MBE Flashcards

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1
Q

Larceny

A

Taking and carrying away the personal property of another by trespass with intent to permanently deprive.

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2
Q

Burglary

A

Breaking and entering the dwelling of another at night with intent to commit a felony therein

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3
Q

First Degree Murder

A

Typically defined by statute; killing another with either (a) deliberation or premeditation or (b) during the commission of an enumerated felony

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4
Q

Common Law Murder

A

Killing another with malice aforethought: (a) intent to kill; (b) intent to inflict great bodily harm; (c) reckless disregard for an unjustifiably high risk to human life [depraved heart]; or (d) intent to commit a felony

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5
Q

6A right to counsel

A

Applies to all critical stages of the prosecution and attaches to a specific offense upon initiation of criminal proceedings. Once attached, the police are prohibited from eliciting incriminating statements from D without the presence of counsel, unless D knowingly and voluntarily waives. The right applies to post-charge lineups and show ups, but does not apply to photo arrays.

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6
Q

Identifications: 14A DP

A

Identifications that are unnecessarily suggestive and present a substantial likelihood of misidentification violate the Due Process Clause. The identification must be extremely suggestive and the suggestiveness must have been initiated by the police. While show ups are unduly suggestive, they are a permissible identification method.

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7
Q

Marketable title

A

Reasonably free from doubt / unreasonable risk of litigation

It’s an implied covenant and the seller is only liable on it up until closing, after which the language of the deed controls

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8
Q

Earnest $

A

In a land sale contract, S will often require B to deposit earnest money in the event B defaults in performance. S can keep as liquidated damages so long as amount is reasonable

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9
Q

Theories under which seller can be liable for defects in existing building

A
  • Misrepresentation
  • Active concealment
  • Failure to disclose (1-knows/should know; 2-latent; 3-serious)

General disclaimer won’t absolve seller

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10
Q

Inter vivos gift [deed] requires…

A

1-donative intent
2-delivery
3-acceptance

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11
Q

Deed formalities—requires…

A

1-writing
2-signed by grantor
3-reasonably identifies their parties and land

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12
Q

Void v voidable deeds

A

Void- will be set aside, even if property passed to BFP

Void when…forged; never delivered; fraud in factum [baseball autographs]

Voidable- will not be set aside, unless property has passed to BFP

Voidable when…minor-party executes; fraud; mistake; duress

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13
Q

Rules of construction for land description

A

Must give good lead

Hierarchy
1-natural monuments
2-artificial monuments
3-angles
4-distances
5-quantity
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14
Q

Avulsion v accretion

A

Avulsion—sudden change; does NOT change ownership

Accretion—slow change; does change ownership

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15
Q

Deeds—grounds for reformation

A

Misrepresentation

Scrivenor’s error

Mutual mistake

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16
Q

Deeds: delivery and acceptance

A

Delivery: intent to make deed presently effective; take back is not effective

Acceptance: presumed in most states

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17
Q

General warranty deed

A

1-seisin: title + possession
2-right to convey: title
3-against encumbrances

4-quiet enjoyment: won’t be disturbed in possession by lawful claim
5-warranty: will defend/compensate
6-further assurances: will perfect

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18
Q

Special warranty deed

A

Grantor not liable for defects that existed before the grantor was deeded the property

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19
Q

Estoppel by deed

A

Trigger: when S deeds property to A, which he does not own

What happens: if S later acquires property, he will lose against the grantee (title automatically inures in grantee). But, if S grants to A, then grants to B, B will prevail over A if B is a BFP

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20
Q

Shelter rule

A

A person who takes from a BFP will prevail against anyone whom the BFP would have prevailed against, even if the person has notice of the prior unrecorded transaction

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21
Q

Record notice

A

Deed is in chain of title, meaning that a searcher could reasonably find it

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22
Q

Effect of recording

A

Gives prospective subsequent grantees constructive notice; creates a presumption of valid delivery, but won’t validate an invalid deed

