Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Medicine > MCQ Bank > Flashcards

MCQ Bank Flashcards

1
Q

uti in young female adults, common cause?

A

staph saprophytic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

otherwise the common organisms involved in UTI’s

A

E Coli
proteus
klebsiella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

organisms involved in uti’s when there is an abnormality in the urinary tract

A

pseudomonas
staph epidermis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Lithium levels to be maintained between?

A

0.5-1.2
if more than 1.5 it can cause acute toxicity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

protocol for checking the lithium levels?

A

12 hrs post dose
5 days after starting therapy or changing a dose
check levels weekly until levels have been stable for 4 weeks
and then after that every 3 months for monitoring checking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

which levels should be monitored when the pt is on lithium?

A

TFTs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

which trimester is lithium contraindicated?

lithium can cause which anomaly of heart?

A

1st

Ebstein’s anomaly;
a rare malformation of tricuspid valve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

necrobiosis lipoidica

A

it is a granulomatous dis of collagen in pts with DM1
it can rarely turn into sq cell ca

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Granuloma Anulare is present in which diseases?

A

Thyroid dis,Hyperlipidemia,Diabetes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Hidradenitis Suppurativa

A

It is a ch inf skin condition that occurs in areas like axilla, groin,perinium.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

characteristic feature of TCA OD?

A

Arrythmias;Broad complex tacky

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

when are antibiotics indicated in subacute bacterial peritonitis

A

when neutrophil count in paracentesis fluid is more than 250 cells/microliter
and I/V cephalosporins are indicated;3rd generation
CEF sey jo names start hotay hain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

acutely painful eye
photophobia
rudeness around the limbus
aqueous flare in the ant chamber

A

ant uveitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

ant uveitis is associated with which conditions?

A

AS
Reactive arthritis
IBD
Psoariasis
Sarcoidosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Anorexia is associated with tachy or Brady?

A

BRADYCARDIA
HYPOTENTION
HYPOTHERMIA
AMENNORHEA
LANUGO HAIR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

More than 60 yrs
what is the most common cause of large rectal bleeding?

A

Diverticular disease
whereas overall the cause will be haemorrhoids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

live vaccines examples

A

Rota virus
MMR Vaccine
shingles
chicken pox
BCG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

inacativated vaccines

A

Polio
Hep A
Rabies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Tobacco alcohol amblyopia

A

central loss of colour vision(dyschromatopisa) is a feature of tobacco alcohol amblyopia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

drug of choice for schizophrenia

A

olanzapine and haloperidol
which are atypical anti psychotics and cause less extrapyramidal symptoms

but some times ca cause weight gain and inc incidence of DM2
and gynecomastia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

which drugs should be avoided in Gilberts syndrome?

A

the drugs which use UDP glucoronyltransferase enzyme for metabolism
such as
Atazanavir
Statins
Irinotecan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

paracetamol can be given in Gilbert syndrome

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

normal serum bilirubin level

A

3-17

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

bilirubin levels clinically detectable for appearance of jaundice

A

more than 40

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

sulfasalazine can cause what to sperms?

A

oligospermia;less sperms
which is why an alternative requires converting to mesalazine in young productive males who have IBD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

onset of schizophrenia is before?

A

45 yrs
illness last months rather than days so the history will be long

as compared to psychosis
the history will be acute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

difference between th representation between acute glaucoma and cluster headache

A

the tearing, severe pain behind the eye is unilateral in cluster headache whereas it is bilateral in glaucoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

lobar pneumonia with rusty coloured sputum
cause?

A

strep pneumonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

pseudomonas is commonly associated with

A

burns pt
and Cystic fibrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

AS patients are often awakened by pain in the early morning

A

AS will progress to kyphosis and neck hyperectention(question mark posture)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

multiple myeloma is a malignant neoplasm of which cells?

A

palsma cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

knee flexed
lateral displacement of patella
cause?

