Mar 18 MQF

Question 1

The engine oil temperature may indicate in the range between 132 degrees C and 143 degrees C for a period not to exceed _____.

Answer 1

10 minutes

Question 2

During takeoff, wind shear alerts are inhibited from the time aircraft reaches _____ knits ground speed until the aircraft reaches _____.

Answer 2

100, 50 feet AGL

Question 3

Applicable takeoff and obstacle clearance data shall be recomputed if any weather or configuration change occurs greater than as follows:

Answer 3

Runway Temp +/-2 degrees C
Pressure Altitude +/-500 feet
Gross Weight +/-5000 lbs
Center of Gravity +/-0.5%

Question 4

Evacuate airplane using ground evacuation checklist when the brake energy is in the “danger zone”, defined as _____ foot pounds per brake.

Answer 4

above 28 million

Question 5

The maximum in-flight weight with reserve tanks empty is _____ pounds.

Answer 5

280,000

Question 6

A PIC may only deviate from AFI 11-202v3, flight rule, or ATC clearance to _____.

Answer 6

All of the above

Protect life
For safety of flight
When an in-flight emergency requires immediate action

Question 7

Aircraft Interior Lighting. During night parking, use of the overhead flight deck lighting should be avoided until _____

Answer 7

after the aircraft is chocked

Question 8

Crew members will coordinate with MCC and advise the flight crew prior to entering:

Answer 8

A lower lobe

Question 9

Prior to descent or approach, E-8C aircraft using visual requirements only must have visibility of 2400 feet RVR (800 m) or published Minimums, whichever is higher, to start a published straight in, sidestep approach, or en route descent.

Answer 9

True

Question 10

Pilots will neither file a flight plan nor fly into an area of known or forecast thunderstorm activity when the _____ is inoperative or unusable and thunderstorm activity can not be visually circumnavigated.

Answer 10

weather radar

Question 11

Rolling takeoffs are permitted at all gross weights and are recommended for gross weights under _____ pounds.

Answer 11

230,000

Question 12

The maximum speed for emergency gear operation is _____.

Answer 12

320 KIAS - 0.83M

Question 13

Do not taxi an aircraft within _____ of obstructions without wing walkers monitoring clearance between aircraft and obstructions. With wing walkers, avoid taxi obstructions by at least _____.

Answer 13

25ft, 10ft

Question 14

A(n) _____ approved cargo manifest is required prior to all departures with cargo aboard.

Answer 14

OG/CC

Question 15

During a non-precision approach, at 100 feet above Minimum Descent Altitude (MDA), the pilot not flying should make the following call out:

Answer 15

Approaching Minimums

Question 16

Check the rudder pressure drops to _____ psi when flaps are fully retracted.

Answer 16

2250

Question 17

Periods of Controlled Cockpit Rest are limited to 45 minutes per test period.

Answer 17

45

Question 18

Recommended turbulence penetration airspeed is _____ Mach it _____ KIAS, whichever is lower.

Answer 18

.80(+/- 0.01); 290

Question 19

Setting the draw thru system control switch to OVRD in-flight will cause to OVBD valve _____.

Answer 19

to open resulting in a loss of cabin pressurization

Question 20

When conducting multiple full stop landings, do not takeoff until the combined energy after ground cooling is less than 35 million ft-lbs.

Answer 20

False

Question 21

Operate window heat in _____ for 10 minutes (if time permits) before setting to _____ to avoid damage to window.

Answer 21

LOW; HIGH

Question 22

To ensure flight accountability, file a flight plan using _____ if any portion of the flight requires RNAV.

Answer 22

DD Form 1801

Question 23

During engine start, the first sign of combustion (light off) is a rise in EGT which should occur within _____ after start lever is advanced.

Answer 23

20 seconds

Question 24

Do not shut down _____ if INS/PME is receiving cooling from the VCM. Damage to equipment may result.

Answer 24

vapor cycle system

Question 25

After takeoff at Vco with the flaps at 14 degrees, what is the maximum bank angle?

