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E-8C JSTARS > Mar 18 MQF > Flashcards

Mar 18 MQF Flashcards

1
Q

The engine oil temperature may indicate in the range between 132 degrees C and 143 degrees C for a period not to exceed _____.

A

10 minutes

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2
Q

During takeoff, wind shear alerts are inhibited from the time aircraft reaches _____ knits ground speed until the aircraft reaches _____.

A

100, 50 feet AGL

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3
Q

Applicable takeoff and obstacle clearance data shall be recomputed if any weather or configuration change occurs greater than as follows:

A

Runway Temp +/-2 degrees C
Pressure Altitude +/-500 feet
Gross Weight +/-5000 lbs
Center of Gravity +/-0.5%

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4
Q

Evacuate airplane using ground evacuation checklist when the brake energy is in the “danger zone”, defined as _____ foot pounds per brake.

A

above 28 million

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5
Q

The maximum in-flight weight with reserve tanks empty is _____ pounds.

A

280,000

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6
Q

A PIC may only deviate from AFI 11-202v3, flight rule, or ATC clearance to _____.

A

All of the above

Protect life
For safety of flight
When an in-flight emergency requires immediate action

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7
Q

Aircraft Interior Lighting. During night parking, use of the overhead flight deck lighting should be avoided until _____

A

after the aircraft is chocked

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8
Q

Crew members will coordinate with MCC and advise the flight crew prior to entering:

A

A lower lobe

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9
Q

Prior to descent or approach, E-8C aircraft using visual requirements only must have visibility of 2400 feet RVR (800 m) or published Minimums, whichever is higher, to start a published straight in, sidestep approach, or en route descent.

A

True

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10
Q

Pilots will neither file a flight plan nor fly into an area of known or forecast thunderstorm activity when the _____ is inoperative or unusable and thunderstorm activity can not be visually circumnavigated.

A

weather radar

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11
Q

Rolling takeoffs are permitted at all gross weights and are recommended for gross weights under _____ pounds.

A

230,000

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12
Q

The maximum speed for emergency gear operation is _____.

A

320 KIAS - 0.83M

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13
Q

Do not taxi an aircraft within _____ of obstructions without wing walkers monitoring clearance between aircraft and obstructions. With wing walkers, avoid taxi obstructions by at least _____.

A

25ft, 10ft

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14
Q

A(n) _____ approved cargo manifest is required prior to all departures with cargo aboard.

A

OG/CC

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15
Q

During a non-precision approach, at 100 feet above Minimum Descent Altitude (MDA), the pilot not flying should make the following call out:

A

Approaching Minimums

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16
Q

Check the rudder pressure drops to _____ psi when flaps are fully retracted.

A

2250

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17
Q

Periods of Controlled Cockpit Rest are limited to 45 minutes per test period.

A

45

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18
Q

Recommended turbulence penetration airspeed is _____ Mach it _____ KIAS, whichever is lower.

A

.80(+/- 0.01); 290

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19
Q

Setting the draw thru system control switch to OVRD in-flight will cause to OVBD valve _____.

A

to open resulting in a loss of cabin pressurization

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20
Q

When conducting multiple full stop landings, do not takeoff until the combined energy after ground cooling is less than 35 million ft-lbs.

A

False

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21
Q

Operate window heat in _____ for 10 minutes (if time permits) before setting to _____ to avoid damage to window.

A

LOW; HIGH

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22
Q

To ensure flight accountability, file a flight plan using _____ if any portion of the flight requires RNAV.

A

DD Form 1801

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23
Q

During engine start, the first sign of combustion (light off) is a rise in EGT which should occur within _____ after start lever is advanced.

A

20 seconds

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24
Q

Do not shut down _____ if INS/PME is receiving cooling from the VCM. Damage to equipment may result.

A

vapor cycle system

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25
Q

After takeoff at Vco with the flaps at 14 degrees, what is the maximum bank angle?

A

15 degrees

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26
Q

Landing maximum cross wing on wet runway is _____.

A

IAW T.O. 1E-8C-1-1

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27
Q

A rolling takeoff will be made with crosswinds greater than _____ knots.

A

20

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28
Q

Seat swaps to assist in the accomplishment of training events are allowable with the following criteria:

A

All of the above.

A. One pilot guards controls and throttles during swap.
B. Two of the three flight deck primary seats will be occupied throughout the swap.
C. During air refueling, the aircraft is stabilized aft of the pre-contact position.

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29
Q

Do not pressurize _____ while servicing hydraulic reservoir. Injury to personnel may result.

A

bleed air system

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30
Q

Speed bugs may be set at the pilots discretion provided one bug is set at V1 for takeoff and Vref for approaches.

A

True

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31
Q

In the event of _____, the starter may be re-engaged if the RPM is below starter cutout speed of 35% N2.

A

a tailpipe fire

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32
Q

A PIC (or designee) may initiate mission related communication with official agencies without interrupting crew rest.

