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SBO4 > MCQ > Flashcards

MCQ Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following hormones is responsible for milk ejection?

a) Follicle stimulating hormone
b) Prolactin
c) Oxytocin
d) Oestrogen

A

c)Oxytocin

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2
Q

Consider the hormone responsible for milk ejection. This hormone is released from the:

a) Anterior Pituitary
b) Posterior Pituitary
c) Hypothalamus
d) Ovaries

A

b) Posterior Pituitary

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3
Q

Which nerves are responsible for the cutaneous nerve supply to the back (thoracic region)?

a) Ventral rami of thoracic spinal nerves
b) Intercostal nerves
c) Dorsal rami of thoracic spinal nerves
d) The thoracodorsal and long thoracic nerves

A

c) Dorsal rami of thoracic spinal nerves

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4
Q

Which of the following neural structures are considered part of the craniosacral outflow?

a) Pelvic splanchnic nerves
b) Abdominopelvic splanchnic nerves
c) Solitary nuclei of CNVII, CNIX and CNX
d) Sacral paravertebral ganglia

A

A) Pelvic splanchnic nerves

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5
Q

Which of the following effects arise from parasympathetic stimulation?

a) Peripheral vasoconstriction
b) Pupillary constriction
c) Peripheral vasodilation
d) Pupillary dilation
e) Both B & C are caused by parasympathetic stimulation

A

b)Pupillary constriction

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6
Q

Q. Intercostal nerves are the direct continuation of which neural structures?

a) Ventral rami of thoracic spinal nerves
b) Cardiopulmonary splanchnic nerves
c) Left and right phrenic nerves
d) Dorsal rami of thoracic spinal nerves

A

a) Ventral rami of thoracic spinal nerves

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7
Q

Q. From an embryological perspective, the epidermis of the skin covering the thoracic cage is derived from the:

a) Endoderm
b) Ectoderm
c) Somite
d) Somatic mesoderm

A

b) Ectoderm

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8
Q

Q. Which of the following tumours commonly spreads to the thoracic spine?

a) Brain
b) Liver
c) Lung
d) Cervix

A

c) Lung

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9
Q

Q. Consider the efferent pathway that increases the activity of the heart. Select the most correct statement below.

a) The pathway originates in the dorsal motor nucleus
b) The pathway originates in the paravertebral ganglia at the levels of T1-6
c) The pathway originates in the lateral horns of the upper thoracic segments
d) The pathway originates in the lateral horns of T1-L2

A

c) The pathway originates in the lateral horns of the upper thoracic segments

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10
Q

Q. Consider the neural pathway of CNX when it provides thoracic viscera with motor nerve supply. What type of receptor is stimulated by this pathway at the target organ?

a) Nicotinic
b) Adrenergic
c) Dopaminergic
d) Muscarinic

A

d) Muscarinic

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11
Q

Q. The Bundle of His is located:

a) In the right atrial wall, just inferior to the entrance of the SVC
b) Beneath the endocardium of the ventricles
c) In the inferior portion of the interatrial septum, above the tricuspid valve
d) In the superior part of the interventricular septum

A

d) In the superior part of the interventricular septum

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12
Q

Q. On an ECG, the P wave is caused by:

a) Atrial depolarisation
b) Atrial contraction
c) Ventricular depolarisation
d) Ventricular contraction

A

a) Atrial depolarisation

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13
Q

Q. The carotid sinus is located at the bifurcation of the common carotid artery. The carotid sinus contains numerous:

a) Thermoreceptors
b) Baroreceptors
c) Chemoreceptors
d) Nociceptors

A

b) Baroreceptors

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14
Q

Q. Visceral afferent fibres convey sensory information from the carotid sinus to the central nervous system. These visceral afferent fibres travel as part of the:

a) Facial nerve
b) Glossopharyngeal nerve
c) Vagus nerve
d) Accessory nerve

A

b) Glossopharyngeal nerve

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15
Q

Q. Visceral afferent fibres convey sensory information from the carotid sinus to the central nervous system. The cell bodies of these nerves are located in the:

a) Spinal trigeminal nucleus
b) Solitary nucleus
c) Dorsal vagal nucleus
d) Nucleus ambiguus

A

b) Solitary nucleus

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16
Q

In a healthy heart, the beginning of ventricular systole is associated with:

The closure of the semilunar valves

The second heart sound (S2)

The opening of the atrioventricular valves

High intra-ventricular pressures

A

High intra-ventricular pressures

17
Q

Select the correct statement about capillaries:

Blood flows through true capillaries when pre-capillary sphincters are open

Capillaries are considered the smallest of the arteries

All tissues of the body possess a rich capillary supply for the purpose of nutrient exchange

Capillaries unite to form extremely porous vessels known as arterioles

A

Blood flows through true capillaries when pre-capillary sphincters are open

18
Q

The vasomotor centre is located in the:

Midbrain

Pons

Medulla

Hypothalamus

A

Medulla

19
Q

The vasomotor centre receives input from:

Higher brain centres and the nucleus ambiguous

The solitary nucleus and the dorsal motor nucleus

The solitary nucleus and higher brain centres

The limbic system and the nucleus ambiguous

A

The solitary nucleus and higher brain centres

20
Q

The vasomotor centre has neural projections that influence the:

a) The dorsal motor nucleus
b) The dorsal motor nucleus and the lateral horns of T1 – 5/6
c) The dorsal motor nucleus and the lateral horns of T1 – L2
d) The lateral horns T1 – L2

A

d) The lateral horns T1 – L2

21
Q

Capillary hydrostatic pressure is:

The pressure exerted by fluid in the interstitial space against the capillary wall

Minimal in healthy individuals

The pressure exerted by plasma proteins (albumin) in capillary blood

The pressure exerted by fluid in the capillary against the capillary wall

A

The pressure exerted by fluid in the capillary against the capillary wall

22
Q

Some individuals with right sided heart failure develop pitting oedema in their ankles. The oedema in this situation occurs due to:

Decreased capillary hydrostatic pressure

Increased capillary hydrostatic pressure

Decreased capillary osmotic pressure

Increased interstitial osmotic pressure

A

Increased capillary hydrostatic pressure

23
Q

Q. Select the correct statement about the respiratory zone:

It includes the nasal cavities, pharynx, larynx and trachea

It includes the alveoli of the lung

It is responsible for the cleansing, humidification and warming of incoming air

It provides a conduit for air to reach the sites of gas exchange

A

It includes the alveoli of the lung

24
Q

Q. Which of the following situations would result in bronchodilation?

Outflow from the dorsal motor nucleus

Medical treatment with a beta-2 receptor antagonist

Release of adrenaline from the adrenal gland

Outflow from the nucleus ambiguus

A

Medical treatment with a beta-2 receptor antagonist

25
Q

Q. The terminal bronchioles are lined by:

Squamous epithelial cells

Cuboidal epithelial cells

Columnar epithelial cells

Transitional epithelial cells

A

Cuboidal epithelial cells

26
Q

Q. External respiration refers to:

The movement of air both into and out of the lungs

Gas exchange at the alveolar level

Glycolysis, but not the mitochondrial production of ATP

The flow of air out of the lungs and into the atmosphere

A

The flow of air out of the lungs and into the atmosphere

27
Q

Q. Demyelination of the CNS and PNS may be associated with:

Iron deficiency anaemia

Folate deficiency anaemia

Vitamin B12 deficiency anaemia

Beta thalassaemia

A

Folate deficiency anaemia

28
Q

Q. Secondary haemochromatosis arises due to:

a) The treatment of beta thalassaemia
b) Presence of the hereditary haemochromatosis gene
c) Higher than normal levels of hepcidin
d) Gastrointestinal bleeding

A

a) The treatment of beta thalassaemia

29
Q

Q. The amount of air remaining in the lungs after a forced expiration is:

Functional residual capacity

Expiratory reserve volume

Residual volume

Vital capacity

A

Residual volume

30
Q

Q. Chronic bronchitis may be diagnosed if a patient has a productive cough on most days:

For at least 3 consecutive months, over the space of one year

For at least 6 consecutive months, over the space of one year

For at least 3 consecutive months, in each of two successive years

For at last 6 consecutive months, in each of two successive years

A

For at least 3 consecutive months, in each of two successive years

SBO4 (9 decks)

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