mc prac qs Flashcards

1
Q

What does reproductive isolation refer to?

A) Lack of geographic separation
B) Inability of different species to interbreed
C) Interbreeding of closely related species
D) Migration of species to new locations

A

b

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2
Q
  1. Why do different species that coexist remain distinct?

A) They share habitats
B) They interbreed
C) They do not interbreed
D) They migrate frequently

A

c

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3
Q
  1. What does geographical variation refer to?

A) Genetic drift
B) Migration patterns
C) Differences in species based on location
D) Reproductive isolation

A

c

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4
Q
  1. What is a familiar concept in biology regarding species?

A) All living forms are identical
B) Living forms are divided into different species
C) Living forms evolve by genetic drift
D) All living forms interbreed freely

A

b

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5
Q

Why might birds of different species not interbreed?

A) They live in the same location
B) They have different reproductive cycles
C) They produce similar sounds
D) They belong to the same species

A

b

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6
Q
  1. What is the main criterion for defining different species?

A) Physical differences
B) Reproductive isolation
C) Geographic location
D) Size and shape

A

B) Reproductive isolation

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7
Q
  1. Which organisms present a challenge to the concept of species?

A) Plants
B) Mammals
C) Microbes
D) Birds

A

c

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8
Q
  1. What happens if barriers to interbreeding break down?

A) Species remain unchanged
B) Highly variable offspring are produced
C) New species immediately form
D) All organisms become sterile

A

b

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9
Q

What can prevent closely related species from interbreeding?

A) Only geographical separation
B) Simple habitat differences
C) Complete anatomical differences
D) All species have identical habitats

A

b

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10
Q

What is an example of a behavioral barrier to mating?

A) Geographic isolation
B) Mating seasons
C) Differences in mating sounds or smells
D) Genetic drift

A

c

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11
Q
  1. Which of the following can reject pollen from the wrong species?

A) Birds
B) Insects
C) Animals
D) Plants

A

d

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12
Q

Why do some first-generation hybrids fail to develop?

A) Lack of genetic diversity
B) Behavioral differences
C) Genetic incompatibility
D) Geographic distance

A

c

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13
Q

What often happens to hybrids even if they are viable?

A) They live longer
B) They become the dominant species
C) They are often sterile
D) They reproduce successfully

A

c

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14
Q

How do most barriers to interbreeding evolve?

A) Through mutation only
B) Due to reproductive isolation by chance
C) As by-products of other evolutionary changes
D) Through extinction of intermediate species

A

c

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15
Q

What promotes genetic divergence in geographically separated populations?

A) Migration
B) Genetic drift only
C) Mutation and natural selection
D) Complete isolation

A

C) Mutation and natural selection

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16
Q

Why is migration considered a homogenizing force?

A) It reduces genetic differences
B) It causes species to evolve faster
C) It leads to geographic separation
D) It increases genetic mutations

A

A) It reduces genetic differences

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17
Q

Which force primarily causes populations to diverge?

A) Migration
B) Selection and genetic drift
C) Reproductive isolation
D) Adaptation

A

B) Selection and genetic drift

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18
Q

What type of plant adaptation might occur due to metal contamination?

A) Genetic drift
B) Migration
C) Metal tolerance
D) Behavioral changes

A

c

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19
Q

How can genetic drift lead to evolutionary divergence?

A) By adapting organisms to local conditions
B) By random changes in gene frequencies
C) By increasing interbreeding
D) By reducing mutation rates

A

b

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20
Q

Why do geographically separate populations often diverge?

A) Due to shared mutations
B) Through isolation and independent evolution
C) Through frequent interbreeding
D) Through lack of selection pressure

A

b

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21
Q

Which term describes the tendency of local populations to diverge genetically?

A) Gene flow
B) Mutation
C) Genetic drift
D) Speciation

A

C) Genetic drift

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22
Q

What is the primary cause of hybrid sterility?

A) Lack of genetic variation
B) Interaction between different genes from two species
C) Reproductive isolation
D) Geographic isolation

A

b

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23
Q

Why is the concept of species challenging for asexual organisms?

A) They have limited genetic variation
B) They do not interbreed
C) They are genetically identical
D) They only reproduce sexually

A

B

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24
Q
  1. How do scientists infer relationships between species?

A) Through reproductive isolation
B) By comparing molecular divergence
C) By studying fossils only
D) Through anatomical similarities only

A

b

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25
Q
  1. Why are changes in DNA coding sequences rare?

A) Most mutations are beneficial
B) Insertions and deletions are stable
C) Such changes affect protein functionality
D) Mutations do not affect evolution

A

c

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26
Q
  1. What effect do most protein mutations have?

A) Improve protein function
B) Impair protein function
C) Have no effect
D) Promote reproduction

A

b

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27
Q
  1. How does genetic drift affect small populations?

A) It accelerates genetic uniformity
B) It increases genetic diversity
C) It decreases reproductive isolation
D) It prevents gene mutation

A

a

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28
Q
  1. Why do silent mutations accumulate over time?

A) They are eliminated by selection
B) They have no biological impact
C) They affect protein function
D) They enhance genetic drift

A

b

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29
Q
  1. What type of evidence supports the stepwise evolution of complex structures?

A) Fossil intermediates and present-day intermediates
B) Molecular data only
C) Environmental adaptations only
D) Behavioral traits alone

A

a

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30
Q
  1. What is an example of a biological trait that poses a challenge to explain?

A) Feeding habits
B) Flight and eyes
C) Locomotion
D) Coloration patterns

A

b

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31
Q
  1. How can natural selection contribute to aging?

A) It selects mutations that promote old age
B) It selects for early reproductive success
C) It favors mutations expressed late in life
D) It prevents genetic drift

A

b

32
Q
  1. Why might organisms age according to evolutionary theory?

A) Mutations benefit old age survival
B) External causes of death reduce selection for late-life health
C) Young individuals are less susceptible to mutation
D) Aging is an unpreventable genetic outcome

A

b

33
Q

What leads to sterile castes in social insects?

A) Genetic mutations unrelated to kin selection
B) Kin selection and colony-based roles
C) Environmental changes only
D) Genetic drift within colonies

A

b

34
Q

Why is kin selection relevant in understanding sterile social castes?

A) It promotes genetic diversity
B) It enhances reproductive success
C) It favors genes shared among relatives
D) It promotes colony isolation

A

c

35
Q
  1. What happens in evolutionary terms when two populations are completely isolated?

A) They merge genetically
B) They continue interbreeding
C) They evolve independently
D) They become identical

A

c

36
Q
  1. How does genetic drift lead to population divergence?

A) Through selective mating
B) Through gradual isolation
C) Through random gene frequency changes
D) Through genetic uniformity

A

c

37
Q
  1. What does a mutation’s frequency in a population depend on?

A) Selective advantage only
B) Environmental conditions only
C) Genetic drift and selection
D) Migration rates only

A

c

38
Q
  1. What happens to neutral mutations over generations?

A) They disappear entirely
B) They increase randomly in frequency
C) They are selected against
D) They improve reproductive success

A

b

39
Q
  1. How do proteins evolve more slowly than DNA sequences?

A) Due to lack of selective pressures
B) Because they change more rapidly
C) Due to fewer neutral mutations
D) Due to functional constraints

A

d

40
Q
  1. How do kin selection and sterile castes relate?

A) Kin selection prevents reproductive isolation
B) Kin selection promotes colony reproduction
C) Kin selection enhances the genetic diversity of castes
D) Kin selection favors reproductive roles within a colony

A

b

41
Q

What is a key factor limiting the geographic distribution of many species?

A) Social structures
B) Geography and climate
C) Species interbreeding
D) Migration rates

A

b

42
Q

Who outlined the broad pattern of species distribution globally?

A) Charles Darwin
B) Alfred Wallace
C) Gregor Mendel
D) Thomas Malthus

A

b

43
Q
  1. Which experimental method is used to determine if geographic distribution is limited by dispersal?

A) Genetic sequencing
B) Fossil record analysis
C) Transplant experiment
D) Behavioral study

A

c

44
Q

What is often the result when predators prevent the establishment of a species?

A) Expansion of the species
B) Genetic drift
C) Local extinction
D) Increase in population

A

c

45
Q
  1. What type of climate change has influenced species to expand toward the poles?

A) Seasonal variation
B) Atmospheric cooling
C) Climatic warming
D) Ocean current shifts

A

c

46
Q

The phenomenon where mangrove trees expand poleward is related to what factor?

A) Rising sea levels
B) Increased pollution
C) Temperature thresholds shifting
D) Ocean acidification

A

c

47
Q

Which concept helps understand species’ movement in response to climate change?

A) Gene flow rate
B) Rate of climatic change
C) Carbon cycling
D) Microclimate mapping

A

b

48
Q

Why do prevailing winds affect ecosystems?

A) They are high in biodiversity
B) They disperse species globally
C) They redistribute heat and water
D) They prevent climate variation

A

c

49
Q

What is the primary effect of Hadley cells on the environment?

A) Increase biodiversity
B) Cause extreme temperature variation
C) Set up atmospheric circulation patterns
D) Produce more rainfall in polar regions

A

c

50
Q

In which climate zone are deserts typically found?

A) At the poles
B) Around the equator
C) 30° N and S latitudes
D) 60° N and S latitudes

A

c

51
Q

The term ‘doldrums’ refers to what?

A) Hot, arid regions
B) Rainy regions near the equator
C) Windless equatorial area
D) Polar zones with no sunlight

A

c

52
Q

The Coriolis effect influences wind direction by:

A) Creating upward wind flow
B) Inducing north-south movement
C) Giving winds an east-west tendency
D) Increasing wind speed

A

c

53
Q

Why do trade winds have a significant impact on ecosystems?

A) They determine migratory paths
B) They bring cold air to equatorial regions
C) They are involved in oceanic water vapor transfer
D) They restrict animal movement

A

c

54
Q

Which factor is crucial in determining where organisms live?

A) Altitude only
B) Latitude only
C) Temperature and precipitation
D) Solar radiation alone

A

c

55
Q

What is the primary effect of the Gulf Stream on Great Britain’s climate?

A) Decreased rainfall
B) Milder winters
C) Higher summer temperatures
D) Increased wind patterns

A

b

56
Q

Which cell circulation pattern is associated with desert formation at 30° N and S?

A) Polar cells
B) Ferrell cells
C) Hadley cells
D) Equatorial cells

A

c

57
Q

How do continental climates differ from maritime climates?

A) Continental climates are milder
B) Maritime climates have more temperature extremes
C) Continental climates have more temperature extremes
D) Both have similar temperature ranges

A

c

58
Q

What contributes to orogenic precipitation?

A) Air warming over oceans
B) Air cooling as it rises over mountains
C) Continental temperature extremes
D) Low atmospheric pressure zones

A

b

59
Q

Which type of forest is supported by riparian zones?

A) Deciduous forests
B) Mangrove forests
C) Rainforests
D) Gallery forests

A

d

60
Q

The presence of mangrove species is a good indicator of:

A) Biodiversity loss
B) Pollution levels
C) Ocean warming
D) Soil composition

A

c

61
Q

What is the defining feature of Hadley cells?

A) They are located at high latitudes
B) They have minimal rainfall
C) They create tropical rainforests and deserts
D) They occur only in polar regions

A

c

62
Q

Mangroves often displace which vegetation type?