A

True

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33
Q

Dutch roll dampening is degraded at _____ with the yaw damper inoperative. Combined with turbulence or loss of an engine, aircraft control may be impossible.

A

higher altitudes, lower airspeeds, or greater flap settings.

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34
Q

Using differential braking with nose gear steering causes excessive side loads on the _____.

A

nose strut

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35
Q

When setting RUDDER switch to ON in flight, _____.

A

make sure the rudder is in neutral (centered) position

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36
Q

Cabin pressure relief valve differential pressure limitation is _____ psi (+/-0.15)

A

9.42

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37
Q

Operation of APU bleed air in parallel with _____ or ground air supply is prohibited.

A

either main engine bleed air

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38
Q

Maximum hydraulic pressure is _____ PSI.

A

3,500

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39
Q

Emergency landing fuel is _____ pounds.

A

10,000

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40
Q

Do not operate ANTI-SKID TEST switch during taxi, takeoff, or landing. If brakes are in use, _____.

A

ANTI-SKID TEST switch releases one set of brakes

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41
Q

The AC is responsible for active monitoring of fuel status (normally record fuel state at each turn point or every hour as applicable).

A

True

42
Q

The maximum N1 limit (red line) is _____%.

A

110

43
Q

With any axis of the autopilot inoperative, limit the aircrew duty period to _____ hours and the augmented aircrew duty period to _____ hours.

A

12; 16

44
Q

During touch and go maneuvers, the PWS may not cycle from takeoff to approach modes unless the landing gear is cycled and the airplane climbs above ______ for longer than _____.

A

2,400 feet AGL; 35 seconds

45
Q

Engine flameout can occur if airplane pitch attitude exceeds _____ degrees nose up or _____ degrees nose down when any main tank contains less than 2500 pounds.

A

8; 10

46
Q

If one of the CADCs fails or is delivering erroneous data as indicated on the applicable altimeter, ensure the proper CADC is selected for _____.

A

IFF altitude reporting

47
Q

Simulated engine out operations are restricted to which weather minimums:

A

All of the above

A. Day: Circling Minimums
B. Night: 1000/2
C. Night: Circling Minimums (if higher than 1000/2)

48
Q

With the yaw damper engaged, the RUD indicator on the autopilot/yaw damper trim indicator provides a visual indication of _____.

A

yaw damper

49
Q

The maximum oil temperature for continuous operation is _____ degrees C.

A

132

50
Q

The Continuous operation (Green) EGT is _____ degrees C.

A

340-510

51
Q

Use of the [engine] ignition system should not exceed _____ minutes.

A

10

52
Q

The normal operating range for the utility system is _____ psi.

A

2850-3150

53
Q

Terminate start if no oil pressure is observed within _____ of start initiation.

A

30 seconds

54
Q

If total wind adjustment for headwind and gust exceeds _____ knots, add only _____ knots to Vref.

A

20; 20

55
Q

Crews will request _____ approval to land when thunderstorms are within 10 NM.

A

OG/CC

56
Q

If the LOW RPM light illuminates in the ground (or fails to extinguish during start, _____.

A

shut down the engine and call maintenance

57
Q

Aircraft will not takeoff or land when reported RCR is less than _____. The OG/CC has the authority to waive the minimum RCR to _____ when operational necessity warrants.

A

10; 7

58
Q

If at any time on final approach an aural “Go Around, Windshear Ahead” is sounded or the red WINDSHEAR Warning annunciator is displayed, the pilot _____ go around.

A

will

59
Q

If the EGT is rising rapidly or above _____ (hot start), shut down the engine.

A

450 degrees C

60
Q

Use of excessive reverse thrust below _____ knots will result in ingestion if exhaust gassed causing engine surges.

A

60

61
Q

An alternate is required when the worst weather at destination, to include TEMPO conditions, at the ETA 1 hour is less than:

A

2,000 OR visibility of 3 SM

62
Q

Failure to synchronize baroset values between the _____ and _____ could result in unreliable operation of the altitude alerter.

A

CDU, altimeters

63
Q

If a blast deflector not available, clear the area behind the airplane a minimum of _____ feet for power settings up to 1.2 EPR and _____ minimum for power settings above 1.2 EPR.

A

200; 500

64
Q

Advise ATC if any applied (temperature) correction exceeds _____ ft.

A

80

65
Q

Do not engage yaw damper unless _____.

A

RUD indicator is centered

66
Q

The _____ is the final authority for requesting or accepting any waivers affecting the flight

A

PIC

67
Q

Maximum crosswind component (gust included) for takeoff or landing in a dry runway is

A

25

68
Q

The normal pressure operating range (interconnect off) for the rudder hydraulic pressure gage (auxiliary system) is _____ psi.

A

2750-3150

69
Q

Critical phases of flight are defined as takeoff, air refueling, approach, landing, emergencies and flight below _____ feet AGL.

A

None of the above (5000)

70
Q

How many times can you reset the FRAPU circuit breaker?

