Burns Lectures Flashcards

1
Q

there is no greater trauma to the body than what kind of injury?

A

burns

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what should you do if there is a fire?

A

smoother it, don’t put water on it or try to pick it up

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what is the term for the skin coming off a burns wound?

A

eschar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

the darker (more opaque) and more adherent the eschar, the deeper or more superficial the wound?

A

the deeper the wound

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

when a burn gets deeper, is it more or less painful?

A

less painful

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what is the most common MOI of burn injuries?

A

home accidents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

almost 1/4 (24%) of all burn injuries occur in …

A

children bw 1-15 yo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

where do most pediatric burns occur?

A

in the home when unsupervised

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

where do the hair follicles, sweat glands, and sebaceous glands sit in the skin?

A

in the dermis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

t/f: some of the epidermis extends down into the dermis and wraps around the hair follicles

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

t/f: superficial partial thickness burns can heal on their own with intact hair follicles

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

t/f: full thickness burns can heal on their own

A

false

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what is a burn?

A

a loss of skin integrity bc of cell exposure to temps that are incompatible with cell life

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what are the types of thermal injuries?

A

flame
scald
contact

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what type of burns are contact burns usually?

A

deep

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what are the types of non-thermal burn injuries?

A

frost bite

electrical

chemical

radiation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

how long do burns take to fully express themselves?

A

12-24 hrs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

the severity of thermal and non-thermal burn injuries is related to what factors?

A

temp to which the skin is exposed

duration of exposure

thickness of the involved skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what is the thickest skin on the body?

A

heels/bottom of feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what is the thinnest skin on the body?

A

dorsum of hands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what is a epidermal (superficial) burn?

A

through the epidermis only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what kind of burn is sunburn typically?

A

superficial burn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what is a superficial partial thickness burn?

A

a burn through the epidermis and some of the dermis but hair follicles are intact

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what are some key signs of a superficial partial thickness burn?

A

in tact blisters

small shiny dots

epidermal budding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what is a deep partial thickness burn?

A

burn through the dermis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what is a full thickness burn?

A

burn through the dermis and into subQ tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

what burn has VERY adherent aeschar that cannot be easily removed?

A

full thickness burn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what is a KEY sign of a full thickness burn?

A

thrombosed veins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

what is a subdermal burn?

A

deepest burn through the subQ tissue into the hypodermis and muscles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

what burn has erythematous, is pink/red, and has an irritated dermis?

A

superficial burn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

what burn is bright pink/red/ mottled red, has an inflamed dermis, is erythematous with blanching and brisk capillary refill?

A

superficial partial thickness burn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

what burn is mixed red/waxy white and blanches with slow capillary refill?

A

deep partial thickness burn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

what burn is white (ischemic)/ charred/tan/fawn/mahogany/ black/red (hemoglobin fixation) with no blanching, has thrombosed vessels, and poor distal circulation?

A

full thickness burn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

what burn is charred appearing?

A

subdermal burn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

what burn has no blisters, a dry surface and delayed pain/tenderness?

A

superficial burn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

what burn has intact blisters, moist weeping/glistening surface when blisters removed, is very painful and is sensitive to changes in temp, exposure to air current, light touch?

A

superficial partial thickness burn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

what burn has broken blisters/ wet surface, is sensitive to pressure, but insensitive to light touch or soft pinprick?

A

deep partial thickness burn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

what burn has parchment-like/ leathery/rigid/dry skin is anesthetic, and has body hairs that pull out easily?

A

full thickness burn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

what burn has subQ tissue evident, is anesthetic, has muscle damage, and has neuro involvement?

A

subdermal burn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

what burn has min edema, spontaneous healing, and no scars?

A

superficial burn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

what burn has moderate edema, spontaneous healing, min scarring, and has discoloration?

A

superficial partial thickness burn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

what burn has marked edema, slow healing, and excessive scarring?

A

deep partial thickness burn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

what burn has a depressed area, heals with skin grafting, and leaves scarring?

A

full thickness burn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

what burn has tissue defects, can heal with skin graft/flap, and leaves scarring?

A

subdermal burn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

what types of burns can heal spontaneously?

A

superficial and superficial partial thickness burns

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

does a deep partial thickness burn heal fast or slow?

A

slow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

is there scarring with a superficial burn?

A

nope

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

what burns requires grafts to heal?

A

full thickness and subdermal burns

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

does a superficial partial thickness burn leave scarring?

A

yes, but minimal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

does a deep partial thickness burn leave scarring?

A

yes, excessive scarring

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

what are chemical burns?

A

burns that occur with any substance that causes a chemical rxn with the cutaneous and subQ tissues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

the depth of injury with chemical burns is related to what 4 factors?

A

concentration

duration of skin contact

penetration

quantity of burning agent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

t/f: with chemical burns, damage continues until the substance depletes its capacity to damage cellular protoplasm or it’s removed

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

what are the medical interventions for chemical burns?

A

immediate irrigation with copious amounts of water

tx of systemic toxicity if any

local care of the burn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

what is an electrical burn?

A

a burn that results from the passage of an electrical current through the body after the skin has contacted an electrical source

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

what is the entrance wound in an electrical burn?

A

the contact site of the body with electricity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

what is the exit wound (ground site) in an electrical burn?

A

the wound often larger than the entrance wound

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

is an exit wound always present with an electrical burn?

A

no

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

t/f: with electrical burns, much of the damage can be hidden under the intact skin bc of the resistance levels of the tissues in the body

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

what is the PT role in assessing the hidden damage of electrical burns?

A

testing sensation, ms strength, and pulses bc ms, blood vessels, and nerve are more easily affected than skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

what voltage would cause a low voltage electrical burn?

A

<1000V

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

a flash burn is a ____ voltage electrical burn

A

low

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

what causes a flash burn?

A

electric sparks causing direct thermal burns to the skin or through clothes catching fire

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

what voltage would cause a high voltage electrical burn?

A

> 1000V

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

what is a high voltage electrical burn?

A

a contact burns by entry of electric current into the body through the skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

electrical burns are related to what principles for electricity?

A

Ohm’s law

Joule’s law

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

what is Ohm’s law?

A

electric current is directly proportional to voltage and inversely proportional to resistance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

what body tissue has the greatest resistance?

A

bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

what body tissue has the least resistance?

A

nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

order these tissues from most to least resistance: muscle, fat, bone, tendon, skin, nerve, blood vessel

A

bone, fat, tendon, skin, muscle, blood vessel, nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

t/f: bone generates more heat than other tissues so it is responsible for causing thermal damage to surrounding tissues

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

what is Joule’s law?

A

heat is produced when an electrical current meets resistance over time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

if an electrical current reaches bone, what happens?

A

it develops excessive amounts of heat bc of its high resistance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

what are the immediate effects of electrical current?

A

burns

ms damage

cardiac arrythmias (v fib)

acute renal failure

SC damage

vertebral fx

neuro sx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

do acute or delayed onset neuro sx have a better px for recovery?

A

acute onset neuro sx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

what are the long term sequelae of electrical injury? (just know a few, I’m not listing them all)

A

HA

generalized pain

fatigue/exhaustion

frustration

guilt

tremor

joint stiffness

night sweat, fever, chills

ms spasms

pruritis

anxiety

flashbacks

and many more :)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

what are radiation burns?

A

burns that result from radiation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

what are friction burns?

A

burns that result from being dragged

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

what are inhalation injuries?

A

pulmonary trauma caused by inhalation of thermal or chemical irritants (mostly chemical, carbon monoxide)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

t/f: inhalation injury causes thermal injury to the upper airways creating edema in the upper airways

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

t/f: inhalation injury causes local chemical irritation through the respiratory tract

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

what chemicals often cause systemic toxicity in inhalation injury?

A

carbon monoxide (CO)

hydrogen cyanide (HCN)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

66% of pts with facial burns have what kind of injury?

A

inhalation injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

mortality increases 20% for pts with burns and ____ injury

A

inhalation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

mortality increases 40% for pts with burns, ____ injury, and _____

A

inhalation, pneumonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

how are inhalation injuries diagnosed?

A

through subjective and objective measures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

what subjective/objective things help diagnose an inhalation injury?

A

flame injury

injury in an enclosed space

disability (unable to leave fire site)

facial burns

singed nose hairs

carbonaceous sputum

soot

stridor

carboxyhemoglobin levels

chest CT

fiberoptic bronchoscopy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

what is the tx for inhalation injury?

A

100% O2 ASAP like rocky

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

t/f: the half life of COHb varies with concentrations of O2 inhaled

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

t/f: the sooner we get 100% O2 to a pt with inhalation injury, the sooner the CO is to dissipate

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

if on room air, what is the half life of COHb?

A

320 min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

if on 100% O2, what is the half-life of COHb?

A

74 min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

what can reduce the half life of COHb to 20 min?

A

hyperbaric chamber O2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

t/f: hyperbaric chamber O2 is the gold standard tx for inhalation injury

A

false, there is insufficient evidence to support the use of hyperbaric oxygen for tx of pts with CO poisoning bc it can take too long to get to one

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

t/f: chest PT reduces pneumonia following inhalation injury

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

what are the 3 main purposes of chest PT in rehab with an inhalation injury?

A

expiratory rib cage compression

postural drainage

cough exercises

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

what are the burn injury sequelae?

A

immune system

metabolic

CV system

psych

endocrine

MSK

integ

infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

what are the 3 zones that can be identified concentrically around the center of the burn injury?

A

zone of coagulation

zone of stasis

zone of hyperaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

what is the zone of coagulation?

A

the deepest center of the wound

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

what is the zone of stasis?

A

the zone around the zone of coagulation that has a 50/50 chance of staying the way it is or becoming deeper and converting into the zone of coagulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

what is the zone of hyperaemia?

A

the mostly superficial outer burn rim

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

what zone of a burn has irreversible tissue damage?

A

the zone of coagulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

what zone of a burn is characterized by decreased tissue perfusion with tissue that is potentially salvageable?

A

the zone of stasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

what is involved in the immune response to burns?

A

a more pronounced inflammatory response compared to non-burn trauma

initial pro-inflammatory response (Th1) from the innate immune system

shift to sustained anti-inflammatory state (Th2)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

what are the consequences of altered immune response following burn injury?

A

increased susceptibility to infections

compromised immune cell fxn

persistent elevation of inflammatory markers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

t/f: there is an imbalance bw the innate and adaptive immune responses following a burn injury

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

describe the imbalance bw the innate and adaptive immune responses following a burn injury?

A

we need a constant innate immune response, but the humoral response overpowers and shuts down the innate immune response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

describe the color and smell of a pseudomonas infection

A

green and sweet smelling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

t/f: following a burn injury, there is a non-specific down regulation of the immune system

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

what is the immediate metabolic change following a burn injury?

A

hypermetabolic state

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

how long can the hypermetabolic state following a burn injury last?

A

up to 3 yrs post-injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

hypermetabolism following burns results in what?

A

sustained loss of ms mass

decreased bone density

high protein degradation

reduced ms mitochondrial fxn

chronic ms weakness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

t/f: hypermetabolism affects only severe burn pts

A

false, it affects both severe and non-severe burn pts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

lipolysis results in the increase of what things?

A

total fat and fat %

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

lipolysis results in the lose of what things?

A

body weight

lean body mass

bone mineral content

bone mineral density

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

what is proteolysis?

A

protein breakdown that increases 3-4 fold bw 1-3 weeks post-burn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

proteolysis leads to what?

A

a negative protein net balance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

why is proteolysis increased post-burn?

A

it is the body’s way of using its AAs to try and help with the hypermetabolic state

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

there is a ____ in serum glucose following a burn

A

increase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

there is ____ levels of endogenous insulin following a burn

A

increased

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

t/f: pts post burn often have insulin resistance and are more likely to develop DM from their injuries

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

t/f: the more severe burn pts eat, the faster they heal

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

nutritional requirements following a burn injury are proportional to what factors?

A

TBSA burn, age, and weight of the pt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

burn pts may require up to how many calories per day?

A

4000-5000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

do children with burn injuries require more or less calories than their adult counterparts with burns?

A

more calories

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

what are the CV responses 12-48 hrs post-burn?

A

increased capillary permeability throughout the entire body

vasoconstriction

increased protein leakage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

what is fluid resuscitation?

A

fluids administered via IV over 24-72 hrs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

with fluid resuscitation, we keep adult urine output ____ CC/hr

A

30-60

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

what pts get fluid resuscitation?

A

adults with >20% TBSA burns

children with >10% TBSA burns

pts with pre-existing medical conditions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

what are some CVP consequences of burns?

A

increased HR, cardiac output, and capillary permeability

decreased myocardial contractility, hypotension, and end organ hypo-perfusion

pulmonary dysfxn, bronchoconstriction, and resp failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

what is a severe CV response to burns that causes vascular, neuromuscular, and respiratory compromise?

A

compartment syndrome

132
Q

what are red flag signs to look for in CV responses to burns that may indicate compartment syndrome?

A

diminished pulses and weakness

133
Q

what are signs to look for in CV responses to burns that may indicate compartment syndrome?