Recording protects BFPs

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23
Q

Ademption

A

[TESTATOR NO LONGER OWNS]

When property is devised in testator’s will, but TESTATOR NO LONGER OWNS it at the time of death, the gift fails

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24
Q

Exoneration

A

[PAYMENT FROM RESIDUARY ESTATE]

CL doctrine where devisee of specific property is entitled to have land exonerated by payment of liens and mortgages from the testator’s residuary estate

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25
Q

Lapse

A

[BENEFICIARY DIES BEFORE TESTATOR]

Occurs when beneficiary of a will dies b/f testator — at CL, gift fails, but now most states have anti-lapse statutes, which substitute the beneficiary’s descendants (e.g. dead guy’s son) for the beneficiary (so, the dead guy’s spouse will never get the gift)

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26
Q

Abatement

A

[REDUCTION OF GIFTS]

Reduction of gifts where estate assets are not sufficient to pay all claims against the estate and satisfy all devises and bequests

Gifts to specific devises and bequests will be abated last (meaning, abatement will first come from property passing by intestacy and the residual estate)

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27
Q

Mortgage

A

Debtor (mortgagor) signs note to lender (mortgagee). If debtor defaults, lender can foreclose on property through judicial foreclosure sale conducted by sheriff.

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28
Q

Deed of Trust

A

Security interest in real estate: debtor (trustor) gives deed of trust to third party (trustee) who is closely connected with the lender. If debtor defaults, lender can instruct trustee to foreclose on the deed by sale. Non-judicial sale is allowed

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29
Q

Installment Land K

A

Security interest in land: Legal title only passes upon completion of all payments

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30
Q

Lender transfers mortgage

A

-transfer w/out note: states are split (some find transfer is void)

  • transfer of note w/out mortgage: OK; two methods
    1) separate written assignment
    2) indorse + deliver. This method will give the transferee “holder in due course status,” which basically takes certain defenses off the table for the debtor (like failure of consideration, fraud in the inducement, waiver, estoppel)
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31
Q

What happens when lender transfers mortgage and the debtor pays the lender rather than the transferee?

A

If the lender transferred a non-negotiable note, then any payments debtor makes to lender are effective against the transferee—meaning the transferee can sue the lender for the money, until the debtor receives notice of the transfer

If the lender transfers a negotiable note (less common), then payments by the debtor to the lender are NOT effective against the transferee

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32
Q

Assumption agreement

A

If the grantee signs, then she is primarily liable on the mortgage, while the original mortgagor becomes secondarily liable as a surety

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33
Q

What is the effect of a grantee and a mortgagee modify the terms of a mortgage?

A

The original mortgagor is no longer liable!

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34
Q

Due on sale clause

A

If it exists, then lender can demand full payment from original mortgagor if she makes a transfer without the lender’s consent

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35
Q

Mortgage consumer protection

A

A lender can only offer loans to a residential mortgagor that are understandable and not unfair, deceptive, or abusive.

Choice of law: law of the state where property is governs the mortgage; lender’s choice of law clause that selects a state with less stringent foreclosure consumer protection law is generally void

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36
Q

Can a mortgagee take possession of property before foreclosure, where debtor is in default?

A

It depends!

Lien theory (majority): NO (mortgagee only has title upon foreclosure)

Title theory: yes (mortgagor only has title upon paying off mortgage)

  • but, mortgagee might not want to take possession due to risk of liability
  • if the property is a rental property and the mortgagee wants to collect rents, she can ask the court to appoint a receiver, which requires a showing that 1) mortgagor is insolvent 2) waste and 3) value of property is inadequate to secure the debt
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37
Q

Foreclosure

A

Sale of property to satisfy a debt

All states allow judicial sale

Some states allow non-judicial sale under power of sale

Foreclosure will destroy JUNIOR interests, NOT senior interests. But if the junior interest holder is not notified and included in the foreclosure sale, her interest is preserved.

