Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Business Studies > Marketing > Flashcards

Marketing Flashcards

1
Q

What three objectives might the marketing department have?

A
  • reach a certain level of sales
  • increase market share
  • reach a new target audience
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the advantages of setting objectives?

A
  • helps identify what it hopes to achieve
  • good way of motivating
  • helps business rank projects so that money can be targeted
  • allows the business to assess performance
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the disadvantages of setting objectives?

A
  • may look at every part of marketing except the customer
  • have to endure other departments of the business are on board
  • need to have specific objectives
  • must take the external situation into account
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is market share?

A

Proportion or percentage of total sales within the market in question that is controlled by the business

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

How might a business assess success?

A
  • sales
  • market share
  • number of enquires
  • satisfaction surveys
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What factors need to be taken into account before a marketing strategy?

A
  • business objectives
  • size of the business
  • nature of the market
  • management changes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What might a market leader strategy be? And what is it?

A

Every market has one dominant firm in the market. These leaders use a variety of strategies to maintain their position
- aggressive marketing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is a SWOT analysis?

A

Involves looking at strengths, weaknesses, opportunities and threats for a business

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the uses of SWOT analysis?

A
  • used as a forward looking tool

- useful for discussion and planning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Why is market research undertaken?

A

In order to;

  • describe the market
  • explain the market
  • predict the changes in the market
  • investigate the reaction of consumers in the future
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is quantitative research?

A

Research that is numerical and factual.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is qualitative research?

A

Research that is subjective and opinion based

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is an example of primary research?

A
  • Interviews
  • questionnaires
  • focus groups
  • consumer panels
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is secondary research?

A

Data that already exists

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are examples of secondary research?

A
  • sales data
  • previous survey results
  • customer information
  • company reports
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are examples of external sources of data?

A
  • market research companies
  • the internet
  • trade publications
  • newspapers and magazines
  • competitors
  • government statistics
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is trial marketing?

A

Where the business “tests the water” before going ahead with a full launch of the product.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the advantages of trial marketing?

A
  • can be done at almost no cost, feedback can be instant
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the advantages of primary research?

A
  • allows the business to change variables such as questions
  • in full control of the research
  • no bias
  • comes from a reliable source
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are the advantages of secondary research?

A
  • cheaper than others
  • quicker
  • may come from experts
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is population?

A

Total group included in the sample

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is simple random sampling?

A

Where individuals are randomly selected from a list of the population, and every single individual has an equal chance of selection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is systematic sampling?

A

Where you choose every “nth” of the population e.g. every 4 people

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are the problems with systematic sampling?

A

May result in some sort of bias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is quota sampling?

A

Involves splitting the population into sub-groups according to their distribution in the population

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is stratified sampling?

A

Where you split the population into sub groups (strata) based on characteristics of the population. The selection is then done in the stratum usually by random.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is cluster sampling?

A

the total population is divided into groups and a simple random sample of the groups is selected

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Why might the research have errors?

A
  • non sampling errors, interviewer may have emotions etc.

- differences in averages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is meant by sampling?

A

the action or process of taking samples of something for analysis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

How do you work out the mean?

A

Add up all the values and divide by how many values there are

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What shape is normal distribution?

A

Bell shaped

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is standard deviation

A

How spread out the data is

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What does a large standard deviation mean?

A

There is a larger spread of data around the mean

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is the formula for standard deviation?

A

1) (Each value from the population - population mean) squared
2) divide the answer from 1 by the size of the population
3) square root this answer = population standard deviation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

how might a business segment a market?

A
  • Age
  • geography
  • gender
  • social class
  • residence
  • religion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

How is social class split up?

A
  • A
  • B
  • C1
  • C2
  • D
  • E
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What are the disadvantages of market segmentation?

A
  • exclude other segments of the market
  • too much segmentation may mean potential sales are lost
  • hard to categorise certain consumers
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is the formula for market share?

A

Sales volume/sales volume for whole market x 100

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What are the advantages of using market share?

A
  • can assess performance and competitors
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What factors might affect market growth?

A
  • nature of the product
  • changes in fashion and taste
  • population changes
  • standard of living
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is the formula for market growth?