Answer 25

15 degrees

Question 26

Landing maximum cross wing on wet runway is _____.

Answer 26

IAW T.O. 1E-8C-1-1

Question 27

A rolling takeoff will be made with crosswinds greater than _____ knots.

Answer 27

20

Question 28

Seat swaps to assist in the accomplishment of training events are allowable with the following criteria:

Answer 28

All of the above. A. One pilot guards controls and throttles during swap. B. Two of the three flight deck primary seats will be occupied throughout the swap. C. During air refueling, the aircraft is stabilized aft of the pre-contact position.

Question 29

Do not pressurize _____ while servicing hydraulic reservoir. Injury to personnel may result.

Answer 29

bleed air system

Question 30

Speed bugs may be set at the pilots discretion provided one bug is set at V1 for takeoff and Vref for approaches.

Answer 30

True

Question 31

In the event of _____, the starter may be re-engaged if the RPM is below starter cutout speed of 35% N2.

Answer 31

a tailpipe fire

Question 32

A PIC (or designee) may initiate mission related communication with official agencies without interrupting crew rest.

Answer 32

True

Question 33

Dutch roll dampening is degraded at _____ with the yaw damper inoperative. Combined with turbulence or loss of an engine, aircraft control may be impossible.

Answer 33

higher altitudes, lower airspeeds, or greater flap settings.

Question 34

Using differential braking with nose gear steering causes excessive side loads on the _____.

Answer 34

nose strut

Question 35

When setting RUDDER switch to ON in flight, _____.

Answer 35

make sure the rudder is in neutral (centered) position

Question 36

Cabin pressure relief valve differential pressure limitation is _____ psi (+/-0.15)

Answer 36

9.42

Question 37

Operation of APU bleed air in parallel with _____ or ground air supply is prohibited.

Answer 37

either main engine bleed air

Question 38

Maximum hydraulic pressure is _____ PSI.

Answer 38

3,500

Question 39

Emergency landing fuel is _____ pounds.

Answer 39

10,000

Question 40

Do not operate ANTI-SKID TEST switch during taxi, takeoff, or landing. If brakes are in use, _____.

Answer 40

ANTI-SKID TEST switch releases one set of brakes

Question 41

The AC is responsible for active monitoring of fuel status (normally record fuel state at each turn point or every hour as applicable).

Answer 41

True

Question 42

The maximum N1 limit (red line) is _____%.

Answer 42

110

Question 43

With any axis of the autopilot inoperative, limit the aircrew duty period to _____ hours and the augmented aircrew duty period to _____ hours.

Answer 43

12; 16

Question 44

During touch and go maneuvers, the PWS may not cycle from takeoff to approach modes unless the landing gear is cycled and the airplane climbs above ______ for longer than _____.

Answer 44

2,400 feet AGL; 35 seconds

Question 45

Engine flameout can occur if airplane pitch attitude exceeds _____ degrees nose up or _____ degrees nose down when any main tank contains less than 2500 pounds.

Answer 45

8; 10

Question 46

If one of the CADCs fails or is delivering erroneous data as indicated on the applicable altimeter, ensure the proper CADC is selected for _____.

Answer 46

IFF altitude reporting

Question 47

Simulated engine out operations are restricted to which weather minimums:

Answer 47

All of the above A. Day: Circling Minimums B. Night: 1000/2 C. Night: Circling Minimums (if higher than 1000/2)

Question 48

With the yaw damper engaged, the RUD indicator on the autopilot/yaw damper trim indicator provides a visual indication of _____.

Answer 48

yaw damper

Question 49

The maximum oil temperature for continuous operation is _____ degrees C.

Answer 49

132

Question 50

The Continuous operation (Green) EGT is _____ degrees C.

Answer 50

340-510

Question 51

Use of the [engine] ignition system should not exceed _____ minutes.

Answer 51

10

Question 52

The normal operating range for the utility system is _____ psi.

Answer 52

2850-3150

Question 53

Terminate start if no oil pressure is observed within _____ of start initiation.

Answer 53

30 seconds

Question 54

If total wind adjustment for headwind and gust exceeds _____ knots, add only _____ knots to Vref.

Answer 54

20; 20

Question 55

Crews will request _____ approval to land when thunderstorms are within 10 NM.

Answer 55

OG/CC

Question 56

If the LOW RPM light illuminates in the ground (or fails to extinguish during start, _____.

Answer 56

shut down the engine and call maintenance

Question 57

Aircraft will not takeoff or land when reported RCR is less than _____. The OG/CC has the authority to waive the minimum RCR to _____ when operational necessity warrants.

Answer 57

10; 7

Question 58

If at any time on final approach an aural “Go Around, Windshear Ahead” is sounded or the red WINDSHEAR Warning annunciator is displayed, the pilot _____ go around.

Answer 58

will

Question 59

If the EGT is rising rapidly or above _____ (hot start), shut down the engine.

Answer 59

450 degrees C

Question 60

Use of excessive reverse thrust below _____ knots will result in ingestion if exhaust gassed causing engine surges.

Answer 60

60

Question 61

An alternate is required when the worst weather at destination, to include TEMPO conditions, at the ETA 1 hour is less than:

Answer 61

2,000 OR visibility of 3 SM

Question 62

Failure to synchronize baroset values between the _____ and _____ could result in unreliable operation of the altitude alerter.

Answer 62

CDU, altimeters

Question 63

If a blast deflector not available, clear the area behind the airplane a minimum of _____ feet for power settings up to 1.2 EPR and _____ minimum for power settings above 1.2 EPR.

Answer 63

200; 500

Question 64

Advise ATC if any applied (temperature) correction exceeds _____ ft.

Answer 64

80

Question 65

Do not engage yaw damper unless _____.

Answer 65

RUD indicator is centered

Question 66

The _____ is the final authority for requesting or accepting any waivers affecting the flight

Answer 66

PIC

Question 67

Maximum crosswind component (gust included) for takeoff or landing in a dry runway is

Answer 67

25

Question 68

The normal pressure operating range (interconnect off) for the rudder hydraulic pressure gage (auxiliary system) is _____ psi.

Answer 68

2750-3150

Question 69

Critical phases of flight are defined as takeoff, air refueling, approach, landing, emergencies and flight below _____ feet AGL.

Answer 69

None of the above (5000)

Question 70

How many times can you reset the FRAPU circuit breaker?

Answer 70

Never

Question 71

An alternate is required when the worst weather at destination, to include TEMPO conditions, at the ETA 1 hour is less than:

Answer 71

2,000 OR visibility of 3 SM

Question 72

At normal landing speeds, each second of delay in brake application adds approximately _____ feet to landing distance.

Answer 72

250

Question 73

If the weather radar is operating on the ground, maintain a _____ foot clearance from nose radon’s to any equipment being refueled or defueled to prevent possible ignition of fuel vapors. Also, maintain a _____ foot clearance from nose radon’s to ungrounded electro-explosive devices.

Answer 73

10; 40

Question 74

Once all tech order emergency procedures are completed, aircrew may conduct in-flight troubleshooting.

Answer 74

False

Question 75

The maximum allowable EGT (red line) is _____ degrees C.

Answer 75

575

Question 76

Do not use wing anti-ice for takeoff or until reaching _____ feet above ground level (AGL).

Answer 76

1000

Question 77

The E-8 May operate in RNP-10 airspace when the following conditions are met: (11-2E-8 V3)

Answer 77

Both A and B are correct A. The INU-only Navigation mode is selected for the primary steering solution. Other navigation modes may not be used for operations in RNP 10 airspace. B. Updates will be IAW RNP 10/BRNAV update and contingency procedures in this volume.

