Cardiology Flashcards

1
Q

3 types of ACS

A

ST-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI): ST-segment elevation + elevated Trop t

non ST-elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI): ECG changes but no ST-segment elevation + elevated trop t

unstable angina

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2
Q

Supportive management of ACS

A

MONA
Morphine=only to be given with severe pain

oxygen=only if the oxygen sats are less than 94%

nitrates=should be used with caution in pts with hypotension

Apirin=300mg

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3
Q

Criteria of diagnosing STEMI

A

Chest pain for more than 20mins

≥ 2 contiguous leads of:
2.5 mm (i.e ≥ 2.5 small squares) ST elevation in leads V2-3 in men under 40 years

≥ 2.0 mm (i.e ≥ 2 small squares) ST elevation in leads V2-3 in men over 40 years

1.5 mm ST elevation in V2-3 in women

1 mm ST elevation in other leads

new LBBB (LBBB should be considered new unless there is evidence otherwise)

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4
Q

Definite management of ACS

A

primary coronary intervention=

should be offered if the presentation is within 12 hours of the onset of symptoms AND PCI can be delivered within 120 minutes of the time when fibrinolysis could have been given
if patients present after 12 hours and still have evidence of ongoing ischaemia then PCI should still be considered
drug-eluting stents are now used.

radial access is preferred to femoral access

fibrinolysis=
should be offered within 12 hours of the onset of symptoms if primary PCI cannot be delivered within 120 minutes of the time when fibrinolysis could have been given

Practical example
patient who presents with a STEMI to a small district general hospital (DGH) that does not have facilities for PCI. If they cannot be transferred to a larger hospital for PCI within 120 minutes then fibrinolysis should be given. If the patient’s ECG taken 90 minutes after fibrinolysis failed to show resolution of the ST elevation then they would then require transfer for PCI

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5
Q

Prior and during the PCI

A

Antiplatelet prior to PCI
this is termed ‘dual antiplatelet therapy’, i.e. aspirin + another drug
if the patient is not taking an oral anticoagulant: prasugrel/ticagrelor
if taking an oral anticoagulant: clopidogrel

Drug therapy during PCI

patients undergoing PCI with radial access:
unfractionated heparin with bailout glycoprotein IIb/IIIa inhibitor (GPI)

patients undergoing PCI with femoral access:
bivalirudin with bailout GPI

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6
Q

Fibrinolysis

A

An ECG should be repeated after 60-90 minutes to see if the ECG changes have resolved. If patients have persistent myocardial ischaemia following fibrinolysis then PCI should be considered.

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7
Q

treatment of UA/NSTEMI

A

Aspirin+clopi if already taking otherwise tica or prasu

fondaparinux = not at a high risk of bleeding and who are not having angiography immediately

if immediate angiography is planned or a patients creatinine is > 265 µmol/L = unfractionated heparin

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8
Q

Pts with UA/NSTEMI ;
should have PCI or not?

A

immediate: patient who are clinically unstable (e.g. hypotensive)

within 72 hours: patients with a GRACE score > 3% i.e. those at intermediate, high or highest risk

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9
Q

With regards to thrombolysis:

A

tissue plasminogen activator (tPA) has been shown to offer clear mortality benefits over streptokinase
tenecteplase is easier to administer and has been shown to have non-inferior efficacy to alteplase

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10
Q

BP Targets

A

Clinic BP ABPM / HBPM
Age < 80 years 140/90 mmHg 135/85 mmHg
Age > 80 years 150/90 mmHg 145/85 mmHg

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11
Q

ARBs mechanism

A

block effects of angiotensin II at the AT1 receptor

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12
Q

54-year-old female
acutely painful hand.
history of hypertension, Raynaud’s phenomenon
smoked twenty cigarettes a day since she was twenty-two years old.
no relief of symptoms despite wearing gloves and making sure her hands are warm.
her right hand is blanched white and feels cold.
radial pulse is not palpable at the wrist.
Dx; Beurger dis

A

Buerger’s disease/thromboangiitis obliterans
characterised by inflammation and thrombosis of the small and medium arteries in the hands and feet.

it can present as acute ischaemia or chronic progressive ischaemic changes to the skin/tissues. Ultimately it may result in gangrene of the affected area, often needing amputation. It is strongly associated with an extensive smoking history.

treatment is usually conservative, i.e. wear gloves/keep hands warm where possible. Sometimes calcium channel blockers are used in severe cases. The affected fingers classically change from white (hypoperfusion) to blue to red (reperfusion)

Features
extremity ischaemia; intermittent claudication and ischaemic ulcers
superficial thrombophlebitis
Raynaud’s phenomenon

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13
Q

grapefruit juice inhibits the cytochrome p450 enzyme; CYP3A4.
So it should not be taken with?

A

Statins

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14
Q

warfarin interacts with which flavour juice?

A

Cranberry
it increases the INR

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15
Q

MOA of statins

A

Statins inhibit the action of HMG-CoA reductase, the rate-limiting enzyme in hepatic cholesterol synthesis.

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16
Q

SE of Statins

A

Myopathy; more commonly occurs with atorvastatin snd simvastatin

Liver impairment;check LFTs at baseline, 3 months and 12 months. Treatment should be discontinued if serum transaminase concentrations rise to and persist at 3 times the upper limit of the reference range

Increases the risk of Intracerebral haemorrhage in people who already have had a stroke

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17
Q

CI of Statins

A

Macrolides(Erythro and Clarithro)
Pregnancy
grape fruit juice.

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18
Q

Why should statins be taken at night?

A

because most of the cholesterol synthesis occurs at night

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19
Q

Drugs causing HTN

A

steroids
monoamine oxidase inhibitors
the combined oral contraceptive pill
NSAIDs
leflunomide

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20
Q

A 25-year-old man with a history of Marfan’s disease presents with sudden onset shortness of breath and pleuritic chest pain.
Cause?

A

Pneumothorax

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21
Q

Dissecting aortic aneurysm
as a cause of chest pain
imp features

A

Tearing’ chest(intrascapular) pain radiating through to the back

Unequal upper limb blood pressure

most commonly occurs in the ascending aorta or just distal to the left subclavian artery (less common).

It is most common in Afro-carribean males aged 50-70 years.

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22
Q

Stanford classification

A

lesions with a proximal origin (Type A)=surgically treated

Those that commence distal to the left subclavian (Type B)=managed non operatively

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23
Q

Diagnosis of Aortic dissection/aortic aneurysm?

A

Diagnosis may be suggested by a chest x-ray showing a widened mediastinum.
Confirmation by = CT angiography

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24
Q

chest pain due to perforated peptic ulcer
Imp Feature

A

worsens immediately after eating.

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25
Q

diagnosis of perforated peptic ulcer

A

Diagnosis may be made by erect chest x-ray which may show a small amount of free intra-abdominal air (very large amounts of air are more typically associated with colonic perforation).

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26
Q

Tx of perforated peptic ulcer

A

laparotomy, small defects may be excised and overlaid with an omental patch, larger defects are best managed with a partial gastrectomy.

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27
Q

what is Boerhaaves syndrome

A

Spontaneous rupture of the oesophagus that occurs as a result of repeated episodes of vomiting.

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28
Q

common site of Boerhaaves syndrome

A

rupture is usually distally sited and on the left side.

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29
Q

Dx of Boerhaaves syndrome

A

CT contrast swallow.

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30
Q

Tx of Boerhaaves syndrome

A

Treatment is with thoracotomy and lavage, if less than 12 hours after onset then primary repair is usually feasible, surgery delayed beyond 12 hours is best managed by insertion of a T tube to create a controlled fistula between oesophagus and skin.

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31
Q

causes of increased BNP levels

A

Left ventricular hypertrophy
Ischaemia
Tachycardia
Right ventricular overload
Hypoxaemia (including pulmonary embolism)
GFR < 60 ml/min
Sepsis
COPD
Diabetes
Age > 70
Liver cirrhosis

GC-SAL2TID

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32
Q

causes of dec BNP levels

A

BODA3
Obesity
Diuretics
ACE inhibitors
Beta-blockers
Angiotensin 2 receptor blockers
Aldosterone antagonists

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33
Q

If BNP levels are high appointment in

A

if levels are ‘high’ arrange specialist assessment (including transthoracic echocardiography) within 2 weeks

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34
Q

If BNP levels are raised appointment in

A

if levels are ‘raised’ arrange specialist assessment (including transthoracic echocardiography) echocardiogram within 6 weeks

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35
Q

Posterior MI

A

OPPOSITE TO TYPICAL FINDINGS OF other MI’S
LIKE;
st depression
t wave upright

and this is seen in v1 to v3 leads

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36
Q

LBBB=WILLIAM

RBBB=MARROW

A

V1/V2; W=downward deflections. V5/V6;M=Upright deflections

v1/v2; M=upright deflections. v5/v6;W=downward deflections

New LBBB is always pathological and may be a sign of a myocardial infarction.

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37
Q

NITRATE TOLERANCE

MORE FROM STANDARD OR MODIFIED RELEASE?

A

NICE advises that patients who take standard-release isosorbide mononitrate should use an asymmetric dosing interval to maintain a daily nitrate-free time of 10-14 hours to minimise the development of nitrate tolerance
this effect is not seen in patients who take once-daily modified-release isosorbide mononitrate

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38
Q

Who should receive statins?

A

all people with established cardiovascular disease (stroke, TIA, ischaemic heart disease, peripheral arterial disease)

10-year cardiovascular risk >= 10%

patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus should now be assessed using QRISK2 like other patients are, to determine whether they should be started on statins

patients with type 1 diabetes mellitus who were diagnosed more than 10 years ago OR are aged over 40 OR have established nephropathy

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39
Q

in pulseless vt/vfib
when will we give adrenaline and amiodarone?

A

After the third shock where 1mg IV of adrenaline and 300mg IV of amiodarone should be given while still performing CPR.
Afterwards, 1mg of adrenaline should be continued to be given after every other shock.
The 2nd dose of amiodarone should be considered after a total of 5 defibrillation attempts.

In circumstances where amiodarone is unavailable lidocaine can be used.

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40
Q

76-year-old lady is admitted to the stroke ward after being diagnosed with a right-sided infarct. She was thrombolysed in resus.
ECG shows an absent p wave and an irregular pulse(Afib) She was not on any prior anticoagulation.

When should this patient be commenced on anticoagulation?

A

following a stroke or TIA, warfarin or a direct thrombin or factor Xa inhibitor should be given as the anticoagulant of choice.
Antiplatelets should only be given if needed for the treatment of other comorbidities

in acute stroke patients,
in the absence of haemorrhage, anticoagulation therapy should be commenced after “"”2 weeks. “””

If very large cerebral infarction= initiation of anticoagulation be delayed

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41
Q

ecg changes in pericarditis and dressers syndrome

A

DRESSLERS;
widespread st elevation and pr depression
(pr elevation in AVR)
PERICARDITIS;
widespread/global/saddle shaped st elevation and pr depression

42
Q

IN INFECTIVE ENDOCARDITIS

A

FEVER IS VERY LIKELY

43
Q

Pansystolic murmur occurs in which conditions?

A

mitral regurg=will be heard at the apex and will radiate to the axilla
tricuspid regurgitate=is heard at the left 4th intercostal space sometimes radiates to jvp and it increases on inspiration

44
Q

early diastolic murmur on left parasternal edge which is best heard on sitting forward occurs in/and on expiration?

also associated with high arterial pulsations and low diastolic pressure.

A

aortic regurgitation

45
Q

contraindications of exercise testing

A

mi in the last 7 days
aortic stenosis
HF with pul edema
unstable angina
electrolyte disturbances

stable angina is not a CI of exercise testing

46
Q

which anti arrhythmic drug is responsible for pul fibrosis?

A

Amiodarone
and it can also cause hypo or hyperthyroidism
greyish/blue discolouration of skin
photophobia/blurring of vision
hypotension

47
Q

which anti arrhythmic medication causes st depression and t wave inversion associated with cause,vomiting,diarrhea

A

Digoxin

the findings on ecg will be because of dig toxicity and hypokalaemia

48
Q

causes of Ejection systolic murmur

A

HOCM
Aortic stenosis and Sclerosis
Pul stenosis

49
Q

preg woman
ES murmur

what kind of a murmur is it?

A

Flow/physiological murmur

50
Q

Causes of Torasades de pointes

A

2 syndromes;

Jervel and LANGE NEILSON SYNDROME;Cong 1) Sensorineural deafness and 2) Cong long QT syndrome

Romano ward synd;
cong long QT syd associated with no deafness.

MI
Hypokalemia
Hypomagnessemia
drug induced(sotalol,amiodarone and disopyramide)=SAD

51
Q

ECG findings of WPW syndrome

A

short PR int
wide qrs
up slurring of QRS(delta wave)

52
Q

ECG findings of ganong Levine synd

A

short pr int
no up slurring of qrs

53
Q

how to differentiate between polymorphic tachycardia and torsados de pointes

A

PVT; normal qt interval with beat to beat variability

TDP; prolonged qt interval with beta to beat variability
(with twisting towards the isoelectric line)

54
Q

how to differentiate between polymorphic tachycardia and torsades de pointes

A

PVT; normal qt interval with beat to beat variability

TDP; prolonged qt interval with beta to beat variability
(with twisting towards the isoelectric line)

55
Q

Loud machinery murmur during 6 weeks off birth

A

PDA

56
Q

murmurs on the lower end of sternum
louder on inspiration
associated with pulsate hepatomegaly

A

Tricuspid incompetance

murmurs of the right heart are better able to be differentiated on inspiration and near sternum.

57
Q

murmurs on the lower end of sternum
louder on inspiration
associated with a wave on JVP in the neck

murmurs on the lower end of sternum
louder on inspiration associated with COPD

A

tricuspid stenosis

usually a consequence of pulmonary hypertension secondary to mitral valve stenosis. The Graham Steell murmur(for Pul Regurg)
is often heard in patients with COPD

58
Q

antianginal medications ar

A

beta nd cal channel blockers
nocorandil
ivabradine
ranolazine

59
Q

what is framingham criteria?

A

it is a criteria to diagnose Cardiac failure;
2 major criteria or 1 maj criteria with 2 minor criteria

major criteria;
jvp
cxr showing cardiomegaly
4.5kg wt loss after starting the tx
pnd

minor criteria;
nocturnal cough
dyspnea on exertion
b/l ankle edema
pleural effusion

60
Q

incase of malignant hypertension;following symptoms are there
high bp
proteinuria
hematuria
papilodema/retinal haemorrhage

which are the symptoms above after which the specialist care should be seeked.

A

papiloedema
retinal haemorrhage
pheochromocytoma(headache,paliptations and diaphoresis)

61
Q

symptoms and signs of LVF

A

symptoms;PND,Orthopnea,reduced exercise tolerance
signs; displaced apex,crepts,gallop rythm(3rd heart sound)

62
Q

thalassemia Is a high or a low output state

A

high O/P as the body will compensate for chronic anaemia by increasing the cardiac output.It leads to widened pulse pressure with a low diastolic pressure.

63
Q

complications of CABG

A

stroke, infection,loss of memory temporarily, reduced renal function but not liver failure

64
Q

right sided murmurs are best heard near the sternum and are louder on inspiration(Aortic and Tricuspid)
left heart murmurs are best heard over or near the apex, louder on expiration(Pul,Mitral)

RILE pneumonic

A
65
Q

murmur associated with hepatomegaly?

A

tricuspid incompetence

66
Q

a murmur near the left sternal edge
raised JVP
Prominent a waves

A

loud on insp

if louder on Insp ‘use RILE;narrow it down to right heart murmurs;Aortic and Tricuspid.

It is tricuspid stenosis

67
Q

a murmur over the pul area(left side of upper sternum)
pt known to have COPD

A

Pul regurg
secondary to pul HTN

68
Q

LVH in athletes means

A

HOCM

69
Q

HF symptoms after delivery

A

peri partum cardiomyopathy(it also includes the month following del)

70
Q

causes of Restrictive Cardiomyopathy

A

S-H-A-M
amyloidosis
malignancy
hemochromtosis
sarcoidosis

71
Q

If the size of aortic aneurysm I swore than 6 but less than 6.5 then we just have to let the DVLA know.
If more than 6.5;can not drive
For bus/lorry drivers; cant drive if the diameter is 5.5 or less.

A
72
Q

SVT in stable pts

A

Adenosine 6mg

73
Q

SVT in unstable its

A

Synchronized DC shock

74
Q

Caorctation of aorta in which condition is popular?

A
75
Q

Caorctation of aorta in which condition is popular?

A

Turners syn

76
Q

kartagener synd,misplaced apex beat (heard around rt 4 intercostal space)
dx;

A

Dextrocardia

77
Q

contraindications to exercise intolerance.

A

unstable angina
electrolyte disturbance
recent MI(within the last 2-7 days)
AS
HF
Pul edema

78
Q

if the pt is having chest pain and is not suitable for angio or pic and is going to be medically managed.
Which drugs to be given?

A

Ticagrelol + Aspirin

79
Q

chest pain
going to have angio/pci
which drugs to start before angio/pci?
specially when the age is more than 75

A

prasugrel+aspirin

80
Q

a patient is already taking aspirin for prevention stroke/tia
which med for chest pain

A

clopi+aspirin

81
Q

which anti platelet drug is contraindicated in stroke/tia

A

prasugrel

82
Q

cardiac ablation is usually done for?

A

arrhythmia

83
Q

a patient with afib develops dyspnea and restrictive effect.it is caused. by which drug?

A

Amiodarone;
It is started after getting the cxr and pfts done.

It causes pneumonitis
and pul toxicity

84
Q

method of imaging for aortic dissection?

A

CT of chest and MRI
TOE;for close proximity to the aortic root

85
Q

Holiday heart synd

A

arrhythmia related to binge drinking

86
Q

chest pain,fever after an MI
DX?

A

Post MI or cardiac surgery
tx;Aspirin,NSAIDS and corticosteroids

87
Q

beat to beat variability
QT interval is normal;PVT

beat to beat variabilty
QT Interval is long;Tosades de pointes

A
88
Q

rheumatic fever criteria in set 1

A
89
Q

causes of the LBBB

A

HICKY;HI2C

Cardiomyopathy
idiopathic fibrosis
HTN
IHD

90
Q

cause of the RBBB

A

Cor Pulmonale
Pul embolism

91
Q

Drugs for the symptom relief of stable angina

A

amlodipine, atenolol,GTN

92
Q

Post infarct

A

Tall R waves and ST depression

93
Q

AAA;SIZE 4.5CM
how often should surveillance be?

A

very 3 months

94
Q

AAA;SIZE;5.5cm
how often surveillance

A

should be reviewed urgently in the secondary care within 2 weeks for elective repair

95
Q

Absolute contraindications of thrombolysis.

A

Prev I/C haemmorhage
stroke <6 months
cerebral neoplasm
recent trauma
aortic dissection
active bleeding
gi bleeding
lp,liver biopsy

96
Q

what kind of cardiomyopathy is associated with Amyloidosis?

A

Restrictive Cardiomyopathy.

97
Q

increasing cyanosis during feeding.
habit of squatting
cynanosis and clubbing on examination

A

tetralogy of fallout

98
Q

mitral valve regurg can cause hf

A
99
Q

anti anginal meds

A

1st line;calcium channel and beta blockers
2nd;nicorandil,ISMN,Ivabradine,ranolazine

100
Q

MURMURS;

Graham steel murmur;Pul regurgitation murmur with MS and Pul HTN.

Stokes adam synd

Pt having an mi,thrombolyzed,having PSM;VSD(An anteroseptal MI can be complicated by VSD)

PSM caused by MR;best heard at the apex radiating to the axilla and is loudest during expiration-MRE

PSM caused by TR/Tricuspid incompetance;best heard at the left 4th intercostal space,loudest during inspiration-TRI

Tricuspid Stenosis;left sternal edge,during insp,a waves,early diastolic murmur

Atrial Myxoma also causes PSM at the apex.
It is associated with CARNEY synd(myxomas in the breast,skin,thyroid etc)

Aortic dissection;Early diastolic murmur is best heard at the left sternal edge

Aortic Regurg;Early diastolic murmur at the left parasternal edge,heard best on expiration,sitting forward,with collapsing pulse with a widened pulse pressure.

Pul Regurg;high pitched diastolic murmur over the pul area,left upper sternal edge,loud during insp(this murmur is associated with COPD)

Causes of ES Murmur;
HOCM,Pul stenosis,Aortic stenosis,Aortic sclerosis,flow/physiological murmur during pregnancy

HOCM’s ES murmur is also heard at the left sternal edge and it is increased by the Valsalva maneuver

AS;ES murmur radiating towards the carotids

CHANGES IN THE ECG;

HYPERKALEMIA;tall tented t waves,widened QRS,increased PR

HYPOKALEMIA;flat t waves,u waves,ST dep

HYPERCALCEMIA; shortened QT

HYPOCALCEMIA; ;prolongation of QT

MI’S according to the leads;

Ant;V1-V6
Anteroseptal;ST elevation in V1,V2 may also be V3
Anterolateral; anterior;v2-v4 lateral;1,AVL,V5,V6
Inferior STEMI;2,3,AVF
Lateral STEMI;similar to above lateral(1,avl,v5,v6)

WPW Synd;
Initial part of qrs is slurred
Widened QRS

Lown Ganong Levine synd;
Short PR interval
QRS normal.

A