MBIO practice test

Question 1

Which of the following statements about the structure of DNA is TRUE?

Cytosine always binds with guanine.

Adenine always binds with cytosine.

Guanine and thymine are both purines.

Purines always bind with purines and pyrimidines with pyrimidines.

Answer 1

Cytosine always binds with guanine.

Question 2

A sequence of DNA codes for a protein. Which of the following mutations is likely to have the least impact on the resultant protein that the sequence of DNA codes for?

Substitution of the 1st base in the sequence.

A one base insertion after the 2nd base.

Substitution of the 3rd base in the sequence.

A deletion of the 1st base.

Answer 2

Substitution of the 3rd base in the sequence.

Question 3

mtDNA:

Is maternally inherited and found in the nucleus.

Is linear and inherited as part of the same mechanism as nuclear DNA.

Is circular and non-recombining.

Is circular and passed down from father to son.

Answer 3

Is maternally inherited and found in the nucleus.

Question 4

Which of the following statements is TRUE of mobile elements?

Transposons and retrotransposons can both replicate but only the latter can excise and insert elsewhere.

Transposons and retrotransposons can both replicate and thus enlarge the genome.

Viral retrotransposons can vacate a cell and infect other cells/organisms.

Only transposons are able to replicate themselves.

Answer 4

Viral retrotransposons can vacate a cell and infect other cells/organisms.

Question 5

Which of the following are described by Mendel’s laws?

The principles of dominance, allele segregation and independent assortment of loci during meiosis.

The principles of dominance, independent assortment and crossing over of alleles during meiosis.

The principles of co-dominance, recombination and independent assortment of loci during meiosis.

The principles of dominance, genetic linkage and segregation of alleles during meiosis.

Answer 5

The principles of dominance, allele segregation and independent assortment of loci during meiosis.

Question 6

Which formula describes the process of mitosis?

1 x 2N -> 4 x 2N

1 x 2N -> 2 x 2N

2 x 2N -> 2 x 2N

1 x 2N -> 1 x 2N

Answer 6

2 x 2N -> 2 x 2N

Question 7

A point mutation is:

An elimination of a segment on a chromosome.

A duplication of a chromosome segment.

The duplication of an entire genome.

A change in a single nucleotide.

Answer 7

A change in a single nucleotide.

Question 8

In most mammals, mtDNA is:

Inherited paternally.

Inherited from all ancestors.

Inherited maternally.

Not inherited.

Answer 8

Inherited maternally.

Question 9

Directional selection should:

Lead to the formation of new species.

Increase the rate of evolution.

Reduce variation.

Increase variation.

Answer 9

Increase variation.

Question 10

In finite populations, genetic drift is caused by:

Positive frequency dependent selection.

Spatial selection.

Negative frequency dependent selection.

Sampling error.

Answer 10

Sampling error.

Question 11

What is the Neo-Darwinian or Modern Synthesis?

The integration of the theories of Natural Selection and genetic inheritance.

The integration of the theories of Natural Selection and Catastrophism.

The integration of the theories of Natural Selection and inheritance of acquired characters.

The integration of the theories of Natural Selection and Creationism.

Answer 11

The integration of the theories of Natural Selection and genetic inheritance.

Question 12

An example of a chromosomal inversion leading to evolutionary novelty is:

Colour variation in Mirabilis jalapa (the ‘4 o’clock’ plant).

Local adaptation in seaweed flies.

Opsin genes in Lepidoptera.

Wing length and eye colour in Drosophila.

Answer 12

Local adaptation in seaweed flies.

Question 13

Which of the following is the most accurate statement about the fossil record?

It provides a complete record of past life.

It provides an incomplete record of past life.

It shows no evidence for punctuated equilibrium.

It only shows evidence of phyletic gradualism.

Answer 13

It provides an incomplete record of past life.

Question 14

Which of the following age ranges is the best estimate of the age of the oldest known cave art made by Homo sapiens?

33,000 to 45,000 years old.

60,000 to 63,000 years old.

1,000 to 5,000 years old.

10,000 to 15,000 years old.

Answer 14

33,000 to 45,000 years old.

Question 15

Which of the following taxa do you belong to?

1. The Ponginae.
2. The Opisthokonta.
3. The Chordata.
4. The Tunicata.
5. The Eukarya.

1, 2, 3, 4 and 5.

2, 3 and 5.

2, 3, 4 and 5.

1, 2 and 3.

Answer 15

2, 3 and 5.

Question 16

Which combination of species characters would give the LOWEST chance of extinction?

Long-lived with small population size and low reproductive rate.

Short-lived with small population size and high reproductive rate.

Short-lived with small population size and low reproductive rate.

Long-lived with large population size and high reproductive rate.

Answer 16

Long-lived with large population size and high reproductive rate.

Question 17

We know that Natural Selection does not produce ‘perfect’ adaptations because:

No organisms live forever.

No organisms are completely resistant to pathogens or predators.

No organisms reproduce at an infinite rate.

All of the other options are correct.

Answer 17

All of the other options are correct.

Question 18

From the following groups, which contains your closest relatives?

Fungi.

Algae.

Bacteria.

Plants.

Answer 18

fungi

Question 19

Which of the following aligns with Bateman’s principle?

Polyandry.

Male mate choice.

Anisogamy.

Sex-role reversal.

Answer 19

Polyandry.

Question 20

Which of the following limits Fisherian runaway selection?

The costs of sexual selection outbalance the costs of natural selection.

Males become too aggressive and the population crashes.

Females become too choosy and the population crashes.

The costs of natural selection outbalance the benefits of sexual selection.

Answer 20

The costs of sexual selection outbalance the costs of natural selection.

Question 21

In birds of paradise, males have much more colourful plumage than females. This is an example of:

Sexual recombination.

Isogamy.

Anisogamy.

Sexual dimorphism.

Answer 21

Sexual dimorphism.

Question 22

Which of the following is NOT one of Darwin’s four postulates?

The survival and reproduction of individuals are not random.

Some variations are passed on to offspring.

Some individuals are more successful at surviving and reproducing than others.

Individuals within a population show little variation.

Answer 22

Individuals within a population show little variation.

Question 23

What is the extended phenotype?

The cumulative effect of the genes over the lifetime of an organism.

The continued effect of an organism’s behaviour, even once the behaviour has stopped.

The effect that a gene may have on an organism’s environment through that organism’s behaviour.

The phenotype viewed at a higher taxonomic level.

Answer 23

The effect that a gene may have on an organism’s environment through that organism’s behaviour.

Question 24

Which of the following is not an important function of the mammalian central nervous system?

Feedback control of behaviour.

Coordination of behaviours.

Experience-based modification of behaviour.

Control of involuntary behaviours.

Answer 24

Experience-based modification of behaviour.

Question 25

Juvenile European eels provide evidence for a genetic basis to migration behaviour because:

Evolution can only select for traits that are genetically hard-wired.

They are too primitive to be able to learn in which direction to swim.

They hatched in the Sargasso Sea after their parents had died, but still migrate to the correct region.

Otherwise they would hybridise with American eels and return to the wrong region.

Answer 25

They hatched in the Sargasso Sea after their parents had died, but still migrate to the correct region.

Question 26

What term is used for a gradual reduction in the strength of a response to a continuous or repeated stimulus that is not associated with a reinforcer?

Operant conditioning.

Habituation.

Insight learning.

Classical conditioning.

Answer 26

Classical conditioning.

Question 27

Phylogenetic analysis can be used to understand the evolution of behaviour because:

It can be used to reconstruct the relationships between a large number of species, while traditional approaches to classification are more limited.

It does not rely on fossil evidence, and behaviour does not fossilise.

It allows scientists to infer the sequences and timing in the evolution of behaviours.

It uses computer models to prove what scientist previously had to guess.

Answer 27

It allows scientists to infer the sequences and timing in the evolution of behaviours.

Question 28

Wildebeest increase vigilance and aggregate in response to lion roars, but no the sound of a car’s engine. Which of the following is a functional explanation of this result?

The hearing of wildebeest is more tuned to the frequency of lion roars than engine noise.

Wildebeest have learnt that lions are dangerous whereas, tourists in cars just have cameras.

Wildebeest evolved to avoid lions, but not motor vehicles.

It increases their survivorship.

Answer 28

The hearing of wildebeest is more tuned to the frequency of lion roars than engine noise.

Question 29

Male hanging flies present large nuptial gifts to females because:

Otherwise, the larger female would eat the male.

The size of the gift is positively related to the number of sperm transferred to the female when mating.

Food is so plentiful, that there is no cost to the male.

Their behaviour maximises the survival of the species.

Answer 29

The size of the gift is positively related to the number of sperm transferred to the female when mating.