Question 78

During Air Refueling, as the aircraft closed to within _____, the IFF will be set to STBY and the TCAS will enter STANDBY mode, eliminating the aircraft target diamond on display. If unable to establish/maintain radar contact by _____, TCAS may be left on up to _____.

Answer 78

3 NM; 3 NM; 1 NM

Question 79

To prevent APU starter damage due to overheating, only _____ starts or start attempts are permitted in a _____ period.

Answer 79

3; 1 hour

Question 80

Required RVSM equipment includes both primary altimeters, autopilot (with altitude hold capability), and which of the following:

Answer 80

A and B above A. Altitude alerter B. IFF transponder

Question 81

For best results (when using the autopilot), limit rate of climb or descent to _____ feet per minute when engaging the altitude mode to prevent excessive overshoot of altitude.

Answer 81

500

Question 82

Aircraft equipped with TCAS _____ operate in the TCAS mode that provides both Traffic Alerts (TAs) and Resolution Advisories (RAs), unless otherwise dictated by the aircraft manual, formation flight requirements, MAJCOM guidance, mission requirements, or host-nation agreements.

Answer 82

Shall

Question 83

Fuel dumping may be conducted to reduce gross weight in an emergency, operational necessity, or for formal training.

Answer 83

False

Question 84

Do not turn after a takeoff until at least _____ ft. above the Departure End of the Runway (DER) elevation, at a safe airspeed, and past the end of the runway (if visible) unless specifically cleared by the controlling agency, required by a published procedure, or when executing a closed pattern.

Answer 84

400

Question 85

If possible, launch rafts over _____ to avoid damage from flaps. Do not allow raft to contact vortex generators.

Answer 85

leading edge of wing

Question 86

If it becomes apparent the aircraft will land with 12,000 pounds of fuel remaining or less,

Answer 86

declare “Minimum Fuel” and land short of destination; or divert as required.

Question 87

If the altimeter _____ is inoperative, the 100 foot pointer can momentarily hang up when passing through 0 (12 o’clock position).

Answer 87

internal vibrator

Question 88

Crews will enter an AFTO 781A write up any time EGT reaches _____. Crews will include outside air temperature, pressure altitude, N1, EPR, and maximum EGT.

Answer 88

570 degrees Celcius

Question 89

Do not use wing anti-ice in flight at more than maximum cruise power if the total air temperature is above _____.

Answer 89

10 degrees C

Question 90

Fuel flow at light off above _____ pph (indicates impending hot start) and start lever should be set to CUTOFF.

Answer 90

1400

Question 91

When refueling to a CG at or near the forward limit, the aircraft becomes pitch sensitive at airspeeds below 280 knots. A sever pitch oscillation can develop which, if not corrected, could cause tanker/receiver contact.

Answer 91

True

Question 92

Normal landing weight is _____ pounds at a maximum sink rate of 600 feet per minute (structural limit).

Answer 92

247,000

Question 93

If an aircraft is moved prior to an INU entering NAV mode, a realignment is necessary after a minimum _____ shutdown period.

Answer 93

30 second

Question 94

Takeoff Rated Thrust (TRT) an Go-around Thrust are limited to _____ minutes of operation.

Answer 94

5

Question 95

To prevent the possibility of the first generator tripping due to high generator loads and subsequent damage of equipment, advance throttle on corresponding engine to the first generator brought on line to a minimum of _____% N2.

Answer 95

62

Question 96

If an anti-icing valve does not open within 1 second at _____ N1, the valve has failed.

Answer 96

40%

Question 97

Minimum runway length for takeoff is _____.

Answer 97

Critical Field Length

Question 98

Ensure throttles are _____ and bleed valves are closed, prior to clearing ground crew to remove external air. Ground crew personnel may be injured I’d bleed air manifold is pressurized and the external air check valve fails.

Answer 98

idle

Question 99

Minimum recommended turn width for a 180 degree turn is _____ feet.

Answer 99

120

Question 100

Engine acceleration from idle to go-around thrust can take up to _____ seconds.

Answer 100

10