete species from ticks

124
Q

How long do ticks have to feed before spirochete is injected to cause Lyme disease?

A

36-72 hours

125
Q

How long does Lyme disease incubate before onset of symptoms?

126
Q

What is the only tick in PA that can spread Lyme disease?

A

Black legged/deer ticks

127
Q

How can we prevent Lyme disease?

A

Use bug spray, wears long sleeve and pants where deer have been, and do self tick checks

128
Q

What is a key sign of Lyme disease?

A

Bullseye rash

129
Q

When does stage 1 Lyme disease occur?

A

5-15 days post bite

130
Q

What is the presentation of stage 1 Lyme disease?

A

Skin rxns
Possible flu like symptoms

131
Q

When does stage 2 Lyme disease occur?

A

Days to weeks after infection

132
Q

What is the presentation of stage 2 Lyme disease?

A

Skin rash (more diffuse)
Neuro symptoms
Cardiac complications
MSK pain

133
Q

When does stage 3 Lyme disease occur?

A

Months to years later

134
Q

What is the presentation of stage 3 Lyme disease?

A

Jt and nerve symptoms

135
Q

STDs can be caused by what three things?

A

Bacteria
Viruses
Parasites

136
Q

T/f: some STDs are easily cured and others are chronic

137
Q

What are the risk factors for STDs?

A

Women
Teens
Men who have sex with men
Minorities
Multiple sex partners
Early adolescent initiation of sex
Partner with known risk factors
Residing in a detention center
Obstacles to obtaining healthcare
Blood transfusion between 1977-1984
Failure to use a condom or improper use of
Sharing drug needles

138
Q

T/f: drug users are more at risk for bacterial infections

139
Q

What about drug users determines the likelihood and types of infection?

A

What the drug is
Drug administration route
Drug administration site
Drug preparation

140
Q

What are the most common sites for infection with drug users?

A

Skin
Endovascular (endocarditis)
Respiratory (pneumonia or direct lung damage)
MSK (osteomyelitis)

141
Q

What is the first place that drugs go to?

A

The tricuspid valve in the R side of the heart

142
Q

What is the most common bacterial infection in drug users?