A

Increase or decrease in total sales volume /original sales volume x 100

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What factors affect buyer behaviour?

A
  • income
  • consumer confidence
  • advertising
  • layouts of shops
  • media coverage.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is niche marketing?

A

Targeting a clear and identifiable segment of the market

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is mass marketing?

A

Selling into a market containing many products that are similar.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What are the advantages of niche marketing?

A
  • Fewer competitors

- can exploit economies of scale

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What are the disadvantages of niche marketing?

A
  • less potential to make a profit

- success of a niche market encourages others to enter it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What does DAGMAR stand for?

A 
Defining
Advertising 
Goals 
Measuring
Advertising
Results
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is DAGMAR aimed at?

A

Promotion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

How is DAGMAR used by a business?

A

The business is able to formulate a strategy for any new promotional campaign

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is AIDA?

A

Attention
Interest
Desire
Action

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What is the AIDA model used for?

A

Used specifically for advertising, helps a business judge whether an advertisement is likely to succeed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is needed for an advertising campaign to work?

A

Each step needs to competed in AIDA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

How is Awareness trail repurchase (ATR) marketing model useful?

A

Because it goes through the steps that a consumer will follow, from early decision making all the way to an actual purchase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What is product and market orientation?

A

Product - Gets the product right

Market - gets the right product

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What are examples of tools used for market orientation and product orientation?

A

Market - market research, market testing, customer focus

Product - product research, product testing, product focus

56
Q

What is the importance of customer service?

A
  • gives the firm a good reputation
57
Q

In what ways would service marketing be likely to be different to service sector businesses?

A
  • quality of service is more important for a service sector business
  • use satisfied customers to promote business
  • service providers need to ensure that all employees are honest and trust worthy
58
Q

What is the difference between a consumer and customer?

A
  • Customer buys the product

- consumer uses the product

59
Q

What is marketing?

A

Meeting the needs and wants of customers so that marketing’s primary aim of increasing sales can be met

60
Q

What are the 4p’s of marketing/marketing mix?

A
  • product
  • promotion
  • price
  • place
61
Q

What is promotion?

A

The collection of techniques used to inform and pursade consumers to buy a product or service

62
Q

What is above the line promotion and examples?

A

Where the promotion has no direct contact with the potential customer e.g. TV ads, Radio, Billboards, magazines

63
Q

Advantages and disadvantages of Bill boards?

A

Advantages
- more cost effective than TV adverts

Disadvantages

  • content needs to be consist and eye catching
  • hard to change information
  • less people are exposed to them
64
Q

Advantages and disadvantages of TV ads?

A

Advantages

  • reach a mass audience
  • easy to remember

Disadvantages
- expensive

65
Q

What is below the line promotion? And examples?

A
  • promotion where the business can directly contact the customer. E.g. email, personal sales, tele sales, product sampling, trade fairs
66
Q

What are the advantages and disadvantages of below the line promotion?

A

Advantages

  • personalised
  • customer has already shown interest in the product so is likely to purchase

Disadvantages

  • easy to ignore
  • doesn’t reach as many people as above the line promotion
67
Q

What is a problem with branding?

A

If the target audience no longer wants to be associated with it

68
Q

What types of marketing are social media and websites?

A

Below the line

69
Q

What are the advantages of social media?

A
  • more cost effective
  • can be personalised
  • boost traffic to website
  • target audience can be reached through the platform
  • used by young people
70
Q

What are the disadvantages of social media?

A
  • time intensive
  • competitive
  • constantly has to be updated
  • trolls
  • only reaches followers
71
Q

What is price?

A

The amount of money that a customer needs to give up in order to obtain a product or service

72
Q

What is competitor pricing?

A

When a price is set based on prices charged by competitor businesses for a similar or identical product. This price is often lower in order to gain sales from rivals

73
Q

What is cost plus pricing?

A

Pricing method that adds a percentage to the cost of making a product to give the selling price

74
Q

What’s price skimming?

A

Where a product is more advanced than that of competitors and/or customer wants to associate with a particular brand and therefore a price is set high because customers are willing to pay higher prices to own that product

75
Q

What is marginal pricing?

A

Cost of producing any extra unit will compromise only of variable costs. Any amount by which the selling price exceeds the variable costs incurred by the marginal output will be profit

76
Q

What is penetration pricing?

A

When a business is new to the market, a price is set lower than competitor businesses. This is a short term strategy to help break customer loyalties from trusted brands

77
Q

What is psychological pricing?

A

Pricing tactic that is designed to appeal to customers who use emotional rather than rational responses to primary messages e.g. $12.99

78
Q

How do you work out price elasticity of demand?

A

% change in quantity demanded/ % change in price

79
Q

What does it mean if a PED value is between 0 and 1?

A

Inelastic

80
Q

What dies it mean if a PED Value is above 1?

A

Elastic

81
Q

What is income elasticity of demand and its formula?

A

Responsiveness of QD to a change in income

% change in QD/ % change in income

82
Q

If the YED is negative or positive what does that mean?

A 
Negative = inferior
Positive = normal
83
Q

What is cross elasticity of demand and its formula?

A

Responsiveness if a change in demand for good X following the change in price of Y

84
Q

If the XED is positive or negative what does that mean?

A

Positive - substitutes

Negative - complements

85
Q

What are the advantages and disadvantages of using elasticities?

A

Benefits
- helps marketers decide whether they should increase/decrease prices

Limitations

  • it assumes you know what will happen to demand as a result of a change in variable
  • uses past data
86
Q

What is the product life cycle and what are the stages?

A

Theoretical model which describes the stages that a product goes through over time.

Introduction, growth, maturity, decline

87
Q

What are the characteristics of an introduction stage?

A
  • sales slow
  • cash flow issues
  • penetration pricing may be used
  • high promotional costs
88
Q

What are the characteristics of a growth stage?

A

Sales are the quickest
Competitors become interested
High promotional spending continues
Increased distribution

89
Q

What are the characteristics of a maturity stage?

A
  • Weaker rivals will leave the market
  • competitive pricing will be adopted
  • positive cash flow
90
Q

What are the characteristics of a decline stage?

A
  • prices may be reduced to sell off remaining stock
  • distribution may be limited
  • cost plus pricing
91
Q

What is an extension strategy?

A
  • Something/strategy to prolong the maturity stage of a products life cycle
92
Q

What are the pros and cons of using a product life cycle?

A

Pros: helps with planning, can make appropriate changes to their marketing strategies
Cons: sometimes a products sales may never raise beyond the introduction phase, may cause managers to be too ridged in their strategies

93
Q

What does a product positioning do?

A

Plotting grid where each product sets on scales based on two important features of a market

94
Q

What factors can you use for product positioning chart?

A
  • quality
  • price
  • choice
95
Q

What are the benefits of product positioning charts?

A
  • help a business identify a gap in the market

-

96
Q

What is a product portfolio?

A
  • product positioning chart used to analyse a businesses own product portfolio to ensure they have got good coverage of the market
97
Q

Why would a business want good coverage of a market?

A
  • increase sales , reduce risk, meet the needs of customers, compete with rivals, brand recognition
98
Q

What is a boston matrix?

A

Tool used to help a business allocate investment across is product portfolio

99
Q

What are he two factors used in boston matrix?

A
  • market share

- market growth

100
Q

What are the four categories used in the boston matrix?

A
  • dogs
  • stars
  • cash cows
  • problem child’s/ question marks
101
Q

What are the characteristics of a star product? What are the problems with this?

A

Category where the product has high market share and growth - these may potentially become cash cows

  • a business may need to advertise heavily in order to establish itself fully and maintain a high advertising spend.
102
Q

What are the characteristics of cashcows?

A

A product that has high market share/revenues, usually a more mature product and does not need heavy advertising spending.

  • profits from cash cows are used to support problem child/question mark products
103
Q

What are the characteristics of question marks/problem child products?

A

Low market share, but in a market that is rapidly growing.

  • the aim is for problem child’s to become future cash cows and stars. For this the business needs to heavily invest to help increase market share of the product.
104
Q

What are the characteristics of dog products?

A
  • low market share and low market growth. These products should be dropped
105
Q

What are the advantages of using the boston matrix?

A
  • enables the business to see if it has a balanced portfolio, and whether it has sufficient cash cows to feed the problem child.
  • enables businesses to see if they have too many stars as these needs lots of investment
  • shows what products need investment
106
Q

What are the disadvantages of the boston matrix?

A
  • cannot use it for tertiary sector
  • doesn’t take competitors into account
  • doesn’t take into account qualitative factors.
107
Q

What can a consumer use price for?

A

To compare the price of a product to other goods and services

108
Q

What must price also fit with ?

A

The rest of the marketing mix

109
Q

What factors must the pricing mix take into account?

A
  • costs of the business
  • prices charged by competitors
  • willingness of consumers to pay and the business objectives
110
Q

What impact would price have on stakeholder objectives?

A
  • finance department what a price that yields high profit
  • Marketing department will want a price that helps gain a foothold in a market
  • consumers will want value for money and a lower price
  • shareholders will want a return on their investment
111
Q

What factors affect price?

A
  • objectives of business
  • consumers their income and tastes
  • level of demand within the market
  • level of competition within the market
  • nature of the product or service
  • stage in the product life cycle
112
Q

What does price elasticity if demand measure?

A

The responsiveness of demand to a change in price

113
Q

What is the formula for PED?

A

Percentage change in demand/percentage change in price

114
Q

What is income elasticity of demand?

A

The responsiveness if demand to a change in income

115
Q

What is the formula for YED?

A

Percentage change in demand/percentage change in income

116
Q

How do you know if a good is PED elastic?

A

If its above 1. A change in price will cause a greater change in QD

117
Q

How do you know if a good is inferior?

A

If the answer is negative. An increase in income will cause a fall in QD

118
Q

What does cross elasticity of demand measure?

A

Measures the change of price in one good to the change of demand for another.

119
Q

How do you calculate cross elasticity of demand?

A

Percentage change in demand for good A / percentage change in the price of B

120
Q

If the XED is high what does that mean?

A

That the goods are substitutes

121
Q

If the XED is negative what does this mean?

A

That they are compliments.

122
Q

What is price skimming? And what sort of products would use it?

A

Where the business sets a high price for its goods or services in an attempt to gain profits quickly.
- Short life cycle products would use it

123
Q

What is penetration pricing and what sort of product would use it?

A
  • sets a low price hoping to attract consumers

- a product entering the market would use this

124
Q

What is premium price or prestige pricing?

A
  • high price set for a product in an attempt to create an image and indicate a high level of quality
125
Q

What is psychological promotion?

A

Involves setting a price that sounds less than it really is. E.g. 99p instead of $1

126
Q

What is loss leaders?

A

Where firms price products below the cost of buying or producing it to entice consumers into the shop and buy other products.

127
Q

What is completion based pricing?

A

Where firms set their prices below their competitors prices - usually shorter term.

128
Q

What is predatory pricing?

A

When an established business responds to a new business entering the market by reducing it prices lower then the new firms average costs

129
Q

What is market based pricing?

A

Where the price is established by the market. E.g. oil or milk

130
Q

What are examples of promotional pricing?

A

E.g. BOGOF deals, 10% off

131
Q

What is cost plus pricing?

A

Cost-plus pricing is a pricing strategy in which the selling price is determined by adding a specific amount markup to a product’s unit cost.

132
Q

What is contributing/marginal cost pricing?

A

Method whereby fixed costs or overheads are ignored and the business only considers variable costs of production

133
Q

What is price discrimination?

A

Occurs when different prices are charged to different segments of society e.g. time, age, area

134
Q

What does place refer to?

A

The methods and processes by which the business delivers it goods and services to the right place and right time

135
Q

What are channels of distribution?

A

The method by which the good travels from the producer to the consumer

136
Q

What is the main job of wholesalers?

A

To “break the bulk”

137
Q

What are the advantages of wholesalers?

A
  • they have specialist knowledge of their part of distribution network to benefit producers and retailers.
  • they move goods around the country using their own network, reducing costs and valuable time for other businesses
  • they have purpose built warehouses and storage facilities
  • they offer choice to the retailer

Business Studies (10 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions