Burns Lectures Flashcards

1
Q

there is no greater trauma to the body than what kind of injury?

A

burns

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2
Q

what should you do if there is a fire?

A

smoother it, don’t put water on it or try to pick it up

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3
Q

what is the term for the skin coming off a burns wound?

A

eschar

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4
Q

the darker (more opaque) and more adherent the eschar, the deeper or more superficial the wound?

A

the deeper the wound

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5
Q

when a burn gets deeper, is it more or less painful?

A

less painful

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6
Q

what is the most common MOI of burn injuries?

A

home accidents

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7
Q

almost 1/4 (24%) of all burn injuries occur in …

A

children bw 1-15 yo

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8
Q

where do most pediatric burns occur?

A

in the home when unsupervised

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9
Q

where do the hair follicles, sweat glands, and sebaceous glands sit in the skin?

A

in the dermis

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10
Q

t/f: some of the epidermis extends down into the dermis and wraps around the hair follicles

A

true

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11
Q

t/f: superficial partial thickness burns can heal on their own with intact hair follicles

A

true

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12
Q

t/f: full thickness burns can heal on their own

A

false

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13
Q

what is a burn?

A

a loss of skin integrity bc of cell exposure to temps that are incompatible with cell life

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14
Q

what are the types of thermal injuries?

A

flame
scald
contact

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15
Q

what type of burns are contact burns usually?

A

deep

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16
Q

what are the types of non-thermal burn injuries?

A

frost bite

electrical

chemical

radiation

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17
Q

how long do burns take to fully express themselves?

A

12-24 hrs

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18
Q

the severity of thermal and non-thermal burn injuries is related to what factors?

A

temp to which the skin is exposed

duration of exposure

thickness of the involved skin

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19
Q

what is the thickest skin on the body?

A

heels/bottom of feet

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20
Q

what is the thinnest skin on the body?

A

dorsum of hands

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21
Q

what is a epidermal (superficial) burn?

A

through the epidermis only

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22
Q

what kind of burn is sunburn typically?

A

superficial burn

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23
Q

what is a superficial partial thickness burn?

A

a burn through the epidermis and some of the dermis but hair follicles are intact

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24
Q

what are some key signs of a superficial partial thickness burn?

A

in tact blisters

small shiny dots

epidermal budding

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25
Q

what is a deep partial thickness burn?

A

burn through the dermis

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26
Q

what is a full thickness burn?

A

burn through the dermis and into subQ tissue

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27
Q

what burn has VERY adherent aeschar that cannot be easily removed?

A

full thickness burn

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28
Q

what is a KEY sign of a full thickness burn?

A

thrombosed veins

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29
Q

what is a subdermal burn?

A

deepest burn through the subQ tissue into the hypodermis and muscles

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30
Q

what burn has erythematous, is pink/red, and has an irritated dermis?

A

superficial burn

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31
Q

what burn is bright pink/red/ mottled red, has an inflamed dermis, is erythematous with blanching and brisk capillary refill?

A

superficial partial thickness burn

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32
Q

what burn is mixed red/waxy white and blanches with slow capillary refill?

A

deep partial thickness burn

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33
Q

what burn is white (ischemic)/ charred/tan/fawn/mahogany/ black/red (hemoglobin fixation) with no blanching, has thrombosed vessels, and poor distal circulation?

A

full thickness burn

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34
Q

what burn is charred appearing?

A

subdermal burn

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35
Q

what burn has no blisters, a dry surface and delayed pain/tenderness?

A

superficial burn

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36
Q

what burn has intact blisters, moist weeping/glistening surface when blisters removed, is very painful and is sensitive to changes in temp, exposure to air current, light touch?

A

superficial partial thickness burn

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37
Q

what burn has broken blisters/ wet surface, is sensitive to pressure, but insensitive to light touch or soft pinprick?

A

deep partial thickness burn

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38
Q

what burn has parchment-like/ leathery/rigid/dry skin is anesthetic, and has body hairs that pull out easily?

A

full thickness burn

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39
Q

what burn has subQ tissue evident, is anesthetic, has muscle damage, and has neuro involvement?

