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Mod 8 Finals > Med surgery > Flashcards

Med surgery Flashcards

1
Q

Mouse Hepatitis is a ___ that is highly contagious and widespread

A

coronavirus

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2
Q

what is the most common neoplasia of rats?

A

mammary fibroadenoma

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3
Q

what are the normal inhabitants of the resp tract in mice and rats?

A

bordetella bronchiseptica

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4
Q

Pseudomonas spp. is part of the normal flora found in the GI tract of rats and mice

A

true

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5
Q

barbering is indicated when ___ is present, with the absence of ___

A

alopecia; pruritis

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6
Q

what is the causative agent for pseudotuberculosis (Rats/mice)

A

corynebacterium kutscheri

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7
Q

most blood parasites are transmitted through what?

A

ectoparasites

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8
Q

what is the most common neoplasia of random bred mice?

A

pulmonary tumors

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9
Q

what is the source for salmonella infections in mice and rats?

A

bedding

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10
Q

mice and rats need to chew their incisor teeth naturally because clipping them is a painful procedure

A

false

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11
Q

research animals are generally treated as a group rather than on individual basis

A

true

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12
Q

what mice species is the primary host for lymphatic choriomeningitis?

A

common house mouse

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13
Q

what is a bacterial infection that has a zoonotic potential? (mice/rats)

A

leptospira

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14
Q

what is a mycotic disease in mice/rats

A

trichophyton mentagrophytes

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15
Q

what drug can be given orally to treat ectoparasites? (mice/rats)

A

ivermectin

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16
Q

ringtail is a common husbandry related problem in young rats associated with what?

A

low relative humidity

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17
Q

commercial mouse and rat feed should be used within

A

6 months from milling date

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18
Q

what viral disease has a very short incubation period (2 days). Infected animals should be isolated for 6-8 weeks, but once they recover they have immunity for life? (mice/rats)

A

sialodacryoadenitis

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19
Q

spontaneous tumor development can be as high as

A

87% in rats and mice over 2 years of age

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20
Q

mycotic infections are common occurrence in rats and mice

A

false

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21
Q

rats and mice are primarily nocturnal creatures

A

true

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22
Q

clostridium piliforme is the causative agent for what disease?

A

tyzzer’s disease

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23
Q

if barbering is a concern within a colony, which animal should be taken out from the enclosure?

A

without hairloss

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24
Q

what viral disease causes necrosis of the salivary and nasolacramal glands

A

sialodacryoadenitis

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25
Q

what can be used to trim incisors in mice and rats?

A

dental burs

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26
Q

between mice and rats, which are more likely to see traumatic wounds from fighting in?

A

rats

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27
Q

what disease has a high zoonotic potential

A

lymohoctyic choriomeningitis

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28
Q

what term describes the incisors of mice/rats

A

hypsodontic

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29
Q

flea infestation are uncommin in mice and rats

A

true

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30
Q

are you more likely to see ringtail in mice or rats?

A

rats

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31
Q

the preen gland is officially referred to as what in birds

A

uropygial gland

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32
Q

what species of birds are you most likely to see feather plucking in?

A

african gray

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33
Q

what is the most common musculoskeletal condition in birds

A

trauma

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34
Q

to prevent crop burns in birds, owners should be instructed to not feed food warmer than

A

105

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35
Q

most anemias in birds are considered to be regenerative

A

false

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36
Q

young, newly developing feather that has a large vessel and blood supply

A

blood feather

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37
Q

soft, fluffy feather that is used to provide insulation

A

down

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38
Q

the large, primary flight feather of birds that are found on the outside of the wing

A

remiges

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39
Q

body feather that provides surface coverage for most of the body

A

coverts

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40
Q

treatment of proventricular dilation disease in birds would be

A

no treatment/cure

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41
Q

one method of preventing pododermatitis in birds is to

A

offer perches with varying sizes, textures, and shapes

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42
Q

the most common cause of musculoskeletal problems in birds is due to

A

traumatic injury

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43
Q

the glandular stomach in birds is referred to as the

A

proventriculus

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44
Q

regurgitation can be a form of sexual activity in birds

A

true

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45
Q

stress fractures in hens that are excessively egg laying is generally caused by

A

hypocalcemia

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46
Q

psittacine beak and feather disease in its chronic form will cause all of the following with the exception of

A

otitis

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47
Q

what is the goal for antimicrobial therapy when treating chlamydia in birds

A

remission and decrease shedding

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48
Q

what antibiotic can be given to a bird as treatment for chlamydia

A

enrofloxacin

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49
Q

birds that have been bitten by a cat have a ___ prognosis

A

guarded

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50
Q

pacheco disease is caused by what in birds?