A

dislocation of patella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

combination of skin and gi symptoms

A

CMPA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Bloating,flatulence,abd discomfort,loose watery stools within 1-2 hrs after ingestion and perianal itching

A

lactose intolerance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

failure of passage of meconium
abd distention
constipation

A

hirschsprungs dis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

CML has which cells

A

blast cells(blast crisis)

37
Q

which antihypertensives can worsen the glycemic control?

A

beta blockers and thiazide diuretics

38
Q

If tetracycline is used in the late pregnancy.What does it cause?

A

yellow brown discolouration of teeth
btw nitrofurantoin should also be avoided in the last trimester/term.

trimethoprim AND LITHIUM should be avoided in the first trimester.

39
Q

features of fetal alcohol syndrome

A

intrauterine growth retardation
microcephaly
developmental delay

40
Q

which antibiotic should be taken with precaution whilst a woman is on cocp?

A

rifampicin

41
Q

causes of hypoglycaemia?

A

can be remembered by the pneumonia; EXPLAIN

Exogenous drugs; oral hypoglycemics, alcohol binge,aspirin poisoning

p pituitary insufficiency
l liver dis
a Addisons dis
I islet cell tumors(insulinomas)
n non pancreatic neoplasms

42
Q

cataracts
pulmonary artery stenosis
deaf

A

rubella

43
Q

Pellagra like dermatitis;red scaly photosensitive rash.

neurological involvement; ataxia,dysartria,tremors,spasticity

dx?

A

hartnup dis

tx;high protein diet
avoiding excess sun exposure
and sulphonamide drugs.

Amino acids affected include tryptophan.

44
Q

Threshold to diagnose DM

A

48

45
Q

difference between acute otitis media and otitis media with effusion(glue ear)

A

AOM;usually in the presence of a viral response illness
bulging opacified type membrane with an attenuated light reflex

OME;this will always present without an active infection.
risk factors are bottle feeding and smoking.
on otoscope the landmarks of tymp membrane are all normal with the visualisation of fluid bubbles/air fluid levels.

46
Q

tx of tenia pedis

A

miconazole or terbinafine cream

47
Q

organism causing
hand foot mouth dis?

Scarlet fever?

Molluscum contagiosum

A

coksakie virus

group a beta haemolytic streptococci

pox virus

48
Q

strawberry tongue with white coating
tonsils covered with white coating swell
papules on the body that blanches on pressure
headache,mylagia,fever,sorethroat in kids

A

scarlet fever

tx;Penicillin

49
Q

colazapaine imp side effects

A

neutropenia
agranulocytosis

so for this reason abc should be checked 18 weeks after starting the treatment and fortnightly till next 34 weeks

50
Q

elevation of the scrotum may receive pain in epididymitis(phern’s sign) but not in torsion.

A
51
Q

bells palsy treat?

A

oral prednisolone 50 mg for 10 days if the patient presented within 72 hrs of symptoms appearing.

52
Q

tb tx?
active tb tx without cns

with cns

A

ripe; 2months
ri;4 months

ripe;2months
ri for 10 months

53
Q

CF

A

25%
AUTOSOMMAL RECESSIVE

54
Q

if a patient Is more than 55 yrs old and is diabetic then being diabetic will take-over and we will decide the algorithm according to that.

A

so irrespective of the age if the pt is diabetic then they will be started on ace or arbs.

55
Q

if a patine is alcoholic and we don’t know an die give glucose infusion in a patient twho is deficient in thiamine
what will happen

A

wernickes

ataxia
ophthalmoplegia
confusion

56
Q

discolouration of toe nails
thickened brittle nails
dx?
tx?

A

Onychomycosis
oral terbinafine

57
Q

criteria for dx of schizophrenia

A

ICD 11
INT CLASSIFICATION OF DISEASE

58
Q

incidental finding of raised bilirubin.
no symptoms
dx?

A

Gilbert’ s syndrome

Pt has mild jaundice and malaise.

no treatment is required

59
Q

Contraindications of phosphodiasterase inhibitors(viagra)=sildenafil,tadalafil and vardenafil

A

Patients receiving nitrates, pts having hypotension,recent stroke,mi,unstable angina

60
Q

overweight early teenager kid
unable to bear wt
hip pain
limp
leg length discrepancy
klien lines abnormal on XR
obligatory next rotation on hip flexion

A

SUFE
tx; surgical fixation

61
Q

Portal Hypertension; which veins are involved?