A

subdermal burn

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40
Q

what burn has min edema, spontaneous healing, and no scars?

A

superficial burn

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41
Q

what burn has moderate edema, spontaneous healing, min scarring, and has discoloration?

A

superficial partial thickness burn

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42
Q

what burn has marked edema, slow healing, and excessive scarring?

A

deep partial thickness burn

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43
Q

what burn has a depressed area, heals with skin grafting, and leaves scarring?

A

full thickness burn

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44
Q

what burn has tissue defects, can heal with skin graft/flap, and leaves scarring?

A

subdermal burn

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45
Q

what types of burns can heal spontaneously?

A

superficial and superficial partial thickness burns

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46
Q

does a deep partial thickness burn heal fast or slow?

A

slow

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47
Q

is there scarring with a superficial burn?

A

nope

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48
Q

what burns requires grafts to heal?

A

full thickness and subdermal burns

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49
Q

does a superficial partial thickness burn leave scarring?

A

yes, but minimal

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50
Q

does a deep partial thickness burn leave scarring?

A

yes, excessive scarring

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51
Q

what are chemical burns?

A

burns that occur with any substance that causes a chemical rxn with the cutaneous and subQ tissues

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52
Q

the depth of injury with chemical burns is related to what 4 factors?

A

concentration

duration of skin contact

penetration

quantity of burning agent

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53
Q

t/f: with chemical burns, damage continues until the substance depletes its capacity to damage cellular protoplasm or it’s removed

A

true

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54
Q

what are the medical interventions for chemical burns?

A

immediate irrigation with copious amounts of water

tx of systemic toxicity if any

local care of the burn

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55
Q

what is an electrical burn?

A

a burn that results from the passage of an electrical current through the body after the skin has contacted an electrical source

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56
Q

what is the entrance wound in an electrical burn?

A

the contact site of the body with electricity

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57
Q

what is the exit wound (ground site) in an electrical burn?

A

the wound often larger than the entrance wound

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58
Q

is an exit wound always present with an electrical burn?

A

no

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59
Q

t/f: with electrical burns, much of the damage can be hidden under the intact skin bc of the resistance levels of the tissues in the body

A

true

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60
Q

what is the PT role in assessing the hidden damage of electrical burns?

A

testing sensation, ms strength, and pulses bc ms, blood vessels, and nerve are more easily affected than skin

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61
Q

what voltage would cause a low voltage electrical burn?

A

<1000V

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62
Q

a flash burn is a ____ voltage electrical burn

A

low

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63
Q

what causes a flash burn?

A

electric sparks causing direct thermal burns to the skin or through clothes catching fire

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64
Q

what voltage would cause a high voltage electrical burn?

A

> 1000V

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65
Q

what is a high voltage electrical burn?

A

a contact burns by entry of electric current into the body through the skin

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66
Q

electrical burns are related to what principles for electricity?

A

Ohm’s law

Joule’s law

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67
Q

what is Ohm’s law?

A

electric current is directly proportional to voltage and inversely proportional to resistance

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68
Q

what body tissue has the greatest resistance?

A

bone

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69
Q

what body tissue has the least resistance?

A

nerve

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70
Q

order these tissues from most to least resistance: muscle, fat, bone, tendon, skin, nerve, blood vessel

A

bone, fat, tendon, skin, muscle, blood vessel, nerve

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71
Q

t/f: bone generates more heat than other tissues so it is responsible for causing thermal damage to surrounding tissues

A

true

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72
Q

what is Joule’s law?

A

heat is produced when an electrical current meets resistance over time

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73
Q

if an electrical current reaches bone, what happens?

A

it develops excessive amounts of heat bc of its high resistance

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74
Q

what are the immediate effects of electrical current?

A

burns

ms damage

cardiac arrythmias (v fib)

acute renal failure

SC damage

vertebral fx

neuro sx

75
Q

do acute or delayed onset neuro sx have a better pic for recovery?

A

acute onset neuro sx

76
Q

what are the long term sequelae of electrical injury? (just know a few, I’m not listing them all)

A

HA

generalized pain

fatigue/exhaustion

frustration

guilt

tremor

joint stiffness

night sweat, fever, chills

ms spasms

pruritis

anxiety

flashbacks

and many more :)

77
Q

what are radiation burns?