A

diminished pulses

weakness

change in temp

edema

signs of ischemia

134
Q

what are the most common contractures that develop from burns

A

hip IR, flexion, and abduction

cervical flexion

shoulder protraction

135
Q

what results in contracture development post burn?

A

pain

position of comfort

ms weakness

136
Q

what are the principles of tissue (skin) healing?

A

the position of comfort will be the position of contracture

the location of the contracture depends on the location/depth of the burn, gravity, and pt compliance

137
Q

the location of the contracture depends on what factors?

A

the location of the burns

depth of the burns

gravity

pt (non)compliance

138
Q

t/f: deeper burns are more likely to develop contractures

139
Q

what are the mental health consequences of burns?

A

PTSD and depression (not important how severe the incident was)

140
Q

does the epidermis regenerate or repair?

A

regenerates

141
Q

intact epithelium in epidermal healing attempts to cover the wound through what methods?

A

miosis and movt of the cells from the basal layer

142
Q

t/f: moving epithelial cells always maintain contact with normal epithelium

143
Q

what causes the dryness and itching in burns?

A

the damage to sebaceous glands

144
Q

what is a sign that the wound can heal through epidermal healing?

A

epidermal buds

145
Q

does the dermis heal through regeneration or repair?

146
Q

what are the 3 phases of scar formation?

A

inflammatory phase

proliferative/fibroblastic phase

maturation phase

147
Q

what causes hemostasis in phase one of dermal healing?

A

vasoconstriction and platelet aggregation

148
Q

what is involved in the inflammatory phase of dermal healing?

A

release of histamine leading to increased capillary permeability and vasodilation

phagocytosis

149
Q

what is involved in the fibroblastic (proliferative) phase of dermal healing?

A

accumulation of fibroblasts in the wound

collagen production

neovascularization

150
Q

what is the difference bw a hypertrophic scar and a keloid?

A

ahypertrophic scar stays within the og wound boundaries, while a keloid goes outside of these boundaries

151
Q

what causes a hypertrophic scar in burns?

A

the collagen is laid out in disorganized bundles and myofibroblasts cause the tissue to contract and elevate

imbalance bw collagen production and lysis

rich blood supply

152
Q

what is scar maturation in dermal healing? how long does it last?

A

the period during which the scar continues to change in form, bulk, and strength for 1-2 yrs

153
Q

what are the indications for surgery with burns?

A

partial-full thickness injury

crosses joints

potential to limit fxn

large area

154
Q

what are the types of permanent grafts?

A

autografts

cultured skin

155
Q

what is the only type of temporary graft?

A

homograft (allograft)

156
Q

what are the 2 types of autografts that can be used in burns?

A

full thickness autograft

split thickness autograft

157
Q

what is a full thickness autograft?

A

a graft using all the dermis from the donor site

158
Q

which autograft results in less scarring?

A

full thickness autograft

159
Q

does the donor site heal on its own with a full thickness autograft?

A

no, it needs a split thickness graft

160
Q

what is a split thickness skin graft (STSG)?

A

a meshed skin graft that doesn’t use the entire dermis of the donor site

161
Q

t/f: we can harvest from the donor sites over and over again with STSGs

162
Q

when would we use a STSG?

A

for a large area

for a dirty wound so that exudate can come through

163
Q

does the donor site heal on its own with STSGs?

164
Q

what is an allograft/homograft?

A

cadaver skin

165
Q

most often, allografts/homografts are used for what burns?

A

burns that are 50% or greater

166
Q

what are the indications for allograft/homograft?

A

temporary biologic coverage (reduce pain, decrease water/electrolyte/protein loss, stimulate vascularization, protect wound from bacterial contamination, promote dermal matrix)

dressing for partial thickness wounds

wound bed prep for autografting

167
Q

what are the alternative methods for wound closure?

A

xenografts

artificial skin substitutes

168
Q

what is a xenograft?

A

a graft obtained from an unrelated species

169
Q

are xenografts used very often in the US anymore?

170
Q

what are artificial skin substitutes composed of?

A

biological, synthetic, and biosynthetic materials

171
Q

what do artificial skin substitutes do?

A

provide scaffold and substitutes for the extracellular matrix

framework for neovascularization

cell adhesion

proliferation

172
Q

is there motion restrictions for the donor site

173
Q

how many days of post-op immobilization is there for the graft site?

174
Q

bc pts have to be immobilized for 3-5 days post graft, what do we as PTs have a role in doing?

A

putting them in a position of fxn

175
Q

what is involved in phase 1 (initial assessment and triage) of medical tx of burns?

A

stop the burning process

primary survey

secondary survey

begin fluid resuscitation

176
Q

what is the primary survey in burns assessment?

A

airway, breathing, and circulation assessment

177
Q

what is the secondary survey in burns assessment?

A

assessment of other injuries, estimating % TBSA

178
Q

with fluid resuscitation, how do we calculate the initial fluid rate?

A

either 2-4 mL/kg per 24 hrs to estimate 24 hr volume or using the rule of tens

179
Q

when does fluid resuscitation occur?

A

0-48 hrs post injury

180
Q

what are the phases of medical tx of burns?

A

phase 1: initial assessment and triage

phase 2: fluid resuscitation

phase 3: burn wound care and coverage

181
Q

what is involved in burn wound care and coverage?

A

use of topical antimicrobial creams or dressings to prevent infection

surgical debridement, burn wound excision, and autografting

optimize conditions for wound healing

cleansing, debridement, dress/bandage

182
Q

when is the most ideal time for PT/OT to get ROM measurements for a burn pt?

A

when they are getting bathed for wound cleansing

183
Q

what debridement may be used for burns?

A

mechanical

enzymatic

sharp

biologic

184
Q

what form of debridement is the best source of wound care due to the fact that it only affects the necrotic tissue and doesn’t disrupt the good tissue?

A

biologic debridement (maggots)

185
Q

why would an escharotomy be done?

A

to prevent compartment syndrome

186
Q

why does compartment syndrome occur post-burns?

A

bc the increased vascular permeability in burns leads to increased fluid compressing the vasculature when the skin can’t stretch anymore

187
Q

if an escharotomy doesn’t work, what can be done next?

A

faschiotomy

188
Q

what critical medical intervention must begin immediately after admission?

A

an eval for an escharotomy

fluid resuscitation

189
Q

when is fluid resuscitation indicated?

A

in adults with >20% TBSA burns

kids with >10% TBSA burns

anyone with comorbidities

190
Q

why is it crucial to intubate right away with an inhalation injury?

A

bc the throat will swell, then an emergency trach tub has to be placed to get oxygen

faster O2=shorter 1/2 life of CO

191
Q

what is the PT role in prevention of compartment syndrome?

A

recognizing the s/s (weakness and decreased pulses)

192
Q

an eval of burns should be done within ___ hrs of admission

193
Q

what is involved in rehab management in the acute phase?

A

eval

assess the burns

anticipate fxnal and cosmetic deformities

design appropriate rehab program

194
Q

what is involved in the CVP systems review?

A

BP

RR

HR

pulse

SpO2

Edema measurement

195
Q

how is edema often measured in acute care?

A

observation BL of min, mod, or severe edema in one side compared to the other

196
Q

what is involved in the integ systems review?

A

observation

location/body diagram

describe wound appearance

197
Q

what things do we need to describe about the wound?

A

tissue color

eschar/exudate color and texture

presence of epidermis

presence of granulation tissue

198
Q

what is involved in the MSK systems review?

A

ROM and strength

199
Q

what pain scale is more commonly used in pediatric populations?

A

Wong Baker scale

200
Q

what pain scale is more commonly used in adult populations?

A

NPRS (0-10)

201
Q

t/f: immobilization of joints leads to stiff joints

202
Q

t/f: when testing mobility, we should see what the pt can do first

203
Q

what should we note about a pt’s mobility ability?

A

how long it takes
how much effort it takes
how much assistance they need
what their VS response is

204
Q

what is the issue with a patient being in ER at the LEs?

A

it compresses the fibular head and the common peroneal nerve with can lead to foot drop

205
Q

what are some interventions in acute care?

A

pt instruction

airway clearance

assistive technology

biophysical agents

fxnal training

integ repair/protection

manual therapy

motor fxn training

ther ex

206
Q

when should a positioning program begin?

A

on the day of admission

207
Q

what are the goals of a positioning program with burns?

A

minimize edema

prevent tissue destruction

maintain soft tissues in an elongated state

preserve fxn

208
Q

what is the position that a joint should be put into?

A

opposite of the anticipated contracture based on eval of the wound distribution and depth

209
Q

what is the most common deformity of the anterior neck?

210
Q

what is the motion to be stressed in positioning for flexion neck contracture?

A

hyperextension

211
Q

what is the most common deformity of the shoulder/axilla?

A

adduction and IR

212
Q

what motions need to be stressed in an adduction/IR shoulder/axilla contracture?

A

abduction, flexion, and ER

213
Q

what is the most common deformity of the elbow?

A

flexion and pronation

214
Q

what motions need to be stressed in the elbow for flexion/pronation contracture?

A

extension and supination

215
Q

what is the most common deformity of the hand?

A

claw hand (intrinsic minus)

216
Q

what motions need to be stressed in the intrinsic hand deformity?

A

wrist extension, MCP flexion, PIP/DIP extension, thumb abduction

217
Q

what are the most common deformities of the hip/groin?

A

flexion, adduction

218
Q

what motions need to be stressed with a hip flexion/adduction contracture?

A

all motions, esp hip ext and abduction

219
Q

what is the most common knee deformity?

220
Q

what motion needs to be stressed in a knee flexion contracture?

221
Q

what is the most common deformity of the ankle?

222
Q

what motions need to be stressed in a PF contracture?

A

all motions, esp DF

223
Q

t/f: splints should be fabricated for pts ONLY if ROM or fxn would be lost w/o them

224
Q

what are the goals of splinting?

A

prevention of contracture

maintenance of ROM achieved during exercise session or surgical release

reduction of developing contractures

protection of a jt or tendon

to reduce the overall pain experience

225
Q

what are the different options for wearing schedules with splints?

A

night
resting
continuous

226
Q

t/f: splinting would be continuous for several days following skin grafting

227
Q

t/f: splints are meant to be a therapy in and of themselves

A

false, they are intended to serve as adjuncts to the therapy program until full active motion can be achieved

228
Q

if a pt has 25% TBSA superficial partial thickness burns over BUE, neck, and trunk and they are cooperative and motivated, do we splint them? why or why not?

A

no bc the burns are superficial partial thickness which will have minimal scarring due to minimal dermal involvement

229
Q

if a pt has 8% TBSA sclad burns in BL hands with decreased AROM by half and they are inconsistent with exercise, will we splint them? why or why not?

A

probably at night and maybe at rest during the day bc we want them using their hand as much as possible

230
Q

if a pt has 20% TBSA flash burns BLE and is able to achieve full knee extension after exercise and stretching, do we splint them? why or why not?

A

yes, splint at rest to maintain their ROM gained with exercise

231
Q

what is involved in ther ex in acute rehab of burns?

A

ROM

active exercise

232
Q

t/f: ROM in the area of unhealed burns can be very painful

233
Q

when does active exercise begin?

A

on day of admission

234
Q

what is an opportune time to exercise to be done with burns pts?

A

during dressing changes

235
Q

why is during dressing changes a good time to do our exercises?

A

bc the burns wound is visible and the therapist can monitor the wound during movt

236
Q

t/f: in the presence of recent skin grafting, the timing of reintroduction of active and passive exercise in the area is variable, depending on surgeon protocols

237
Q

t/f: PNF patterns are less painful for burns pts

238
Q

hypermetabolism, skeletal catabolism, and prolonged bed rest in burns leads to what declines in physical fitness?

A

decreased aerobic capacity

decreased lean body mass

decreased pulmonary fxn

decreased strength

239
Q

exercise may consist of _____, ______, or other resistive training devices

A

isokinetic, isotonic

240
Q

t/f: exercises that will stress the CV system are encouraged with burns pts

241
Q

what exercises can we use to stress the CV system with burns pts?

A

walking

cycling/rowing/ergometry/treadmill/stairs

interactive video games

242
Q

t/f: ambulation activities should be initiated as soon as possible

243
Q

post skin graft, how should the LE be wrapped?

A

in elastic bandages in a figure 8 pattern to support the new grafts and promote venous return

244
Q

t/f: systematic reviews and meta-analysis shows that pts with delayed ambulation where found to have increased pain levels at rest and when ambulating and possible increased infection rates

245
Q

when a pt is severely orthostatic, what can we use to get them accommodated to upright?

A

tilt table

246
Q

during the critical phase of burns, what are the psycho-social concerns?

A

preoccupation with their own somatic disorders

may experience nightmares and depression

247
Q

during the stabilization phase of burns, what are the psycho-social concerns?

A

more confidence in their survival, but depression persists, anxiety regression is more evident and pts are usually more demanding

248
Q

during what phase of burns are the pt behaviors more reflective of their true personality and the pts get more involved in their own tx and welfare?

249
Q

during the pre-discharge phase of burns, what are the psycho-social concerns?

A

ambivalence about discharge

separation anxiety

bouts of depression/euphoria

250
Q

what are some interventions involved in post-acute care with burns?

A

pt instruction

airway clearance

assistive technology

biophysical agents

fxnal training integ repair/protection

manual therapy

motor fxn training

ther ex

251
Q

t/f: superficial partial thickness burns usually don’t scar and heal on their own in 10-14 days

252
Q

what burns scar the most?

A

deep partial and full thickness burns

253
Q

t/f: early healing/grafting decreased scarring

254
Q

do children or the elderly scar more?

255
Q

t/f: you can predict the severity of scarring based on race

256
Q

what phase of scarring is characterized by a red, raised, rigid scar

A

immature scarring

257
Q

what phase of scarring is characterized by a pink, raised, rigid scar?

A

semi-mature scarring

258
Q

what phase of scarring is characterized by a pale, plantar, and pliable scar?

A

mature scarring

259
Q

what scar would move as one unit when we try to mobilize it?

A

an immature scar

260
Q

during what scar maturation phase would we want to do our interventions?

A

during the immature and semi-mature scar phases

261
Q

during what scar maturation phase would our interventions be ineffective?

A

during the mature scar phase

262
Q

what are the 4 categories of the Vancouver Scar Scale?

A

pigmentation

vascularity

pliability

height

263
Q

what is 0 for pigmentation on the Vancouver Scar Scale?

A

normal pigmentation

264
Q

what is 1 for pigmentation on the Vancouver Scar Scale?

A

hypopigmentation

265
Q

what is 2 for pigmentation on the Vancouver Scar Scale?

A

hyperpigmentation

266
Q

what is 0 for vascularity on the Vancouver Scar Scale?

267
Q

what is 1 for vascularity on the Vancouver Scar Scale?

268
Q

what is 2 for vascularity on the Vancouver Scar Scale?

A

pink to red

269
Q

what is 3 for vascularity on the Vancouver Scar Scale?

270
Q

what is 4 for vascularity on the Vancouver Scar Scale?

A

red to purple

271
Q

what is 5 for vascularity on the Vancouver Scar Scale?

272
Q

what is 0 for pliability on the Vancouver Scar Scale?

273
Q

what is 1 for pliability on the Vancouver Scar Scale?

A

supple (flexible w/min resistance)

274
Q

what is 2 for pliability on the Vancouver Scar Scale?

A

yielding (giving away to pressure)

275
Q

what is 3 for pliability on the Vancouver Scar Scale?

A

firm (inflexible, not easily moved, resistant to manual pressure)

276
Q

what is 4 for pliability on the Vancouver Scar Scale?

A

banding (rope-like tissue that blanches with extension of the scar)

277
Q

what is 5 for pliability on the Vancouver Scar Scale?

A

contracture (permanent shortening of scar producing deformity or distortion)

278
Q

t/f: the Vancouver Scar Scale has color scales for light and dark skin

279
Q

how is vascularity measured in the Vancouver Scar Scale?

A

use clear plastic to apply pressure to the area then observe the return of color

280
Q

a ____ scar will bridge a jt and continue to contract until it meets an opposing force

A

hypertrophic

281
Q

what is the gold standard tx for hypertrophic scarring?

A

pressure therapy

282
Q

what is pressure therapy for hypertrophic scars?

A

constant and controlled pressure (slightly greater than that of capillary pressure of 23 mmHg)

283
Q

RCTs show that pressure therapy results in significant differences in what? what does it not show a difference in?

A

thickness, brightness, redness, pigmentation, and hardness

no effect on vascularity

284
Q

what is a key effect of pressure therapy?

A

decreasing vascularity which in turn decreases myofibroblast activity and therefore collagen synthesis

285
Q

what is the typical pressure for pressure therapy in hypertrophic scarring?

286
Q

how long is pressure therapy applied for throughout the day?

A

24 hrs/day for about a yr until scar has matured

287
Q

when is pressure therapy initiated?

A

when the wound are healed/closed

288
Q

t/f: the garment in pressure therapy should fit tightly and slightly blanch the skin

289
Q

pts should have at least how many garment sets for pressure therapy?

290
Q

what are the various methods of applying pressure?

A

ace bandages

custom made pressure garments

pre-fabricated garments (tubigrip)

self-adhesive wraps (coban)

inserts

splints

transparent face masks

291
Q

what kind of stretch should be used for scars?

A

a static low load long duration stretch (blanching on stretch)

292
Q

t/f: applying a stretch to the tissues facilitates collagen fiber alignment

293
Q

can we use serial casting for scars?

294
Q

can we use paraffin for scars?

295
Q

what is scar massage effective for?

A

decreasing scar thickness

depression

pain and scar characterisitics (vascularity, pliability, scar height)

decreased pruritis (itching)

296
Q

why wound we use or not use US for scarring?

A

we could use to to heat tissue with restricted ROM

but we also may not choose to use it bc we don’t want to heat tissue with excessive vascularity

297
Q

t/f: hands are one of 3 of the most common sites for contracture development

298
Q

t/f: loss of fxn of the hands has no real effects on the pt

A

false, loss of hand fxn can be devastating on life roles

299
Q

what is the typical contracture position of the hands?

A

intrinsic plus (wrist flexion, MCP extension, IP flexion, thumb adduction)

300
Q

what position do we want to splint the hands in to prevent intrinsic minus positioning?

A

intrinsic plus (wrist extension, MCP flexion, IP extension)

301
Q

when there are HEALTHY exposed tendons, what ROM can we do?

A

ISOLATED jt ROM

302
Q

t/f: no full fisting is done in the presence of questionably viable extensor tendon mechanism and unhealthy exposed tendon or jt

303
Q

when would reconstructive options be considered for hypertrophic scarring?

A

when the scars are matured and all else has failed after our tx

304
Q

what is a z plasty for hypertrophic scarring?

A

excision of the scar and closure in a “z” pattern

305
Q

what is a muscle flap reconstruction for hypertrophic scarring?

A

microvascular transplantation of the muscle and arteriovenous bundle to the site of a wound

306
Q

when is a muscle flap reconstruction chosen for hypertrophic scarring?

A

for areas with weak blood supply

307
Q

what is a tissue expander?

A

when a balloon is placed in the skin and slowly expanded over time, then extra skin is placed over the scar/wound

308
Q

what is HO?

A

the formation of new bone in tissues that normally don’t ossify (soft tissue surrounding a jt, within a jt capsule and ligs, or a bony bridge across a jt)

309
Q

what is the most common location of HO?

A

posteromedial elbow

310
Q

what is Steven Johnson Syndrome/Toxic Epidermal Necrolysis?

A

a dermatologic disorder characterized by separation of the epidermis and dermis with subsequent skin loss (epidermis sloughs off leaving an exposed dermis)

311
Q

t/f: the etiology behind Steven Johnson Syndrome/Toxic Epidermal Necrolysis is well defined

312
Q

what are possible causes of Steven Johnson Syndrome/Toxic Epidermal Necrolysis?

A

drugs

infection/disease

313
Q

what drugs can cause Steven Johnson Syndrome/Toxic Epidermal Necrolysis?

A

anticonvulsants

acetaminophen

meds containing sulfur when allergic to sulfur

314
Q

t/f: Steven Johnson Syndrome/Toxic Epidermal Necrolysis is VERY painful

315
Q

how long does it typically take Steven Johnson Syndrome/Toxic Epidermal Necrolysis to heal?

A

10-14 days

316
Q

what are the clinical manifestations of Steven Johnson Syndrome/Toxic Epidermal Necrolysis?

A

painful skin rash or ulcerations

appears like a superficial partial thickness burns

mucosal involvement

re-epithelialization within 14 days w/o scarring or infection

317
Q

Steven Johnson Syndrome/Toxic Epidermal Necrolysis has a mortality rate of 25-100% most commonly due to what?

318
Q

what is involved in medical management of Steven Johnson Syndrome/Toxic Epidermal Necrolysis?

A

discontinuation of causative drug

meticulous wound care

nutritional support

pulmonary care

pain management

319
Q

what is involved in rehab of Steven Johnson Syndrome/Toxic Epidermal Necrolysis?

A

early ROM and fxnal activities

CPT, swallowing evals, and splinting as needed

320
Q

is scar management usually necessary with Steven Johnson Syndrome/Toxic Epidermal Necrolysis?

321
Q

when would we use scar management for Steven Johnson Syndrome/Toxic Epidermal Necrolysis?

A

if infection causes it to convert to a deep partial thickness wound

322
Q

what is necrotizing fasciitis?

A

a rapidly progressive infection that destroys deep soft tissues including ms fascia and overlapping subQ fat

strep A

323
Q

necrotizing fasciitis is commonly seen in what pt population?

A

pts with kidney failure

324
Q

how would necrotizing fasciitis wounds be treated?

A

with a wound vac changed every 3-5 days

325
Q

are kids and adults with burns treated the same?