A

herpes virus

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51
Q

to decrease regurgitation secondary to sexual behavior in birds one might try

A

decrease hours of light

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52
Q

chlamydydia psittaci is also known as what in birds

A

parrot fever

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53
Q

proventriculus dilation disease is also known as macaw wasting disease

A

true

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54
Q

excessive stress can lead to aortic rupture secondary to

A

epineprhine release

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55
Q

what is associated with crop stasis in birds?

A

low environmental temps, infection, and foreign material

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56
Q

syptoms of egg binding/dystocia might include all except

A

PU/PD

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57
Q

Macaw Wasting Disease attacks the ____ tissue of the body in birds

A

nervous

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58
Q

discharge when the nares of clear, opaque or yellow may be suggestive of what in birds?

A

rhinitis

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59
Q

Psittacine beak and feather disease can be transmitted by

A

feces and feather down dust

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60
Q

cloacal prolapse could be secondary to all but what in birds

A

crop stasis

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61
Q

in diagnosing air saculitis or pneumonia one might see all but what in birds

A

bloody feces

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62
Q

birds that develop the chronic form of Psittacine beak and feather disease generally begin showing signs at what age

A

6 months-3 years

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63
Q

the heart of birds has how many chambers?

A

4

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64
Q

if beak lesions are seen with psittacine beak and feather disease birds may become anorexic due to the lesions being painful

A

true

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65
Q

inflammation of the nostrils is called

A

rhinitis

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66
Q

in birds, generally only the ____ side of the female reproductive tract is functional

A

left

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67
Q

there is no cure or vaccine for macaw wasting disease

A

false

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68
Q

factors associated with egg binding/dystocia include

A

obesity, excessive egg laying, excercise, and nutrition

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69
Q

the failure of an egg to pass through the oviduct at a normal rate is termed

A

egg binding

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70
Q

birds that are feather plucking will have normal feathers where on the body

A

head

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71
Q

what does not contribute to pododermatitis in the avian patient?

A

hypovitaminosis A

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72
Q

birds that have been injured do not need to see a vet immediately as long as they are acting fine

A

false

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73
Q

the mechanical obstruction of the cloaca related to the presence of an egg is termed

A

dystocia

74
Q

rabbit pox can be prevented by administering the smallpox vaccine

A

true

75
Q

diet and husbandry play an important role in maintating health in pet rabbits

A

true

76
Q

what is the greatest risk of happening if a rabbit’s hind legs are not supported when handling the animal?

A

spinal cord injury

77
Q

GI stasis is a common concern in rabbits that are

A

anorexic

78
Q

rabbits with malocclusion can still be bred as it is not a genetic condition

A

false

79
Q

cutaneous papilloma virus only affects what breed of rabbit

A

cottontails

80
Q

mucoid enteropathy generally has a good prognosis in bunnies

A

false

81
Q

mucoid enteropathy is primarily a concern in ____ rabbits

A

young

82
Q

bumblefoot is another name for what?

A

pododermatitis

83
Q

a lactating doe presents to your clinic for anorexia, depression, lethargy, and fever, what is the cause for her symptoms

A

septic mastitic

84
Q

what is the name given to congenital glaucoma in rabbits?

A

buphthlamia

85
Q

the most common neoplasia in the unspayed female rabbit is

A

uterine adenocarcinoma

86
Q

a viral disease that is highly contagious and has a high mortality rate in rabbits but can be prevented with a vaccine is

A

rabbit pox

87
Q

rabbit fever is another name for what zoonotic disease and can be fatal in humans if not treated

A

tularemia

88
Q

what condition is commonly called the slobbers and is a result of chronic drooling caused by malocclusion in rabbits?

A

moist dermatitis

89
Q

what disease is also known as vent disease in rabbits?

A

treponematosis

90
Q

trichobezoars are a direct result of ingesting hair during grooming. these are capable of forming an obstruction in the GI tract

A

true

91
Q

where does slobbers typically present in rabbits?

A

dewlap

92
Q

what disease is caused by spirochete and is also called vent disease and can be transmitted venerealy

A

treponematosis

93
Q

what is the reservoir for myxomatosis in the US

A

california brush rabbit

94
Q

the addition of proteolytic enzyme, such as pineapple or papaya juice aids in preventing

A

hairballs

95
Q

what neoplasia is typically a slow growing tumor and typically benign in rabbits?

A

embryonal nephroma

96
Q

what is the sever form of mastitis in rabbits called that occurs before septicemia occurs?

A

blue bag

97
Q

what respiratory infection is often called snuffles and is the most common bacterial infection in rabbits

A

pasteurellosis

98
Q

what disease presents with conjunctivitis at first and can cause death within 2days to 2 weeks in rabbits?