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38
Q

Foreclosure: redemption

A

Equitable redemption
—some states allow for this; provides the mortgagor to redeem property PRIOR to foreclosure sale by making payment of amount due. If there is an acceleration clause, debtor must pay mortgage in full.

Statutory redemption
—some states allow for this; provides the mortgagor to redeem property AFTER foreclosure sale by making payment of amount due. Usually, statutes allow for a limited period of e.g., 6 months.

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39
Q

Priority

A

Priority is determined by the time that the mortgage was placed on the property—meaning first in time has priority.

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40
Q

Foreclosure: What are the six ways in which priority can be modified?

A

1-recording statute (eg, first mortgagee fails to record and second mortgagee records —> ME2 has priority)

2-subordination agreement

3-PMM. A PMM is where a lender provides funds for the debtor to purchase the property, in exchange for a mortgage. A PMM lender will have priority over PRIOR claims, but subsequent claims will have priority under recording statutes or subordination.

4-Modification (junior interest holder has priority over modification)

5-Optional future advance (junior holder has priority over optional advance)

6- subrogation (senior mortgage that is refinanced with new mortgage)
—how this works: L1, L2, L3; mortgagor refinances by getting $ from L3 to pay off mortgage from L1; L3 now has priority over L2

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41
Q

Foreclosure: proceeds of sale (hierarchy)

A

First to last

1-atty fees; costs of sale; court costs
2-principal + interest on foreclosed loan
3-junior lien holders
4-mortgagor

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42
Q

Marshaling

A

Trigger: debtor gets a mortgage secured by two properties A and B from L1, then gets a mortgage from L2 secured by B, then debtor defaults on L1

Rule: Where a mortgagor has defaulted on a mortgage secured by two properties, a junior interest holder can ask a court to marshal assets—i.e., have the foreclosure first on the property that does not have her subordinate interest.

Result: L2 can ask court to first conduct judicial sale on property A, such that property B will only be foreclosed if the first sale was insufficient to satisfy L1’s debt

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43
Q

What are the five possible ways that the harsh result of forfeiture can be avoided in the event of default of an installment land K?

A

1-equitable redemption

2-treat as mortgage (allows for judicial sale)

3-restitution

4-waiver (if debtor can show vendor has pattern of accepting late payments)

5-election of remedies (either damages or SP only)

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44
Q

Fixture: definition

A

Chattel brought onto real property that becomes so affixed to land that it loses its status as personal property, becoming part of real property.

If the chattel is incorporated into a structure: if it loses its identity, like a brick, it is a fixture; if it does not lose its identity, but removal would cause substantial damage, like plumbing, it is a fixture

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45
Q

Fixtures: common ownership case

A

Trigger: A owns property and brings chattel onto property; A then sells property to B; what chattel is B entitled to?

Rule: whether chattel is a fixture depends on the objective intent of the seller—did the seller objectively intend to make the chattel part of the property —> factors...
—a) nature of article
—b) damage if removed
—c) adaptation to property
—d) manner of attachment
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46
Q

Fixtures: constructive annexation

A

Chattel that is not physically attached (like a key) but is so uniquely adapted to real estate —> likely a fixture

47
Q

Fixtures: divided ownership case

A

Trigger: T rents from L and brings chattel onto property

Accession: intent of annexor (tenant) to make chattel a permanent part of the real estate

Rule: absent a controlling agreement, T is presumed to not have the intent to permanently improve the property, so T can remove chattel so long as it does not cause substantial damage. T must remove chattel by end of the lease term and if damage is caused, T must pay for it.

Misc:
—life tenant’s representative can remove chattel after life tenant’s death
—someone who is trying to become an adverse possessor cannot remove fixtures

48
Q

What possible theories are there for products liability?

