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Physiotherapy 2.3 > Medical Act > Flashcards

Medical Act Flashcards

1
Q

How many doctors appointments are stress-related and how many adults experience adverse effects of stress?

A

75-90% of doctor’s appointments
> 40% of patients

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2
Q

What is the vicious cycle of negative stress?

A
  • Insufficient coping mechanisms
    → extreme stressor
    → very negative perceived stressor
    → multiple influencing factors
  • Homeostasis can not be preserved

→ Original stressor remains

→ Effects of stressor prevent coping with new stressors

→ New stressors and original ones accumulate

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3
Q

What are the 3 stages of stress of the general adaptation syndrome by Hans Seyle?

A

Alarm Stage
Resistance Stage
Exhaustion Stage

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4
Q

What happens in the alarm stage of the GAS model?

A

→ Activation of hypothalamus, adrenal glands and sympathetic nervous system

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5
Q

What happens in the resistance stage of the GAS model?

A

→ Increased hormonal levels
→ Body systems operate at peak performance

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6
Q

What happens in the exhaustion phase of the GAS model?

A

→ Body unable to respond further
→ Body damaged by increasing demands

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7
Q

→ Increased HR and BP

→ Increased bronchodilation and ventilation

→ Increased blood glucose (cortisol)

→ Arousal of CNS and muscle activation (cortisol)

→ Decreased inflammatory and immune response (cortisol)

These are effects caused by?

A

Stress

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8
Q

A stressor causes the secretion of which molecules?

A

→ Increased ACTH secretion (Adenocorticotropic Hormone)
→ Increased cortisol secretion

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9
Q

What is the HPA stress reaction and is it fast or slow?

A

HPA (hypothalamus - pituitary gland - adrenal cortex) → slow stress reaction

  • Hypothalamus releases CRH/CRF within 15sec
  • After a few minutes pituitary gland releases ACTH
  • Within 20min adrenal glands release glucocorticoids → e.g. cortisol
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10
Q

How long does it take the adrenal glands to release cortisol?`

A

approx 20 minutes

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11
Q

What is the SAM stress reaction and is it fast or slow?

A

SAM (Sympathetic Adreno Medullary) → fast stress reaction

  • Hypothalamus stimulates adrenal medulla
  • Adrenaline and noradrenaline are released
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12
Q

“A state of imbalance within the body” what is meant here?

A

Stress

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13
Q

What is allostasis?

A

process of bringing body back into a state of homeostasis

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14
Q

How many of stages until burn out is reaches are there?

A

12

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15
Q
  • Must last for at least 2 weeks
  • Can vary from mild to severe
  • Feeling sad or having a depressed mood
  • Loss of interest or pleasure in activities once enjoyed
  • Changes in appetite → weight loss or gain unrelated to diet
  • Trouble sleeping or sleeping too much
  • Loss of energy or increased fatigue
  • Increase in purposeless physical activity
  • Slowed movements and speech
  • Feeling worthless or guilty
  • Difficulty thinking, concentrating or making decisions
  • Thoughts of death and suicide

These are typical symptoms of which pathology?

A

Depression

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16
Q

What are typical stress related somatic disorders?

A
  • Herpes simplex
  • Crohn disease (autoimmune disease of the bowel)
  • Arrhythmias (fibrillation)
  • Psoriarsis
  • Obesity
  • High BP
  • Cardiovascular diseases
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17
Q

What are typical conditions treated by an internist?

A

→ Cancer
→ Arteriosclerosis
→ High BP
→ Diabetes

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18
Q

Latin term musculoskeletal system?

A

tractus locomotorius

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19
Q

Latin term neurological system?

A

tractus neurologicus

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20
Q

Latin term nerve system?

A

tractus cerebrospinalis

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21
Q

Latin term cardiovascular system?

A

tractus circulatorius

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22
Q

Latin term pulmonary system?

A

tractus respiratorius

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23
Q

Latin term gastro-intestinal system?

A

tractus digestivus

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24
Q

Latin term Genito-urinary system

A

tractus urogenitalis

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25
Q

Latin term endocrine system?