A) Grasslands
B) Temperate forests
C) Salt marsh vegetation
D) Alpine tundra

A

c

63
Q

Which of the following best explains why the Hadley cell circulation results in arid conditions at approximately 30° N and S latitudes?

A) Descending air at these latitudes compresses and warms, reducing relative humidity and inhibiting cloud formation
B) Cold air from the poles mixes with warm equatorial air, creating high-pressure zones
C) Ocean currents at these latitudes absorb atmospheric moisture, causing dry conditions
D) Increased solar radiation at these latitudes prevents water vapor condensation

A

a

64
Q

In terms of ecological consequences, what is a primary reason that poleward shifts in species distributions may not always align with climate warming predictions?

A) Barriers such as mountains and oceans restrict movement even if climate conditions are favorable
B) Species are unable to adapt to changes in temperature
C) Rising CO₂ levels exclusively affect species at lower latitudes
D) Increased human infrastructure directs species to lower altitudes

A

a

65
Q

Why might orographic (mountain-induced) precipitation contribute to greater species diversity on the windward side of a mountain range compared to the leeward side?

A) Increased sunlight exposure on the windward side
B) Higher temperatures due to air compression
C) Greater availability of water from rainfall supports varied vegetation types
D) Pollinator populations thrive better on the windward side

A

c

66
Q

Which of the following factors would be least likely to affect the geographic distribution of a highly mobile species?

A) Physical barriers like mountain ranges
B) Seasonal climate variations
C) Microhabitat requirements
D) Global wind patterns

A

c

67
Q

The concept of thermal inertia in oceans primarily contributes to which of the following climate phenomena?

A) Increased annual rainfall over continents
B) Less severe temperature fluctuations in coastal areas
C) Faster seasonal transitions on land
D) Lower relative humidity in tropical zones

A

b

68
Q
  1. How do Coriolis forces and Hadley cell movements collectively shape global wind patterns?

A) Hadley cells produce north-south winds only, while Coriolis forces direct them east-west
B) Coriolis forces reverse Hadley cell effects, creating stable climate zones
C) The Coriolis effect deflects Hadley-driven airflows, resulting in prevailing easterly and westerly winds
D) Hadley cells enhance Coriolis forces, leading to uniform global winds

A

c

69
Q

Which of the following statements best explains why some introduction experiments have had harmful results, but not others?

a) Some species do not have predators or competition in the introduced range.

b)Many introduced species are agricultural crops or domesticated animals.

c) Most introductions involve too many individuals to be harmful.

d)Humans are unable to actively manage all introduced species.

A

a

70
Q

Recent shifts from salt marsh vegetation to mangrove dominance indicate that mangrove trees are limited by:

A

temp

71
Q

If a transplant experiment shows that a species can live and reproduce beyond its current range, what is limiting the species’ present distribution?

A

dispersal

72
Q

What is a consequence of the 23.5° tilt of Earth’s axis?

A

The occurrence of winter in the Northern hemisphere during the months of November through February.

73
Q

If you have watched the weather forecast on television, you may have noticed that storms spin as they travel. This is due to the Coriolis effect, which itself is caused by:

A

Earth is spinning around on its own axis and spins faster around the equator compared to the poles.

74
Q

Why do arid environments, such as deserts and grasslands, tend to occur on the leeward side of mountain ranges?

A

Mountain ranges force warm, moist, coastal air to rise and cool, causing most of the moisture in the air to have been lost to precipitation by the time the air mass crosses the range and descend on the leeward side.

75
Q

Stockholm, Sweden and Whitehorse, Yukon, are located on almost exactly the same latitude (59° N compared to 60 ° N – for a comparison, Toronto is at 44° N, the same as Nice on the French Riviera). Yet, the mean temperature in January in Stockholm is 12° C warmer than Whitehorse. What is the main reason for this?

A

the gulf stream

76
Q

What environmental conditions are most favourable for ectothermy?

A

Warm temperatures and low environmental stochasticity