A
1-strict liability
2-negligence
3-implied warranty of merchantability
4-implied warranty of fitness
5-express warranty
6-misrepresentation
49
Q

Products Liability: SL

A

Plaintiff must show 1) D is a commercial supplier; 2) D produced or supplied a defective product; 3) actual and proximate cause; and 4) damages

50
Q

Products liability: commercial supplier + who is duty owed to?

A

A commercial supplier is someone who is involved in putting a product into the stream of commerce. Commercial suppliers include manufacturers, assemblers, wholesalers, and retailers. Casual sellers do not count.

A commercial supplier owes a duty to all foreseeable plaintiffs (not just purchaser).

51
Q

Products Liability: Defect

A

In either a strict liability or negligence action, plaintiff must show that the product is defective. A defect can include a manufacturing defect, a design defect, or an inadequate warning (treated as a design defect).

A manufacturing defect occurs when a product comes out differently and more dangerous from other products of the same line. Plaintiff must show that the product failed to perform as safely as an ordinary consumer would expect.

A design defect occurs when a product comes out the same as other products of the same line, but has a dangerous propensity. Plaintiff must show that a feasible alternative design existed—meaning there was a way to produce the product more safely without substantially altering utility or price.

A product has an inadequate warning when the manufacturer fails to adequately warn as to the risks involved with using the product that may NOT be apparent to users.

52
Q

Products Liability: causation

A

Plaintiff must satisfy but for causation and show that the defect existed at the time it left D’s control. A court will presume that the defect existed at that time, I’d the product moved through the normal channels of distribution. Plaintiff can rely on res ipsa.

Plaintiff must show that the injury she suffered was foreseeable. An injury is foreseeable when it results from foreseeable misuse of a product.

If plaintiff is alleging an inadequate warning, she is entitled to a presumption that an adequate warning would have been read and heeded.

53
Q

Products liability: damages under SL or negligence

A

Plaintiff must show personal injury or property damage. Mere pecuniary loss is not sufficient.

54
Q

Products liability: negligence—breach

A

To prove breach, plaintiff must show defendant engaged in negligent conduct that lead to supplying a defective product.

Manufacturing Defect against D-manufacturer: plaintiff can rely on res ipsa

Design Defect against D-manufacturer: plaintiff must show D knew or should have know of the danger of the product as designed.

If plaintiff is suing an intermediary for either manufacturing or design defect, the case for negligence is more difficult. An intermediary can satisfy its duty by making a cursory inspection.

55
Q

Privacy torts

A

PDPF: public disclosure of private information, the disclosure of which would be highly offensive to a reasonable person

False light: publication resulting in attribution of views to plaintiff which she does not hold and a reasonable person would find highly offensive. For matters of public interest, a plaintiff must show actual malice (knowledge/reckless disregard).

Intrusion upon seclusion: prying or intruding into a private affairs that is highly offensive to a reasonable person

Name/Picture Appropriation: unauthorized use of plaintiff’s name or picture for commercial advantage

56
Q

Are special damages (pecuniary loss) required for privacy torts?

A

No! Emotional distress is enough

57
Q

CL defamation

A

Publication to a 3P of defamatory material of or concerning plaintiff + damages

Libel (print/radio/tv): presumed damages

Slander (oral): must prove special damages (pecuniary loss)

Slander per se: damages are presumed —> applies to defamatory statements in the context of a) loathsome disease b) business/profession c) chastity of a woman and d) accusations of guilt for crime

Publication must be made intentionally or negligently

58
Q

Constitutional defamation

A

CL defamation (defamatory language, publication, of or concerning plaintiff, damage) + matter of public concern + falsity + fault by D

If plaintiff is a public figure, she must prove actual malice

If plaintiff is a private figure, she need only show D was negligent as to falsity

59
Q

Robbery

A

Larceny + force

Taking and carrying away the personal property of another from the other’s person or presence, by force or intimidation, with intent to permanently deprive

60
Q

Embezzlement

A

Fraudulent conversion of property of another for which the person was in lawful possession

61
Q

Real covenant: definition

A

Written promise to do or not do something on land; the promise runs with the land at law

62
Q

Real covenant: record notice

A

Under the modern recording statutes, a purchaser for value who does not have notice of the covenant (a BFP), takes free of the covenant

63
Q

Horizontal privity

A

Promisor and promisee shared some interest in the land independent of the covenant (like a grantor-grantee or L-T relationship).

64
Q

Vertical privity

A

For burden of real covenant to run, vertical privity requires a nexus between the covenantor and the successor and that the covenantor conveys the entire duration of her interest

65
Q

Touch and concern

A

Affects the legal relationship of the parties and not merely as members of the community at large. The majority rule is that covenants to pay money run with the land when the money is to be used in a way connected with the land

66
Q

Equitable servitude

A

Covenant that equity will enforce against the assignees of the burdened land who gave notice of it; burden runs if intent, T&C, and notice; benefit runs if intent, T&C

67
Q

3 situations when contract rights cannot be assigned

A

1-would substantially change the obligor’s duty

2–assignment of future rights to future contracts

3-prohibited by law

68
Q

3 situations in which contractual duties cannot be delegated

A

1-duties invoke personal skill, judgment, or special trust

2-delegation would change obligee’s expectancy

3-contractual restriction (“no assignment”)

69
Q

3P beneficiary: when do an intended beneficiary’s rights vest?

A

1-when she sues on the contract

2-when she manifests an intent to a promise in the manner requested by the parties

3-when she materially changes her position in justifiable reliance on the promise

70
Q

Implied beneficiary of covenant

A

If a covenant in a subdivision is silent as to who holds its benefit, any neighbor in the subdivision will be entitled to enforce the covenant if a general scheme or plan existed at the time D purchased the lot

71
Q

Defamation: qualified privileges

A

1-reporting on official proceeding
2-in interest of publisher
3-in interest of publication’s recipients
4-in interest of both publisher and recipients

Can be lost through abuse—actions outside the scope or if the D acted with actual malice

72
Q

Organizational standing: elements

A

1-injury to members that gives them the right to sue on their own behalf

2-injury is related to the organization’s purpose

3-individual member participation is not required

73
Q

3P standing

A

1-close relationship between claimant and 3P

2-obstacles to 3P raising her own rights

74
Q

Pullman abstention

A

FC will abstain from hearing a case when 1) state law is uncertain and 2) the federal court’s constitutional holding would be rendered unnecessary by state court clarification

75
Q

Younger abstention

A

FC will abstain from enjoining a pending criminal case absent prosecutorial bad faith or harassment

Applies to state civil enforcement proceedings too

76
Q

AISG

A

SCOTUS will not take the case if the decision of the state’s highest court is supported by a state law rationale that is 1) independent of federal law and 2 adequate to sustain the result

77
Q

Ripeness

A

1-fitness for judicial decision (unfit if based on contingent future events)

2-hardship to the parties of withholding court consideration (would party risk substantial hardship to provoke enforcement of the law)

78
Q

Standing elements

A

1-injury in fact (particularized, concrete, non-speculative)

2-causation (fairly traceable)

3-redressability (likely that a favorable judicial decision would remedy the injury)

79
Q

Pardon power

A

Does not apply to civil contempt or impeachment

80
Q

Hierarchy of laws

A

1-constitution
2-treaties and fed law (if conflict, last in time)
3-executive agreements (b/n prez and foreign country, no senate consent req)
4-state law

81
Q

Exception to executive privilege

A

Criminal case where a need for communication is demonstrated

82
Q

Commerce clause

A

Congress can reg foreign and interstate commerce—specifically 1) channels, 2) instrumentalities, and 3) activities that have a substantial effect

83
Q

Commerce clause: reg of INTRAstate commerce

A

Regulation must…
1-concern economic or commercial activity
2-there must be a rational basis on which Congress could conclude the activity, in aggregate, substantially affects INTERstate commerce

84
Q

Property Power

A

Congress can dispose of and make rules for territories and federal properties

85
Q

Congress’ ability to tax/reg of state local entities

A

Allowed if the tax/reg applies to both public and private sector. BUT, KEY EXCEPTION…

—Spending conditions: Congress can impose funding limitations on states concerning susbjrxfs that Congress does not have the power to regulate so long as the conditions…

(1) are clearly stated
(2) relate to purpose of problem
(3) are not unduly coercive (compulsion if withhold 10% of budget)

86
Q

Counterclaims

A

Compulsory: same t/o

Permissive: unrelated and meets federal jurisdiction requirement

87
Q

Compulsory joinder (indispensable party)

A

1) should A be joined?
—if either complete relief cannot be afforded or absentee’s interest would be impaired, then A should be joined, and got to step 2. If neither of these are true, no joinder problem

2) can A be joined?
—is A subject to service if process? If yes, then A is joined. If no, then go to step 3

3) can the action proceed inequity and good conscience without A?
—factors: prejudice; adequacy of judgment; ability to shape relief; availability of alternatives —> if yes, action proceeds, if not, party is INDISPENSABLE

Note: a joint tortfeasor subject to joint and several liability is not a person needed for just adjudication

88
Q

Article IV P&I

A

State is prohibited from discriminating against non-residents concerning fundamental rights

FR = civil liberties and important commercial activities (right to earn a livelihood)

Does NOT apply to aliens or corporations

Defense: constitutional if substantial justification and there are no less restrictive means

89
Q

14A P or I

A

States are. Prohibited from denying THEIR OWN citizens the privileges or immunities of national citizenship.

These include the right to interstate travel and the right to vote for federal officers, but does NOT include the bill of rights.

Does not apply to corporations

90
Q

If a state regulation discriminates against out-of-staters, under what circumstances is it valid/invalid under the Dormant Commerce Clause? under Article IV P&I?

A

Dormant CC: valid only if…
—a) important non-economic state interest and no reasonable non-discriminatory alternatives
—b) market participant exception
—c) traditional state function exception

Art. IV P&I: invalid if state discriminates against non-resident persons (not aliens or corporations) regarding a fundamental right—civil liberties or important commercial activities (right to earn a livelihood), unless there is a substantial justification and no less restrictive means

91
Q

If a state regulation does NOT discriminate against our-of-staters, but does unduly burdensome interstate commerce, when is it VALID?

A

Only if the state can show that the state’s interest outweighs the burden on interstate commerce. In making this determination courts consider the availability of less restrictive means.

92
Q

If a state tax discriminates against interstate commerce it is invalid. What constitutional provisions are potentially at issue?

A
  • Commerce Clause
  • Art. IV P & I: this will be the better answer if the state tax discriminates against non-resident natural persons (not alien or corp) regarding a fundamental right
  • EP clause: could be an issue if suspect class or fundamental rights is at issue
93
Q

If a state tax does NOT discriminate against interstate commerce, when is it valid?

A

If it does not unduly burden interstate commerce—state must show…
—1) substantial nexus to taxing state (has the business availed itself of the privileges of conducting biz in the state? Note: physical presence is NOT required)
—2) fair apportionment: rational formula (needs to be based on the extent of taxable activity; if person is subject to double tax (from two states) then invalid)
—3) fair relationship: connection b/n the tax and the services provided by the state [airport enplaning example]

94
Q

When are doing biz taxes valid?

A

1-substantial nexus
2-non-discriminators
3-fairly apportioned
4-fairly related

95
Q

Validity of use tax

A

Valid, unless it is higher than the sales tax

96
Q

Validity of sales tax

A

Valid if substantial nexus and fair apportionment

97
Q

Validity of taxes on commodities in interstate transit

A

INVALID!

98
Q

Validity of taxes on instrumentalities used to transport goods interstate

A

Valid if 1) instrumentality has taxable situs in the state (contacts: look for substantial physical presence) and 2) fair apportionment (tax fairly captures extent of physical presence)

99
Q

Contract clause

A

STATES cannot enact LAWS that RETROACTIVELY and SUBSTANTIALLY impair K rights

Test for private Ks: invalid if retroactively and substantially impairs private K rights, unless (1) important and legitimate public purpose and (2) reasonably and narrowly tailored means of promoting that interest

Test for public Ks: same, but stricter scrutiny, esp. if it reduces the contractual obligations of the state

100
Q

Does the K clause apply to the federal government?

A

No!!

101
Q

Ex post facto clauses

A

Apply to state laws and federal laws

State/fed cannot pass LAWS that RETROACTIVELY alter CRIMINAL offense or punishment in a SUBSTANTIALLY PREJUDICIAL manner for purpose of punishing someone for past activity

Examples that run afoul of the clauses:
—law that criminalizes conduct that was innocent when committed
—law that enhances punishment relative to what was prescribed for the act when done
—law that reduces the evidence required to convict from what was required when act was done

COURTS are constrained by DP clause

102
Q

Bill of attainder

A

Applies to state and fed

Laws that punish individuals without trial are unconstitutional

103
Q

Discovery: experts

A

If party intends to have expert testify she must disclose voluntarily. That expert must provide a report if the expert has been retained to testify or expert-employee’s duties regularly involve giving expert testimony. If no report is required, party must disclose ID, subject matter of expected testimony, and summary of facts/opinions.

If consulting expert—someone retained in anticipation of litigation but not expected to testify—then that expert is NOT DISCOVERABLE, unless the requesting party can show exceptional circumstances that would make it impracticable for the party to obtain facts/opinions on the same subject by other means

104
Q

Does equitable redemption allow JUNIOR HOLDERS, in addition to mortgagor, the ability to pay balance on mortgage prior to foreclosure?

A

Yes!

105
Q

Assault (Criminal)

A

Either…

(i) attempted battery; or
(ii) intentional creation of reasonable apprehension in the mind of the victim of imminent bodily harm

106
Q

Stop & Frisk

A

Stop: Reasonable & articulable suspicion that criminal activity is afoot

Frisk: Reasonable belief that suspect is armed and dangerous. Limited to pat down of outer layer of clothing. But if police, based on plain feel, believe item is weapon/contraband, that is grounds for arrest.

107
Q

What crimes does transferred intent apply to?

A

Homicide; battery; arson

108
Q

Petty v. serious offense and why it matters procedurally

A

Serious = 6+ month potential incarceration

State can set its own jury trial requirements for petty offenses

109
Q

Do federal and state criminal cases require unanimous juries?

A

Yes

110
Q

Where charges can be tried in a single trial, but ∆ consents to having 2 separate trials, can there still be a double jeopardy violation?

A

No!

111
Q

∆ is in a cell with undercover informant; ∆ is ignorant of informant’s identity; ∆ makes incriminating statement; Miranda issue?

A

No! Undercover officer does not need to give Miranda warnings before asking questions that might elicit an incriminating response b/c concerns of police-dominated atmosphere are absent

112
Q

Foundation for Past Recollection Recorded

A

1) W forgets and memory cannot be refreshed
2) W made: made/prepared under W’s direction
3) PK: W had PJ of facts in record at one time
4) Fresh: recorded at time when events were fresh in W’s mind
5) Accurate: accurately reflects W’s knowledge

113
Q

Specialized relevance: pleas

A
What's covered...
––withdrawn guilty pleas
––nolo pleas
––offers to plead guilty
––evidence of statements made in negotiating pleas

What’s the effect…
––inadmissible against the ∆ who made the plea or participated in the plea discussions

What does NOT fall within the scope of the rule….
––ACCEPTED guilty pleas
––non-participants