A

myxomatosis

99
Q

what drug can be useful in rabbits with GI stasis?

A

metronidazole

100
Q

what disease is characterized by sudden death or aboriton late in gestation in rabbits?

A

listeriosis

101
Q

what disease is zoonotic in rabbits?

A

listeriosis, tularemia

102
Q

what bacterial infection is primarily seen in young animals? clinical sings vary from constipation to watery diarrhea

A

mucoid enteropathy

103
Q

what is another term given to head tilt?

A

torticollis

104
Q

trauma in rabbits typically occurs due to improper handling, what bone is most likely to break?

A

vertebrae

105
Q

prolonged use of antibiotic in rabbits can cause

A

fatal diarrhea

106
Q

congenital glaucoma is a common finding in what breed?

A

new zealand white

107
Q

splay leg is a term given to ____ in neonates

A

hip dysplasia

108
Q

viral diseases of rabbits are a major concern in the US as almost all wild rabbits are affected

A

false

109
Q

what zoonotic disease is characterized by sudden death or abortions in does?

A

listeriosis

110
Q

what condition can be painful and may cause the animal to be reluctant to move? it can be prevented by using solid-bottom cages and regular cage cleaning

A

pododermatitis

111
Q

malocclusion is a common finding in what domestic breed of rabbits?

A

new zealand

112
Q

head tilts in rabbits can commonly be called

A

wry neck

113
Q

polycystic disease can affect male hamsters in what location?

A

liver and seminal vesicles

114
Q

pregnancy toxemia often occurs in sows that are ____

A

stressed, overweight, and fasted

115
Q

what disease is known to lead to intussuception in hamsters?

A

proliferative ileitis

116
Q

a guinea pigs presents with patches of alopecia on the face, ears, and nose. These lesions appear to be highly pruritic. What is the likely causative agent?

A

trichophyton mentagraphytes

117
Q

what disease can affect hamsters bc of the overgrowth of Clostridium difficile caused by the destruction of beneficial intestinal bacteria

A

Antibiotic-associated enterocolitis

118
Q

chronic interstitial nephritis can be seen in guinea pigs that are also suffering from what disease?

A

diabetes

119
Q

what is associated with protein droplets being depositied in the glomeruli of teh kidney and eventrual kideny failure in hamsters?

A

amyloidosis

120
Q

spontaneous disease is a common problem in hamsters and gerbils

A

false

121
Q

what bacterial disease sometimes called wet tail is the most common infectious disease of hamsters?

A

proliferative ileitis

122
Q

fractures of the ____ are the most common fractures of guinea pigs. they most commonly occur after the animal has been dropped

A

tibia

123
Q

hamsters should be fed a seed based diet like muesli

A

false

124
Q

what is a common clinical sign of cardiomyopathy in hamsters?

A

sudden death

125
Q

what bacterial disease in cavies includes clinical signs of enlargement and abscessation of the head and lymph nodes?

A

cervical lymphadenitis

126
Q

what disease is zoonotic to the human caretakers of hamsters and/or gerbils?

A

lymphocytic choriomeningitis

127
Q

A guinea pig presents to your clinic with hind limb lameness. PE findings include obesity, plantar thinning, and mild ulceration. These findings are indicative of what disease?

A

pododermatitis

128
Q

hamsters are sensitive to deficiencies of what vitamins?

A

E

129
Q

what condition is common in young gerbils that are under stress and often called stress-induced chromodacryorrhea

A

nasal dermattis

130
Q

what is the most common cause of death in older hamsters and has been documented in as many as 85% of hamsters over 18 months

A

amyloidosis

131
Q

what disease is characterized by nasal dermatitis and alopecia around the upper lip and external nares?

A

red nose

132
Q

these unique behaviors of hamsters can make detecting the early signs of illness difficult

A

nocturnal and hibernation

133
Q

what is the causative agent for tyzzers disease?

A

Clostridium piliforme

134
Q

gastrointestinal parasites are typically cause diarrhea in guinea pigs

A

true

135
Q

what anitbiotic is directly toxic to guinea pigs and should never be administered?

A

streptomycin

136
Q

treatment is often unsuccessful, and rarely tried in what disease in hamsters?

A

hamster parvovirus

137
Q

what antimicrobial is known to cause antibiotic-associated entercolitis in hamsters and gerbils?

A

penicillin

138
Q

trauma from fighting is more commonly seen in _____

A

females

139
Q

what is a likely cause for tyzzer’s disease in hamsters and gerbils?

A

poor husbandry and overcrowding

140
Q

the causative agent for tyzzers disease is a spore forming bacterium that is difficult to eradicate

A

true

141
Q

what is the most common tumor found in guinea pigs?

A

mammary tumors

142
Q

proliferative ileitis can often cause death within 48 hours in affected hamsters

A

true

143
Q

a guinea pig presents to your clinic for anorexia, spontaneous bleeding from the gums and has swollen joints. What disease does it have?

A

scurvy

144
Q

what disease is often called “red nose”

A

nasal dermatitis

145
Q

teddy bear breeds of hamsters seem to be more sensitive to antimicrobials than other hamster breeds

A

true

146
Q

what viral disease of hamsters is characterized by a high mortality rate in weanlings?

A

hamster parvovirus

147
Q

you have a hamster present to your clinic that is suffering from alopecia around the muzzle and eyes. He is the newest hamster to the colony at the owners house; what is most likely the condition?

A

barbering

148
Q

what can be seen if a hamster is suffering from a deficiency of vitamin E

A

muscular dystrophy

149
Q

a hamster presents to the clinic with the following symptoms: diarrhea, matting around the tail, lethargy, and a hunched abdomen. What disease is most likely the cause?

A

wet tail

150
Q

if commercial hamster/gerbil diet cannot be found in the pet store, what food can be offered instead?

A

rat/mouse chow

151
Q

what is the most common cause of “lumps” in guinea pigs?

A

eating coarse hay

152
Q

what disease in hamsters is known to cause a domed cranium, testicular atrophy, and incisor abnormalities?

A

hamster parvovirus

153
Q

thiamine deficiency in reptiles is a nutritionally based deficiency and is easily corrected

A

true

154
Q

upon examination a bearded dragon is found to have a pliable mandible. What disease is monst likley the reason for this finding?

A

metabolic bone disease

155
Q

a gecko is presented with swollen joints and is extremely painful and lethargic. what can be the problem?

A

gout

156
Q

_____ in snakes typically occurs due to handling after meal consumption, where ____ is more frequently related to GI disease

A

regurgitation; vomiting

157
Q

thermal burns can be a common problem of captive reptiles. These burns can range in severity and size, and are most commonly located on the dorsal aspect of teh body

A

false

158
Q

new additions should be quarantined for a minimum of ___ days before being added to your reptile collection

A

30

159
Q

when treating tail autonomy, what suture pattern is recommended for skin closure?

A

sutures are not recommended

160
Q

what is treatments for dystocia in reptiles?

A

percutaneous ovocentesis, physical manipulation, and oxytocin

161
Q

MBD can occur due to long term deficiency of what in the diet in reptiles?

A

calcium and vitamin D

162
Q

snakes are less prone to striking if their vison is imparied since they have excellent since of smell

A

false

163
Q

what do snakes have instead of eyelids?

A

spectacles

164
Q

what means an abnormal curvature of the spine?

A

scoliosis

165
Q

what is the correct term given to difficult or incomplete shedding

A

dysecdysis

166
Q

infectious stomatitis is usually secondary to stress, trauma, or husbandry problems

A

true

167
Q

fractures are caused by trauma may take up to ___ to fully heal in reptiles

A

2 years

168
Q

snakes that have been fed live mice their entire life should not be switched to frozen

A

false

169
Q

Hypovitaminosis A is a dietary management issue. What foods can be give to captive reptiles to ensure they get appropriate amounts of vitamin A

A

kale, carrots, and dandelion leaves

170
Q

“mouth rot” is also known as

A

infectious stomatitis

171
Q

a gecko is having difficulty shedding its skin. what husbandry concern could be the reason?

A

temp and humidity lvls

172
Q

what is the most common cuase for oral or rostral trauma in reptiles?

A

constant rubbing of the face against the side of their enclosure

173
Q

turtle shells have the ability to heal

A

true

174
Q

spectacles of snakes become more turbid

A

prior to shedding

175
Q

what species of reptiles is most likley to have oral or facial trauma

A

turtles

176
Q

what antibiotic can cause toxic neuropathy in lizards?

A

metronidazole

177
Q

what are clincial signs of metabolic bone disease in reptiles?

A

tremors, lethargy, rubber jaw, and osteomalacia

178
Q

what types of urinary calculi is most commonly seen in lizards?

A

ammonium urate

179
Q

what is a cause for urinary calculi in turtles?

A

excessive dietary protein, dietary calcium, feeding of oxalates, and bacterial infections

180
Q

what disorder can be caused by feeding a tortoise a diet high in iceburg lettuce and cucumbers?

A

hypovitaminosis a

181
Q

a lizard has a thermal burn from a faulty heat lamp. the skin of the would is completely destroyed but the underlying muscles are not involved. what degree burn is this?

A

3rd degree

182
Q

what type of mouse is described as being just old enough to being growing fur? they range from 3-7 gs

A

fuzzy

Mod 8 Finals (5 decks)

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