A

tractus hormonalis

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26
Q

Latin term skin system?

A

tractus integumentaris

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27
Q

What is palpitation?

A

Herzrasen

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28
Q

What is the cardiac control centre of the body?

A

The medulla

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29
Q

Where are baroreceptors and what is their function?

A

→ In wall of aorta and carotid arteries
→ Detect changes in blood pressure

Result: Change in rate and force of cardiac contraction

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30
Q

How does sympathetic activity influence the heart beat?

A

→ Tachycardia → Increase in heart rate and contractility

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31
Q

How does parasympathetic activity influence the heart beat?

A

→ Bradycardia → Decrease in heart rate and contractility

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32
Q

What is a normal heart beat?

A

60-100bpm

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33
Q

What is the average stroke volume?

A

70ml per contraction (by one ventricle)

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34
Q

What is peripheral resistance?

A
  • Force opposing the blood flow
  • Amount of friction between vessel walls and blood
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35
Q

Decreased sympathetic stimulation causes what type of vessel movement?

A

→ Systemic vasodilation
(THERE IS NO PARASYMPATHETIC NERVE INNERVATION IN BLOOD VESSELS)

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36
Q

Increased sympathetic stimulation causes what type of vessel movement?

A

→ Systemic vasoconstriction

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37
Q

How can the BP be calculated?

A

Blood pressure = cardiac output x peripheral resistance

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38
Q

How much blood does the human body carry on average?

A

Approx. 5L

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39
Q

How much of the blood made of plasma and what does it contain?

A

55% plasma
→ Proteins
→ Water
→ Amino acids, fats, carbs, vitamins, enzymes, electrolytes, waste products

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40
Q

How much of the blood made of cells and what types are there?

A

45% cells
→ Leukocytes
→ Erythrocytes
→ Thrombocytes

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41
Q

What is hemostasis?

A

prevention of blood loss by coagulants

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42
Q

What are characteristics of restrictive lung diseases?

A
  • Decrease in total volume of air that the lungs are able to hold
  • Often due to decrease in elasticity or problem related to expansion of the chest wall during inhalation
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43
Q

What are typical restrictive lung diseases?

A
  • Lung cancer
  • Interstitial lung disease
  • Paralysis of diaphragm
  • Spinal injury
  • Kypho-scoliosis
  • Obesity
  • Morbus Bechterew
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44
Q

What are characteristics of obstructive lung diseases?

A

Airflow blockage and breathing related problems

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45
Q

What are typical obstructive lung diseases?

A
  • Asthma
  • COPD
  • (Acute) brochi(oli)tis
  • Bronchiectasis
  • Cystic fibrosis
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46
Q

What are the 4 domains of disease burden in pulmonary diseases?

A

→ Complaints and limitations (CCQ ≤ 2) and dyspnea (mMRC ≤ 3)

→ Frequency of exacerbations (lung attacks) → ≥ 2 attacks/year treated with oral corticosteroids

→ Nutritional status (weight, BMI)

→ Degree of airway obstruction (FEV1)

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47
Q

In case of pulmonary disease indication what does the GP want to rule out?

A

heart failure

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48
Q

When is an increased disease burden in pulmonary diseases given?

A

If one of the subdomains is abnormal

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49
Q

What is a normal arterial oxygen pressure (PaO2)?

A

75-100 mmHg

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50
Q

At what level is hypoxemia present?

A

marked decrease in arterial oxygen pressure PaO2 < 60mmHg (< 8kPa)

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51
Q

At what level is hypercapnia present?

A

increase in PaCO2 (> 45mmHg or > 6kPa) → increase in ventilation

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52
Q

How does an increased PaCO2/hypercapnia lead to an increase in ventilation?

A

Increase in PaCO2 (> 6kPa) → gas diffusion to cerebrospinal fluid → decrease in PH → stimulation of respiratory centre → increase of ventilation

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53
Q

What are normal oxygen levels in arterial blood?

A

Approx. 20ml of oxygen per 100ml of blood in arteries

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54
Q

What are normal oxygen levels in venous blood?

A

Approx. 15ml of oxygen per 100ml of blood in veins

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55
Q

What can hypersensitivity to a drug lead to?

A

may lead to mild reaction or anaphylaxis

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56
Q

What are idiosyncratic/paradoxical effects of a drug?

A

unexpected or unusual reactions

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57
Q

What are iatrogenic effects of a drug?

A

negative effects due to medication error, overdose or unusual response

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58
Q

What are teratogenic/harmful effects of a drug?

A

developmental disorders in foetus

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59
Q

What is the result of a synergy of drugs?

A

combination of drugs causes an increase in effect

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60
Q

What is the result of antagonism of drugs?

A

combination of drugs causes a decrease in effect

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61
Q

What is the result of potentiation of drugs?

A

drug A enhances the effect of drug B

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62
Q

An optimal dose of drugs depends on?

A

→ Absorption
→ Transport in blood
→ Half-life
→ Biotransformation

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63
Q

By what is a dose expressed?

A

weight or measure and time factor

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64
Q

What are the two goals of medication-receptor interaction?

A

→ Stimulation
→ Inhibition

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65
Q

Which drugs lower blood pressure?

A

→ Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors (ACE inhibitors)
→ Beta blockers
→ Calcium channel blockers
→ Diuretics
→ Adrenergic blocking drugs

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66
Q
  • Nitroglycerin
  • Long-acting isosorbide

What kind of medication is this?

A

Vasodilators

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67
Q

What are vasodilators used for?

A

To treat angina attacks and prophylactic

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68
Q

How do vasodilators work and what are side effects?

A

Action:
→ Reduce peripheral resistance
→ Reduce workload of heart
→ Coronary arteries dilate
→ Better balance of oxygen supply and demand in heart muscle
→ Drop in BP

Side effects:
→ Dizziness
→ Red face

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69
Q

Enalapril

What kind of medication is this?

A

ACE-Inhibitor

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70
Q

What are ACE-Inhibitors used for?

A
  • Decrease BP
  • Tackle congestive heart failure
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71
Q

How do ACE-inhibitors work and what are side effects?

A

Action:
→ Block conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II
→ Reduce peripheral resistance (vasoconstriction)
→ Decrease angiotensin II release (aldosterone release) which leads to decrease in sodium and water retention
→ Action stimulated by renin release in kidneys (RAS)

Side effects:
→ Headache
→ Dizziness
→ Hypotension

72
Q

→ Metoprolol
→ Atenolol

What kind of medication is this?

A

Beta Blockers

73
Q

What are beta blockers used for?

A
  • Reduce high BP and arrhythmias
  • Reduce angina attacks
74
Q

How do beta blockers work and what are side effects?

A

Action:
→ Blockage of beta1-adrenergic receptors in heart
→ Decrease in force of heart contraction
→ Reduce HR

Side effects:
→ Dizziness/fainting
→ Fatigue
→ Hypoglycemia

75
Q

What is important when it comes to training intensity in patients that use beta blockers?

A

→ Heart rate doesn’t increase further → no acceleration or deepening in breathing

→ HR is not reliable to monitor fatigue

→ Use BORG score

76
Q

What kind of medication is Nifedipine?

A

Calcium Channel Blocker

77
Q

What are calcium channel blockers used for?

A
  • Block movements of calcium ions in cardia muscle tissue
  • Vasodilator
78
Q

How do calcium channel blockers work and what are side effects?

A

Action:
→ Reduce cardiac contractility
→ Prophylactic mechanism for angina pectoris

Side effects:
→ Dizziness
→ Fainting
→ Headache

79
Q

→ Hydrochlorothiazide

→ Furosemide

What type of medication are these?

A

Diuretics

80
Q

What are diuretics used for?

A
  • Treat high BP
  • Treat congestive heart failure
  • Reduce retention
81
Q

How do diuretics work and what are side effects?

A

Action:
→ Removal of excessive sodium and water from body through kidneys
→ Blocking reabsorption
→ Increase urination
→ Decrease blood volume
→ Decrease oedema

Side effects:
→ Nausea
→ Diarrhoea
→ Dizziness

82
Q

How do adrenergic blocking drugs work?

A
  • Act directly on sympathetic nervous system in the brain

→ Blockage of peripheral alpha1-adrenergic receptors
→ Direct vasodilation

83
Q

→ Aspirin
→ Warfarin

What type of medication are these?

A

Blood Thinners

84
Q

What are blood thinners used for?

A
  • Treat high BP
  • Tackle congestive heart failure
85
Q

How do blood thinners work and what are side effects?

A

Action:
→ Risk reduction of blood clots forming in coronary arteries or damaged heart valves
→ Prophylaxis for thromboembolism

Side effects:
→ Aspirin: stomach irritation, allergy
→ Warfarine: heavy bleeding (can be controlled by vitamin K)

86
Q

Simvastatin

What type of drug is this?

A

Cholesterol lowering drug

87
Q

When are cholesterol lowering drugs used?

A

In case exercise and diet can’t lower cholesterol

88
Q

How do cholesterol lowering drugs work and what are side effects?

A

Action:
→ Reduction of cholesterol (LDL) by blocking synthesis in liver

Side effects:
→ Digestive problems

89
Q

How does digoxin work and what are side effects?

A

Action:
→ Reduce pulse conduction through AV-node
→ Reduce HR
→ Increase heart contraction force → efficiency improvement

Side effects:
- Nausea
- Fatigue
- Headache
- Weakness

90
Q

What is digoxin used for?

A

→ Cardiac glycosides

  • Treat congestive heart failure
  • Treat atrial arrhythmias
91
Q

What should patients who use digoxin be checked for regularly?

A

Signs of toxicity

92
Q

Salbutamol (Ventolin) is an example of what type of medication?

A

SABA short-acting beta-2 agonist

Short acting bronchodilator

93
Q

Ipratropium (Atrovent) is an example of what type of medication?

A

SAMA short-acting muscarinic antagonist

Short acting bronchodilator

94
Q

How do short-acting bronchodilators work and what are side effects?

A

Action:
→ Relaxation of bronchial smooth muscle tissue
→ Opening airways for easier breathing
→ Symptomatic treatment of exacerbations

Side-effects:
- Dry mouth
- Headache
- Cough
- Tremor
- Nervousness
- Tachycardia

95
Q

What does SABA stand for?

A

short-acting beta-2 agonist

96
Q

What does SAMA stand for?

A

short-acting muscarinic antagonist

97
Q

Formoterol, Salmeterol

What types of medication are these?

A

LABA long-acting beta2-agonist

Long acting bronchodilators

98
Q

Tiotropium

What type of medication is this?

A

LAMA longe-acting muscarinic antagonist

Long acting bronchodilator

99
Q

What does LABA stand for?

A

long-acting beta2-agonist

100
Q

What does LAMA stand for?

A

long-acting muscarinic antagonist

101
Q

How do long-acting bronchodilators work and what are side effects?

A

Action:
→ Relaxation of bronchial smooth muscle tissue
→ Opening the airways for easier breathing
→ Symptomatic treatment of exacerbations

Side effects:
- Dry mouth
- Dizziness
- Tremor
- Running nose
- Irritated throat
- Upset stomach

102
Q

→ Flucticasonpropionaat
→ Prednisone

What type of medication are these?

A

Corticosteroids for pulmonary patients

103
Q

What are corticosteroids used for in lung patients?

A

For inflamed, swollen, irritated airways

104
Q

How do corticosteroids in lung patients work and what are side effects?

A

Action:
→ Reduce inflammation and make breathing easier

Side effects:
- Irritation and dryness of nasal mucosa
- Slight nose bleed
- Headache
- Prednisone: weakness, upset stomach, weight gain

105
Q

When should oxygen supplementation be initiated?

A
  • When hypoxemia is suspected
  • With peripheral oxygen saturation ≤ 92%
  • With oxygen saturation during exercise below 90%
106
Q

Which part of a normal cell carries all the organelles for metabolism?

A

Cytoplasm

107
Q

Which part of a normal cell carries the DNA?

A

Nucleus

108
Q

What is the normal process of cell reproduction and growth called?

A

Mitosis

109
Q

How is mitosis regulated?

A
  • Regulated by:
    → Growth factors like cytokines that signal proliferation
    → Inhibitors that prevent overgrowth
  • DNA controls growth and reproduction
110
Q

What does an accumulation of cell mutations lead to?

A

cancer

111
Q

What is apoptosis ?

A

Programmed cell death

112
Q

What are characteristics of neoplasms?

A
  • Cell growth does not respond to bodily control systems anymore
  • Tumor
  • Continuous reproduction and cells have unique appearance
  • Cells are not functioning and take up lots of space
  • Lots of nutrient supply required
113
Q
  • Age
  • Hormones
  • Heredity
  • Viruses
  • Comorbidity
  • Smoking
  • Alcohol
  • Chemicals
  • Radiation
  • Food

These are risk factors for the development of which pathology?

A

Cancer

114
Q

What is the root of the term for a tumour in fatty tissue?

A

Lip-

115
Q

What is the root of the term for a tumour in gland tissue?

A

Adeno-

116
Q

What is the root of the term for a tumour in fibrous tissue?

A

Fibro-

117
Q

What is the suffix for a benign tumour?

A

-oma

118
Q

What is the suffix for a malignant epithelial tissue tumour?

A

-carcinoma

119
Q

What is the suffix for a malignant connective tissue tumour?

A

-sarcoma

120
Q

Slowly growing expanding

Surrounded by capsule

Relatively normal cells

What type of tumour is this?

A

Benign

121
Q

Rapid growth

Irregular shape and surface

Tissue and blood vessel invasion

Necrosis

Abnormal cells

What type of tumour is this?

A

Malignant

122
Q

What is a different term for primary tumour in malignant tumours?

A

Mother tumour

123
Q

What is meant by invasion of a malignant tumour?

A
  • Local distribution
  • Tumour growth into adjacent region
  • Release of lytic enzymes to break down tissue
124
Q

What is meant by metastasis of a malignant tumour?

A
  • Distribution to more distant areas
  • Erosion → transport through blood/lymph vessels
  • Often also in lungs or liver
  • Creates new locations of cancer tumours
125
Q

What is meant by seeding of a malignant tumour?

A
  • Spread through tissue fluids or membranes
126
Q

What is meant by “in situ” in cancer cells?

A

neoplastic cells in pre-invasive stage of cancer that can easily be diagnosed and treated

develop very slowly over years

127
Q

What is the most accurate way to diagnose cancer?

A

Biopsy of tumour cells and combining diagnostic tests like markers and imaging are most accurate

128
Q

What is examined when tumour markers are checked?

A

Substances produced by neoplastic cells are examined

129
Q

What is the TNM-system and what does TNM stand for?

A
  • Classified during diagnostics
  • Basis for treatment and prognosis
  • Identifies extend of illness
  • Often a subgroup for cancer type

TNM-System:
- T - Size of the tumour
- N - Extend of regional lymph node involvement
- M - Spread of tumour → Invasion, Metastasis

130
Q
  • Single therapy or combination
  • Causes mutations or changes in DNA
  • Mitosis is stopped and cell death occurs
  • Cutting off blood supply to tumour
  • Also normal cells are damaged

This occurs in which cancer treatment?

A

Radiotherapy

131
Q

→ Bone marrow suppression
→ Epithelial cell damage
→ Genital damage
→ Non-specific fatigue
→ Depending on dose and penetration

These are short or long term effects of which cancer treatment?

A

Short term effects of Radiotherapy

132
Q

→ Fibrosis
→ Skin discolouration
→ Fatigue
→ Organ damage
→ Depending on dose and penetration

These are short or long term effects of which cancer treatment?

A

Long term effects of Radiotherapy

133
Q
  • Single therapy or combination
  • Most effective in small tumour masses
  • Usually 6 weeks after surgery to enable wound healing
  • Usually combination of 2-4 drugs
  • Inference with DNA duplication and protein synthesis

What type of cancer treatment is this?

A

Chemotherapy

134
Q

→ Bone marrow suppression
→ Nausea, vomiting
→ Epithelial cell damage
→ Unique damaging effects (fibrosis of lungs)
→ Depending on type of treatment

These are short or long term effects of which cancer treatment?

A

Short term effects of Chemotherapy

135
Q

→ (Chronic) fatigue
→ Polyneuropathy
→ Heart failure
→ Infertility
→ Depending on type of treatment

These are short or long term effects of which cancer treatment?

A

Long term effects of chemotherapy

136
Q

When is a patient “cured” of cancer?

A

After 5 years without recurrence

137
Q

What are typical parameters for exercise therapy with cancer patients?

A
  • 50-80% of VO2max
  • Borg score 12-14 (6-20 scale)
  • Resistance Training: 2-4sets, 6-12 reps, 50-85% of 1RM
138
Q

What do the alpha cells in the islets of Langerhans produce and for how much of the molecules in the islets do they make up for?

A

Production of glucagon

approx. 20% of cells

139
Q

What do the beta cells in the islets of Langerhans produce and for how much of the molecules in the islets do they make up for?

A

Production of insulin

Approx. 80% of cells

140
Q

Which cells produce somatotastin?

A

d-cells

141
Q

What does insulin have NO effect on?

A
  • Transport of glucose to brain cells
  • Glucose absorption in intestines
  • Skeletal muscle during normal exercise
142
Q

What does insulin have an effect on?

A
  • Skeletal muscle with excessive exercise
    → Blood glucose depletion leads to hypoglycaemia
143
Q

Metformin

What is this medication used for?

A

DMT2

144
Q

How does metformin work?

A
  • Reduction of insulin resistance
  • Reduction of glucose production
  • Increase of insulin demands in muscles
    → better absorption of glucose and decrease of blood glucose
  • Reduction of diabetic symptoms
145
Q

What are side effects of metformin?

A
  • Nausea
  • Vomiting
  • Dry mouth
146
Q

With which drugs does metformin interact?

A
  • ACE inhibitors → can further lower blood glucose
  • Diuretics → can adversely effect kidney function
147
Q

Gliclazide / Repaglinide

What are these drugs used for?

A

DMT2

148
Q

How does Gliclazide / Repaglinide work?

A
  • Increase of insulin secretion in pancreas
  • Lowers blood glucose
149
Q

What are side effects of Gliclazide / Repaglinide?

A
  • Weight gain
  • Hypoglycaemia
  • Blurred vision
  • Gastrointestinal complaints
150
Q

With which drugs can Gliclazide / Repaglinide interact?

A
  • Can be enhanced by ACE inhibitors
  • Can reduce beta2 agonist function
  • Can interact with beta blockers who mask hypoglycaemia
151
Q
  • Insulin replacements
  • Insulin pen
  • Insulin pump
  • Biosynthetic form of insulin

When are these used as treatment?

A

DMT1

152
Q

What are the 3 types of insulin used in DMT1 patients?

A
  • Fast acting insulin (injection in abdomen)
  • Intermediate insulin
  • Long acting insulin (injection in leg)
153
Q
  • Humiline NHP
  • Insulatard
  • Insuman Basal

These are examples of what?

A

Insulin manufacturers

154
Q

With which drugs can insulin supplements interact?

A
  • Can be enhanced by ACE inhibitors
  • Reduced effect by diuretics
  • Can interact with beta blockers who mask hypoglycaemia
155
Q

What is diabetic ketoacidosis and what type of diabetes is affected?

A
  • Common in DMT1
  • Insufficient insulin supply → blood glucose too high
  • Develops over several days and often initiated by:
    → Infection, stress, dosage error, overeating or alcohol
156
Q
  • Dehydration
  • Deep and rapid breathing
  • Acetone breath (fruity odor)
  • Metabolic acidosis (can lead to loss of consciousness)
  • Electrolyte imbalance (can lead to cramps, nausea etc.)

These are signs and symptoms of?

A

Diabetic Ketoacidosis

157
Q

What is Hyperosmolar Hyperglycaemic Non-Ketonic Coma and which diabetes type is mainly affected?

A
  • Common in DMT2
  • Often elderly with infection
  • Often over-intake of carbs → more insulin required than expected
  • Relative insuline deficiency
  • Hyperglycaemia
158
Q

What does Hyperosmolar Hyperglycaemic Non-Ketonic Coma lead to?

A

Leads to dehydration which leads to:
→ Neurological deficits
→ Muscle weakness
→ Difficult speech
→ Abnormal reflexes

159
Q

What is Microangiopathy?

A
  • Thick and hard basement membrane
  • Obstruction and/or tearing of capillaries and small arteries
  • Tissue necrosis
  • Can lead to nefropathy or retinopathy

CHRONIC COMPLICATION OF DM

160
Q

What can macroangiopathy lead to?

A
  • Atherosclerosis
  • Wounds
  • Amputation

CHRONIC COMPLICATION OF DM

161
Q

Where is Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) released and what is its function?

A
  • Origin: Adenohypophysis
  • Function: Stimulates adrenal cortex to primarily secrete cortisol
162
Q

Where is Antidiuretic hormone (ADH, or vasopressin) released and what is its function?

A
  • Origin: Pituitary gland (posterior lobe/neurohypophysis)
  • Function: Increases reabsorption of water in kidneys
163
Q

Where is Insulin released and what is its function?

A
  • Origin: beta cells of pancreas
  • Function: Transport of glucose and other substances into cells; lowering of blood glucose
164
Q

Where is Glucagon released and what is its function?

A
  • Origin: alpha cells of pancreas
  • Function: Glycogenolysis in liver; increasing blood glucose level
165
Q

Where is Aldosterone released and what is its function?

A
  • Origin: Adrenal cortex
  • Function: Increases sodium and water reabsorption in the kidneys
166
Q

Where is Cortisol released and what is its function?

A
  • Origin: Adrenal cortex
  • Function: Anti-inflammatory and decreases immune response; catabolic effect on tissues; stress response
167
Q

Where is Norepinephrine released and what is its function?

A
  • Origin: Adrenal medulla
  • Function: General vasoconstriction
168
Q

Where is Epinephrine released and what is its function?

A
  • Origin: Adrenal medulla
  • Function: Stress response; visceral and cutaneous vasoconstriction; vasodilation skeletal muscle; increase of HR and contraction force; bronchodilation
169
Q

What are the categories of mental disorders concerning depression?

A

Endogenous and exogenous

170
Q

What are characteristics of a unipolar endogenous mental disorder?

A
  • Diagnosis based on biological factors and personal characteristics
  • Etiological factors involved:
  • Genetics
  • Development
  • Psychosocial stressors
171
Q

What are charactersitics of a unipolar exogenous mental disorder?

A
  • Response to a life event
  • Secondary to systemic conditions
172
Q

What are characteristics of a bipolar depression disorder?

A

Alternating periods of depression and mania

173
Q

What is the pathophysiology of a depression?

A

Decreased activity of excitatory neurotransmitters
→ Like norepinephrine and serotonin

174
Q

What are components of non-medicinal treatment of depressions?

A
  • Psychological treatment
  • Psychotherapy
  • Cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT)
  • Interpersonal therapy (IPT)
175
Q

What does the medicinal treatment of depressions consist of?

A
  • Antidepressants
    → Increase norepinephrine activity
    → Good calculation of doses and keeping in mind interactions with other drugs very important
176
Q

What is the factor for calculating the mg/dL value if you have the mmol/L value and vice versa for blood glucose levels?

A

to calculate mg/dL x18,016

to calculate mmol/L :18,016

177
Q

What is the factor for calculating the mg/dL value if you have the mmol/L value and vice versa for cholesterol levels?

A

to calculate mg/dL :0,0259

to calculate mmol/L x0,0259

Physiotherapy 2.3 (9 decks)

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