A

Never

71
Q

An alternate is required when the worst weather at destination, to include TEMPO conditions, at the ETA 1 hour is less than:

A

2,000 OR visibility of 3 SM

72
Q

At normal landing speeds, each second of delay in brake application adds approximately _____ feet to landing distance.

A

250

73
Q

If the weather radar is operating on the ground, maintain a _____ foot clearance from nose radon’s to any equipment being refueled or defueled to prevent possible ignition of fuel vapors. Also, maintain a _____ foot clearance from nose radon’s to ungrounded electro-explosive devices.

A

10; 40

74
Q

Once all tech order emergency procedures are completed, aircrew may conduct in-flight troubleshooting.

A

False

75
Q

The maximum allowable EGT (red line) is _____ degrees C.

A

575

76
Q

Do not use wing anti-ice for takeoff or until reaching _____ feet above ground level (AGL).

A

1000

77
Q

The E-8 May operate in RNP-10 airspace when the following conditions are met:

(11-2E-8 V3)

A

Both A and B are correct

A. The INU-only
Navigation mode is selected for the primary steering solution. Other navigation modes may not be used for operations in RNP 10 airspace.

B. Updates will be IAW RNP 10/BRNAV update and contingency procedures in this volume.

78
Q

During Air Refueling, as the aircraft closed to within _____, the IFF will be set to STBY and the TCAS will enter STANDBY mode, eliminating the aircraft target diamond on display. If unable to establish/maintain radar contact by _____, TCAS may be left on up to _____.

A

3 NM; 3 NM; 1 NM

79
Q

To prevent APU starter damage due to overheating, only _____ starts or start attempts are permitted in a _____ period.

A

3; 1 hour

80
Q

Required RVSM equipment includes both primary altimeters, autopilot (with altitude hold capability), and which of the following:

A

A and B above

A. Altitude alerter
B. IFF transponder

81
Q

For best results (when using the autopilot), limit rate of climb or descent to _____ feet per minute when engaging the altitude mode to prevent excessive overshoot of altitude.

A

500

82
Q

Aircraft equipped with TCAS _____ operate in the TCAS mode that provides both Traffic Alerts (TAs) and Resolution Advisories (RAs), unless otherwise dictated by the aircraft manual, formation flight requirements, MAJCOM guidance, mission requirements, or host-nation agreements.

A

Shall

83
Q

Fuel dumping may be conducted to reduce gross weight in an emergency, operational necessity, or for formal training.

A

False

84
Q

Do not turn after a takeoff until at least _____ ft. above the Departure End of the Runway (DER) elevation, at a safe airspeed, and past the end of the runway (if visible) unless specifically cleared by the controlling agency, required by a published procedure, or when executing a closed pattern.

A

400

85
Q

If possible, launch rafts over _____ to avoid damage from flaps. Do not allow raft to contact vortex generators.

A

leading edge of wing

86
Q

If it becomes apparent the aircraft will land with 12,000 pounds of fuel remaining or less,

A

declare “Minimum Fuel” and land short of destination; or divert as required.

87
Q

If the altimeter _____ is inoperative, the 100 foot pointer can momentarily hang up when passing through 0 (12 o’clock position).

A

internal vibrator

88
Q

Crews will enter an AFTO 781A write up any time EGT reaches _____. Crews will include outside air temperature, pressure altitude, N1, EPR, and maximum EGT.

A

570 degrees Celcius

89
Q

Do not use wing anti-ice in flight at more than maximum cruise power if the total air temperature is above _____.

A

10 degrees C

90
Q

Fuel flow at light off above _____ pph (indicates impending hot start) and start lever should be set to CUTOFF.

A

1400

91
Q

When refueling to a CG at or near the forward limit, the aircraft becomes pitch sensitive at airspeeds below 280 knots. A sever pitch oscillation can develop which, if not corrected, could cause tanker/receiver contact.

A

True

92
Q

Normal landing weight is _____ pounds at a maximum sink rate of 600 feet per minute (structural limit).

A

247,000

93
Q

If an aircraft is moved prior to an INU entering NAV mode, a realignment is necessary after a minimum _____ shutdown period.

A

30 second

94
Q

Takeoff Rated Thrust (TRT) an Go-around Thrust are limited to _____ minutes of operation.

A

5

95
Q

To prevent the possibility of the first generator tripping due to high generator loads and subsequent damage of equipment, advance throttle on corresponding engine to the first generator brought on line to a minimum of _____% N2.

A

62

96
Q

If an anti-icing valve does not open within 1 second at _____ N1, the valve has failed.

A

40%

97
Q

Minimum runway length for takeoff is _____.

A

Critical Field Length

98
Q

Ensure throttles are _____ and bleed valves are closed, prior to clearing ground crew to remove external air. Ground crew personnel may be injured I’d bleed air manifold is pressurized and the external air check valve fails.

A

idle

99
Q

Minimum recommended turn width for a 180 degree turn is _____ feet.

A

120

100
Q

Engine acceleration from idle to go-around thrust can take up to _____ seconds.

A

10

E-8C JSTARS (10 decks)

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