A

Portal venous pressure and pressure within the IVC/hepatic vein
normal pressure is less than 5
if it occurs above 10 then it causes portal hypertension
presents with hematemesis
common cause of portal HTN in the western world is Liver cirrhosis and in Africa it is schistosomiasis

62
Q

tx of portal htn?

A

non selective beta blockers and endoscopic vatical ligation

where as in an acute bleed;
TIPS

63
Q

an autosomal recessive disorder associated with cardiomyopathy and diabetes.
unsteadiness of the gait and clumsiness
Onset before 20 yrs of age

A

Fredric’s ataxia

64
Q

Pre labour scoring system is used for?

A

wether induction of labour is required or not

65
Q

Pre labour scoring system can be remembered by “PEDSS”

A

Position of the cervix
effacement /length of cervix
dilation of cervix
softness/consistency of cervix
station of the foetus

A score of less than 5 suggests pt will need induction
more than 9 labour will commence spontaneously

66
Q

low Bishops score ?

A

indicate that induction is unlikely to be successful

67
Q

febrile seizures in kids commonly occur at what age?

A

6m to 5 yrs
more than 38 degree fever

68
Q

anti streptolysin o titres are raised in which condition?

A

HSP

69
Q

lichen Planus/lichenoid eruptions are associated with?

A

ACE inhibitors
NSAIDS
methyldopa
cholroquine
thiazide diuretics

70
Q

HPV Vaccination is offered at which age?

A

12-13 yrs old

71
Q

For DDH which investigation is required?

A

if less than 6 months;US
if more than 6 months; radiographs

72
Q

tx of DDH

A

less than 6 months of age;Pavlik Harness
more than 1 yr;closed reduction

73
Q

most common organism causing septic arthritis

A

staph aureus

74
Q

difference between WPW syndrome and Lown gaining levine syndrome.

A

In both of them there will be shortened PR interval and widened QRS complex

but there will be no upstroke/delta wave in Levine syndrome

75
Q

anti Jo 1 ab is present in?

A

Dermatomyositis

76
Q

anti ccp ab?

A

Rheumatoid arthritis

77
Q

ANCA

A

EGPA;eospinophilic granulomatosis with polyangitis aka wegeners granulomatosis
GPA;Granulomatosis with polyangitis
MPA;Microscopic polyangitis

78
Q

patients with MS tend to avoid what?

A

suanas,warm bath and other sources of heat.

79
Q

Charcot’s neurologic triad

A

nystagmus, intentional tremor and staccato speech
it is associated with MS

80
Q

congenital adrenal hyperplasia is associated with?

A

precocious pubertyWhen puberty begins before age 8 in girls and before age 9 in boys, it is considered precocious puberty.

81
Q

delay in the development due to less growth hormone will present early than the age of 14

A
82
Q

constitutional delay in the development is when

A

absence of sec sexual characteristics
delayed bone age
testosterone is given as a tx

83
Q

hemochromatosis is?

A

accumulation of iron

triad of it is like following;
hyperglycemia
bronze tinge of skin
liver cirrhosis

84
Q

hypogammaglobulinemia
blood group A
smoking
rural living
less veggies and fruits in diet
H pylori

are all risk factors of which carcinoma?

A

Gastric ca

85
Q

anal fissure tx

A

initial
lidocaine ointment for 1 week before passing the stool
if it doe snot help in 1 week
then use gin ointment/diltiazem for 6-12 weeks BD
botulinum toxin injection

86
Q

treatment of hyperthyroidism in pregnant pt

A

in the first trimester PTU is referred because carbimazole causes teratogenicity in the 1st trimester after the 1st one; in the 2nd trimester carbimazole is started

87
Q

treatment of acute attack of Menderes dis?

A

cinnarazine and prochlorperazine

88
Q

for ongoing prob with Menieres dis?

A

betahistine

Medicine (18 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions