MCD- Genetics (1,2,6&7) Flashcards

1
Q

What are congenital abnormalities¬ and what are the contributions of genetic factors to these abnormalities?

A

Congenital abnormalities are conditions present at birth. Genetic factors contribute to 40% of all congenital abnormalities.

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2
Q

What is a malformation?

A

This is an error of morphology (shape/structure) of an organ. A primary structural defect, where something goes wrong at a very early stage and cannot be fixed.

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3
Q

What is a disruption?

A

This is where the embryo begins developing normally and an environmental factor causes an abnormal result.

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4
Q

What is a deformation?

A

The abnormal form, shape or position of a part of the body caused by mechanical forces (such as a club foot due to lack of space in the womb). These abnormal forms can be treated with surgery.

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5
Q

What is a dysplasia?

A

An abnormal organisation of cells into tissues and the morphological results.

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6
Q

What is a sequence?

A

A pattern of multiple anomalies derived from a single known prior anomaly or mechanical factor. Eg. The potter sequence is where there is a failure to produce urine resulting in ogliohydramnios, potter faces, and clubbed feet.

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7
Q

What is a syndrome?

A

Multiple anomalies thought to have a common cause and not representing a sequence. Eg. Down syndrome

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8
Q

What is an association?

A

A condition where there are multiple abnormalities where the reason why is unknown. An example is VATERL.

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9
Q

Describe the levels of organisation in the nucleus

A

DNA makes genes, which are wrapped around histones to form nucleosomes. Nucleosomes form 30nm fibres which condense to form chromosomes which then form the genome.

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10
Q

What are the long and short arms of the chromosome labelled as? How are they numbered?

A

The short arm is p, while the long arm is q. The arms are numbered out from the centromere.

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11
Q

Describe the different types of structural abnormalities

A

A structural abnormality includes duplication, where the genetic material is repeated, inversion, where it is swapped around, deletion, where some of the gene is removed, and ring, where the ends of the chromosome fuse together to form a ring.

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12
Q

What is a Robertsonian translocation? Does it cause an abnormal phenotype?

A

Robertsonian translocations are where the chromosomes break at their centromeres and the q arms dude to form a single chromosome. This can have no effect as the same genetic material is present - unless a gene is disrupted or gene fusion occurs.

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13
Q

Define aneuploidy and summarise the 3 types of aneuploidy.

A

Aneuploidy is an abnormal number of chromosomes in the cell:

  • Monosomy is the loss of a chromosome, which is almost always lethal.
  • Trisomy is the gain of 1 chromosome, such as at chromosome 21 in Down syndrome.
  • Tetrasomy is the gain of 2 chromosomes, which can be tolerated for some chromosomes.
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14
Q

Describe the effects and features of trisomy 21.

A
  • Newborns have excess nuchal skin, lethargy and hypotonia (decreased muscle tone)
  • Craniofacial features include small ears, brushfield spots (white spots in the iris) and macroglossia (an unusually large tongue)
  • Limbs - wide gap between first and second toes.
  • Cardiac issues - Patients have a short stature, and duodenal atresia (absence of closure of a portion of the lumen in the duodenum, causing increased amniotic fluid during pregnancy)
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15
Q

What happens in trisomy 21 during meiosis?

A

There is non-disjunction in meiosis I or II, resulting in an extra chromosome. There can also be a Robertsonian translocation, which can be carried by parents and increases the risk of further Down syndrome babies. A carrier of t(21;21) has a 100% chance of a Down syndrome baby, as any other fetuses will not survive. De novo translocations can also occur in the child.

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16
Q

What is mosaicism?

A

During division in the zygote non dysjunction occurs, forming some cells with trisomy and some with monosomy. This is more serious early on as it will affect the patient more.

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17
Q

Why do trisomies cause disease?

A

There will be overexpression of some genes disrupting cell function, for example producing more transcription factors than necessary.

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18
Q

What is turners syndrome?

A

This is where there is monosomy X, only one X chromosome is present in a female, resulting in a webbed neck, low set ears, low hairline, broad chest, and aortic defects. Treatment requires growth hormones or oestrogen. Can be due to a ring chromosome.

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19
Q

What is Klinefelter syndrome?

A

XXY where a patient is phenotypically male, causing infertility, patients are taller than average, and patients have learning disabilities.

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20
Q

What is dosage compensation?

A

Random inactivation if a single X chromosome in females, ensuring equal gene expression in all sexes. This results in daughter cells having the same inactive chromosome - seen in tortoiseshell cats.

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21
Q

How is it possible to be chromosomally one gender and phenotypically the other?

A

The SRY gene on the Y chromosome may have translocated to an X chromosome in females, resulting in a male. Or, the SRY gene in a male could be deleted resulting in an infertile female (phenotypically).

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22
Q

What happens to risk of trisomy 21 as maternal and paternal age increases?

A

Increase in maternal age results in increased Down syndrome risk - increase in paternal age has no increased risk.

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23
Q

What is copy number variation?

A

This is where a section of a gene is repeated, for example in Huntington’s disorder the CAG in a gene is repeated. The number of repeats increases through generations, and therefore so does the severity and the onset of the disease will become earlier.

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24
Q

List the 3 chromosome aberrations that lead to Downs syndrome

A
  • Trisomy 21
  • De novo translocations
  • Parents are carriers of translocations
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25
Q

What is the difference between a monogenic and complex disorder?

A

A monogenic disorder has clear inheritance, and is individually rare, while a complex disorder is affected by the environment, and is usually more common.

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26
Q

What is the difference between a mutation and a polymorphism?

A

Mutations are a inheritable change in DNA sequence. A polymorphism is a mutation that is present in over 1% of the population. If a monogenic disease is caused, it is referred to as a mutation.

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27
Q

Define Mendelian inheritance

A

The process where individuals inherit and pass onto offspring one of the two alleles present in their homologous chromosomes.

28
Q

What are the types of point mutations?

A

Missense mutations cause a different amino acid sequence, nonsense mutations cause the polypeptide to shorten, and silent mutations have no change in amino acid sequence.

29
Q

What are frameshift mutations?

A

These are insertions or deletions of less than one codon (or more than) that result in a change in the whole sequence of amino acids, completely changing the protein structure.

30
Q

Why would you take a genetic family history?

A

This allows genetic disease in a family to be identified, as well as inheritance pattens, and aids the diagnosis of diseases. Relatives can be informed of risk of disease, and conditions can be managed.

31
Q

What is the key in a family pedigree?

A
  • Squares are male, circles are female
  • Crosses represent dead patients
  • Dots represent carriers
  • Filled in boxes are those that suffer with a condition.
  • The pedigree starts with the affected person and their siblings.
32
Q

How are autosomal dominant conditions seen on a family pedigree? Give an example of a condition.

A
  • At least one parent must be affected
  • The gender does not matter
  • There is a vertical transmission with a 50% risk of a child being affected
  • An example is Huntington’s disease, where the Huntingtin gene is mutated and the protein produced is toxic and builds up throughout the patients lifetime, hence why onset of the disease is so late.
33
Q

How are autosomal recessive conditions seen on a family pedigree? What is an example of a condition?

A
  • Parents may not be affected
  • No link to gender
  • No family history
  • 25% chance of a child being affected with a 50% chance of them being a carrier
  • An example is cystic fibrosis, which causes mucus to be produced in the lungs. This is because there is the absence of functional CFTR affecting chloride ion function. Treatment involves daily enzymes and physio.
34
Q

Describe X-linked recessive inheritance¬ and give an example

A
  • Parents may not be affected. The mother is a carrier, usually males are affected
  • Sons have a 50% chance of being effected while daughters have a 50% chance of being carriers
  • Haemophilia is a blood clotting disorder where affected people bruise easily and bleed longer. This is because of a mutated F8 gene causing a coagulation factor to not be produced. Haemophilia B is rarer, caused by mutations in the F9 gene but has identical symptoms to haemophilia A.
35
Q

What is genetic heterogeneity?

A
  • The same gene can have different mutations resulting in different diseases (eg. CF)
  • Different genes can cause the same disease (haemphilia A and B)
  • The same disease can be caused by different genes with different inheritance patterns
36
Q

What is incomplete penetrance?

A

Symptoms are not present in an individual with a disease causing mutation

37
Q

What is variable expressivity?

A

Disease severity varies between individuals with the same disease causing mutation.

38
Q

What is a phenocopy?

A

Having the same disease with a different underlying cause.

39
Q

What is epistasis?

A

The interaction between disease gene mutations and other modifier genes, affecting the phenotype.

40
Q

What is the difference in the mechanism of dominant and recessive disorders?

A

Dominant disorders involve production of a toxic protein, while recessive disorders involve the lack of a functional protein (so require two versions of the allele)

41
Q

What are co-dominant conditions?

A

Conditions where both mutated and normal genes are expressed in people who are heterozygous, such as in sickle cell trait.

42
Q

What is the difference in therapy for people with dominant or recessive disorders?

A

Dominant conditions require toxic proteins to be neutralised or mutant genes to be switched off, while recessive disorders require the missing protein to be replaced either with the gene or the gene product.

43
Q

What is GWAS and how is it used in diabetes?

A

GWAS is a genome wide association study, which is performed in large populations to look at SNPs which may result in diabetes (single nucleotide polymorphisms). It is used to calculate genetic risk scores and also to personalise treatments.

44
Q

What types of diabetes are caused by polymorphisms?

A

Type 1 and type 2 diabetes.

45
Q

Describe the causes and treatment of type 1 diabetes.

A

Type 1 diabetes occurs when there is diminished or absent endogenous beta cell function, meaning that insulin is not secreted when necessary. In the treatment, insulin must be injected.

46
Q

Describe the causes and treatment of type 2 diabetes

A

Type 2 diabetes has a later onset, and is caused by insulin desensitivity - the reduction in insulin action results in an increase in insulin secretion, and eventually the cells are warn out and no more insulin is produced (pancreatic exhaustion). Treated initially with diet and exercise, and eventually with tablets and insulin.

47
Q

What are the types of monogenic diabetes?

A

Mitochondrial diabetes, mature onset diabetes of the young (MODY) and permanent neonatal diabetes.

48
Q

What type of disease is MODY?

A

Collection of autosomal dominant monogenic disorders affecting genes involved in beta-cell glucose sensing and insulin secretion.

49
Q

What are the main genes that cause MODY and how do they work?

A
  • Glucokinase is a gene causing MODY, results in less glucose being converted to glucose 6-phosphate. This increases the amount of glucose required for insulin to be secreted. Patients have stable hyperglycaemia - this is ok because homeostatic mechanisms are present to correct it, so it doesnt actually require treatment.
  • HNF1-alpha (hepatic nuclear factor 1a) is a transcription factor involved in insulin secretion. Manifests in adults when b cells begin to degrade. Treated with sulphonylureas, eventually require insulin treatment.
50
Q

What are copy number variants and how do they relate to diabetes?

A

These are deletions, insertions, and duplications. They increase risk of polygenic diseases - most commonly encountered in obesity.

51
Q

How is mitochondrial diabetes inherited? Why does the phenotype vary?

A

Inherited from the mother - varies due to heteroplasmy (differing number of affected mitochondria).

52
Q

How is PND diagnosed and treated?

A

Permanent neonatal diabetes - diabetes in the first 6 months of life, children and adults can switch to sulphanylureas.

53
Q

Define precision medicine

A

The use of genomic information to identify disease origins, develop targeted therapies, and improve outcomes.

54
Q

What is the principle of a DNA test?

A

DNA isolation, PCR (amplification), and visualisation on agarose gel.

55
Q

Describe an example of a disease where PCR could be used in diagnosis.

A

PCR can be used to identify the 3 base deletion in cystic fibrosis.

56
Q

What is Sanger sequencing?

A
  • A technique to determine the sequence of DNA, that uses dideoxynucleotides to prevent further extension past a known base.
  • The dNTPs fluoresce different colours to allow determination of the chain - uses gel electrophoresis to sort fragments into size order.
  • Has the lowest errors but is the expensive and can only analyse one strand at a time.
57
Q

What is next generation sequencing?

A
  • DNA is split into fragments, which are then attatched to adapters.
  • The desired fragments are trapped, and undesired fragments are washed out.
  • The fragments are replicated by PCR, and then assembled in the correct order, using a reference DNA sequence.
  • An NGS library is a collection of similarly sized DNA fragments with known adapter sequences added to the 5’ and 3’ ends. A library corresponds to a single sample and multiple libraries, each with their own unique adapter sequences, can be pooled and sequenced in the same sequencing run.
  • Targeted NGS has probes captured by beads.
  • It is expensive and many sequences can be analysed at once, but it is not as accurate as sanger sequencing
58
Q

How can NGS be used in pharmacogenomics?

A

NGS is used to sequence the DNA, and this can be used to determine which drugs will work best on patients and which will have the least side effects.

59
Q

How can NGS be used in rapid diagnosis?

A

DNA is purified from biofilm, and amplified in PCR. The product is then sequenced and compared to a database to identify the bacterial species.

60
Q

What is nanopore technology?

A

This is technology such as the minION, where DNA is sequenced by threading it through a microscopic pore in the membrane. The bases are identified by how they affect ions flowing through the pore.

61
Q

What are CAR T cells?

A

Chimeric antigen receptors, which bind to antigens and T cells. They modify T cells to recognise cancer cells. Used in acute lymphoblastic leukaemia but can result in cytokine release syndrome.

62
Q

What is CRISPR/Cas9?

A

DNA editing - an enzyme cuts out non functioning DNA and functioning DNA is inserted in its place. Cas 9 is the RNA guided DNA endonuclease enzyme used with CRISPR.

63
Q

What are the challenges of gene therapy?

A

Delivering the gene to the right place and switching it on, avoiding the immune response, cost, and ensuring the new gene doesnt affect existing genes.

64
Q

List the alternative methods to change gene expression

A
  • Read through therapy is treating disease caused by premature stop codons. Nonsense suppression therapy uses nonsense mediated decay (NMD) inhibitors, which increase protein production.
  • mRNA therapeutics is where mRNA is delivered to the cytoplasm, though it is quickly degraded and can stimulate an inflammatory response.
  • miRNA can be used to inhibit gene expression, but needs to be studied more.
65
Q

What are the challenges in genomic medicine?

A

Cost, ethics, long term effects, and who should have access to information gathered from NGS.