A

burns that result from radiation

78
Q

what are friction burns?

A

burns that result from being dragged

79
Q

what are inhalation injuries?

A

pulmonary trauma caused by inhalation of thermal or chemical irritants (mostly chemical, carbon monoxide)

80
Q

t/f: inhalation injury causes thermal injury to the upper airways creating edema in the upper airways

81
Q

t/f: inhalation injury causes local chemical irritation through the respiratory tract

82
Q

what chemicals often cause systemic toxicity in inhalation injury?

A

carbon monoxide (CO)

hydrogen cyanide (HCN)

83
Q

66% of pts with facial burns have what kind of injury?

A

inhalation injury

84
Q

mortality increases 20% for pts with burns and ____ injury

A

inhalation

85
Q

mortality increases 40% for pts with burns, ____ injury, and _____

A

inhalation, pneumonia

86
Q

how are inhalation injuries diagnosed?

A

through subjective and objective measures

87
Q

what subjective/objective things help diagnose an inhalation injury?

A

flame injury

injury in an enclosed space

disability (unable to leave fire site)

facial burns

singed nose hairs

carbonaceous sputum

soot

stridor

carboxyhemoglobin levels

chest CT

fiberoptic bronchoscopy

88
Q

what is the tx for inhalation injury?

A

100% O2 ASAP like rocky

89
Q

t/f: the half life of COHb varies with concentrations of O2 inhaled

90
Q

t/f: the sooner we get 100% O2 to a pt with inhalation injury, the sooner the CO is to dissipate

91
Q

if on room air, what is the half life of COHb?

92
Q

if on 100% O2, what is the half-life of COHb?

93
Q

what can reduce the half life of COHb to 20 min?

A

hyperbaric chamber O2

94
Q

t/f: hyperbaric chamber O2 is the gold standard tx for inhalation injury

A

false, there is insufficient evidence to support the use of hyperbaric oxygen for tx of pts with CO poisoning bc it can take too long to get to one

95
Q

t/f: chest PT reduces pneumonia following inhalation injury

96
Q

what are the 3 main purposes of chest PT in rehab with an inhalation injury?

A

expiratory rib cage compression

postural drainage

cough exercises

97
Q

what are the burn injury sequelae?

A

immune system

metabolic

CV system

psych

endocrine

MSK

integ

infection

98
Q

what are the 3 zones that can be identified concentrically around the center of the burn injury?

A

zone of coagulation

zone of stasis

zone of hyperaemia

99
Q

what is the zone of coagulation?

A

the deepest center of the wound

100
Q

what is the zone of stasis?

A

the zone around the zone of coagulation that has a 50/50 chance of staying the way it is or becoming deeper and converting into the zone of coagulation

101
Q

what is the zone of hyperaemia?

A

the mostly superficial outer burn rim

102
Q

what zone of a burn has irreversible tissue damage?

A

the zone of coagulation

103
Q

what zone of a burn is characterized by decreased tissue perfusion with tissue that is potentially salvageable?

A

the zone of stasis

104
Q

what is involved in the immune response to burns?

A

a more pronounced inflammatory response compared to non-burn trauma

initial pro-inflammatory response (Th1) from the innate immune system

shift to sustained anti-inflammatory state (Th2)

105
Q

what are the consequences of altered immune response following burn injury?

A

increased susceptibility to infections

compromised immune cell fxn

persistent elevation of inflammatory markers

106
Q

t/f: there is an imbalance bw the innate and adaptive immune responses following a burn injury

107
Q

describe the imbalance bw the innate and adaptive immune responses following a burn injury?

A

we need a constant innate immune response, but the humoral response overpowers and shuts down the innate immune response

108
Q

describe the color and smell of a pseudomonas infection

A

green and sweet smelling

109
Q

t/f: following a burn injury, there is a non-specific down regulation of the immune system

110
Q

what is the immediate metabolic change following a burn injury?

A

hypermetabolic state

111
Q

how long can the hypermetabolic state following a burn injury last?

A

up to 3 yrs post-injury

112
Q

hypermetabolism following burns results in what?

A

sustained loss of ms mass

decreased bone density

high protein degradation

reduced ms mitochondrial fxn

chronic ms weakness

113
Q

t/f: hypermetabolism affects only severe burn pts

A

false, it affects both severe and non-severe burn pts

114
Q

lipolysis results in the increase of what things?

A

total fat and fat %

115
Q

lipolysis results in the lose of what things?

A

body weight

lean body mass

bone mineral content

bone mineral density

116
Q

what is proteolysis?

A

protein breakdown that increases 3-4 fold bw 1-3 weeks post-burn

117
Q

proteolysis leads to what?

A

a negative protein net balance

118
Q

why is proteolysis increased post-burn?

A

it is the body’s way of using its AAs to try and help with the hypermetabolic state

119
Q

there is a ____ in serum glucose following a burn

120
Q

there is ____ levels of endogenous insulin following a burn

121
Q

t/f: pts post burn often have insulin resistance and are more likely to develop DM from their injuries

122
Q

t/f: the more severe burn pts eat, the faster they heal

123
Q

nutritional requirements following a burn injury are proportional to what factors?

A

TBSA burn, age, and weight of the pt

124
Q

burn pts may require up to how many calories per day?

125
Q

do children with burn injuries require more or less calories than their adult counterparts with burns?

A

more calories

126
Q

what are the CV responses 12-48 hrs post-burn?

A

increased capillary permeability throughout the entire body

vasoconstriction

increased protein leakage

127
Q

what is fluid resuscitation?

A

fluids administered via IV over 24-72 hrs

128
Q

with fluid resuscitation, we keep adult urine output ____ CC/hr

129
Q

what pts get fluid resuscitation?

A

adults with >20% TBSA burns

children with >10% TBSA burns

pts with pre-existing medical conditions

130
Q

what are some CVP consequences of burns?

A

increased HR, cardiac output, and capillary permeability

decreased myocardial contractility, hypotension, and end organ hypo-perfusion

pulmonary dysfxn, bronchoconstriction, and resp failure

131
Q

what is a severe CV response to burns that causes vascular, neuromuscular, and respiratory compromise?

A

compartment syndrome

132
Q

what are red flag signs to look for in CV responses to burns that may indicate compartment syndrome?

A

diminished pulses and weakness

133
Q

what are signs to look for in CV responses to burns that may indicate compartment syndrome?

A

diminished pulses

weakness

change in temp

edema

signs of ischemia

134
Q

what are the most common contractures that develop from burns

A

hip IR, flexion, and abduction

cervical flexion

shoulder protraction

135
Q

what results in contracture development post burn?

A

pain

position of comfort

ms weakness

136
Q

what are the principles of tissue (skin) healing?

A

the position of comfort will be the position of contracture

the location of the contracture depends on the location/depth of the burn, gravity, and pt compliance

137
Q

the location of the contracture depends on what factors?

A

the location of the burns

depth of the burns

gravity

pt (non)compliance

138
Q

t/f: deeper burns are more likely to develop contractures

139
Q

what are the mental health consequences of burns?

A

PTSD and depression (not important how severe the incident was)

140
Q

does the epidermis regenerate or repair?

A

regenerates

141
Q

intact epithelium in epidermal healing attempts to cover the wound through what methods?

A

miosis and movt of the cells from the basal layer

142
Q

t/f: moving epithelial cells always maintain contact with normal epithelium

143
Q

what causes the dryness and itching in burns?

A

the damage to sebaceous glands

144
Q

what is a sign that the wound can heal through epidermal healing?

A

epidermal buds

145
Q

does the dermis heal through regeneration or repair?

146
Q

what are the 3 phases of scar formation?

A

inflammatory phase

proliferative/fibroblastic phase

maturation phase

147
Q

what causes hemostasis in phase one of dermal healing?

A

vasoconstriction and platelet aggregation

148
Q

what is involved in the inflammatory phase of dermal healing?

A

release of histamine leading to increased capillary permeability and vasodilation

phagocytosis

149
Q

what is involved in the fibroblastic (proliferative) phase of dermal healing?

A

accumulation of fibroblasts in the wound

collagen production

neovascularization

150
Q

what is the difference bw a hypertrophic scare and a keloid?

A

ahypertrophic scar stays within the og wound boundaries, while a keloid goes outside of these boundaries

151
Q

what causes a hypertrophic scar in burns?

A

the collagen is laid out in disorganized bundles and myofibroblasts cause the tissue to contract and elevate

imbalance bw collagen production and lysis

rich blood supply

152
Q

what is scar maturation in dermal healing? how long does it last?

A

the period during which the scar continues to change in form, bulk, and strength for 1-2 yrs

153
Q

what are the indications for surgery with burns?

A

partial-full thickness injury

crosses joints

potential to limit fxn

large area

154
Q

what are the types of permanent grafts?

A

autografts

cultured skin

155
Q

what is the only type of temporary graft?

A

homograft (allograft)

156
Q

what are the 2 types of autografts that can be used in burns?

A

full thickness autograft

split thickness autograft

157
Q

what is a full thickness autograft?

A

a graft using all the dermis from the donor site

158
Q

which autograft results in less scarring?

A

full thickness autograft

159
Q

does the donor site heal on its own with a full thickness autograft?

A

no, it needs a split thickness graft

160
Q

what is a split thickness skin graft (STSG)?

A

a meshed skin graft that doesn’t use the entire dermis of the donor site

161
Q

t/f: we can harvest from the donor sites over and over again with STSGs

162
Q

when would we use a STSG?

A

for a large area

for a dirty wound so that exudate can come through

163
Q

does the donor site heal on its own with STSGs?

164
Q

what is an allograft/homograft?

A

cadaver skin

165
Q

most often, allografts/homografts are used for what burns?

A

burns that are 50% or greater

166
Q

what are the indications for allograft/homograft?

A

temporary biologic coverage (reduce pain, decrease water/electrolyte/protein loss, stimulate vascularization, protect wound from bacterial contamination, promote dermal matrix)

dressing for partial thickness wounds

wound bed prep for autografting

167
Q

what are the alternative methods for wound closure?

A

xenografts

artificial skin substitutes

168
Q

what is a xenograft?

A

a graft obtained from an unrelated species

169
Q

are xenografts used very often in the US anymore?

170
Q

what are artificial skin substitutes composed of?

A

biological, synthetic, and biosynthetic materials

171
Q

what do artificial skin substitutes do?

A

provide scaffold and substitutes for the extracellular matrix

framework for neovascularization

cell adhesion

proliferation

172
Q

is there motion restrictions for the donor site

173
Q

how many days of post-op immobilization is there for the graft site?

174
Q

bc pts have to be immobilized for 3-5 days post graft, what do we as PTs have a role in doing?

A

putting them in a position of fxn

175
Q

what is involved in phase 1 (initial assessment and triage) of medical tx of burns?

A

stop the burning process

primary survey

secondary survey

begin fluid resuscitation

176
Q

what is the primary survey in burns assessment?

A

airway, breathing, and circulation assessment

177
Q

what is the secondary survey in burns assessment?

A

assessment of other injuries, estimating % TBSA

178
Q

with fluid resuscitation, how do we calculate the initial fluid rate?

A

either 2-4 mL/kg per 24 hrs to estimate 24 hr volume or using the rule of tens

179
Q

when does fluid resuscitation occur?

A

0-48 hrs post injury

180
Q

what are the phases of medical tx of burns?

A

phase 1: initial assessment and triage

phase 2: fluid resuscitation

phase 3: burn wound care and coverage

181
Q

what is involved in burn wound care and coverage?

A

use of topical antimicrobial creams or dressings to prevent infection

surgical debridement, burn wound excision, and autografting

optimize conditions for wound healing

cleansing, debridement, dress/bandage

182
Q

when is the most ideal time for PT/OT to get ROM measurements for a burn pt?

A

when they are getting bathed for wound cleansing

183
Q

what debridement may be used for burns?

A

mechanical

enzymatic

sharp

biologic

184
Q

what form of debridement is the best source of wound care due to the fact that it only affects the necrotic tissue and doesn’t disrupt the good tissue?

A

biologic debridement (maggots)