Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

E-8C JSTARS > Limitations > Flashcards

Limitations Flashcards

0
Q

TOLD Runway slope Limits: +/-___%

A

+/-2%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
1
Q

TOLD Altitude Limits: -_____ to _____ feet (pressure altitude)

A

-1000 ft to 10,000 ft (pressure altitude)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

TOLD Limiting tail wind component: ___ knots

A

10 knots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

TOLD Temperature limits: -___ C to +___ C

A

-54 C to 54 C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Maximum zero fuel weight: _____ pounds

A

230,000 pounds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Maximum taxi weight: _____ pounds

A

336,000 pounds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Maximum takeoff weight (flaps down): _____ pounds

A

333,600 pounds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Maximum in-flight weight (flaps up): _____ pounds

A

331,000 pounds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Maximum inflight weight with the reserve tanks empty: _____ pounds

A

280,000 pounds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Maximum normal landing weight (600 fpm sink rate): _____ pounds

A

247,000 pounds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Maximum landing weight (360 fpm sink rate): _____ pounds

A

326,000 pounds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

N1 Continuous Operation

A

25% - 107%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Maximum Allowable N1

A

110%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

N1 idle below ___% is a sign of possible engine malfunction

A

25%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

N2 Normal Idle Operation

A

58% - 62%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

N2 Continuous Operation

A

57% - 101%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Maximum Allowable N2

A

106%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Ground idle RPM is ___ - ___ N2, standard day, with no bleed air, generator or hydraulic pump loads

A

58% - 62%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

EGT Continuous Operation

A

340 C - 510 C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

EGT Caution

A

510 C - 575 C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Maximum Allowable EGT

A

575 C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

During engine start, if EGT is rising rapidly or exceeds ___ C, shut down the engine

A

450 C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

On takeoff, an EGT between ___ - ___ C is not necessarily a malfunction to abort at high speed

A

575 - 600 C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Oil Pressure Normal Operating Range

A

40 - 60 PSI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Undesirable Oil Pressure (Caution)

A

35 - 40 PSI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Minimum Oil Pressure (Idle)

It may decrease to ___ psi during rapid engine deceleration

A

35 PSI

30 psi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Maximum Oil Pressure

Following rapid advances of throttles to T/O or GA may indicate as high as ___ psi

A

60 PSI

65 psi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Oil Temperature Continuous Operation

A

40 - 132 C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Recommended Oil Temperature

A

80 - 100 C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

10-Minute Max Operation Oil Temparature

A

132- 143 C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Maximum Allowable Oil Temperature

A

143 C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

___ minute(s) on, ___ minute(s) off for 1st starting attempt

A

1; 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

___ minute(s) on, ___ minute(s) off for subsequent starting attempts

A

1; 5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Use of the engine ignition system should not exceed ___ minutes

A

10 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Ignition should be set to _____ for takeoff, emergency descent, minimum fuel approach, any engine-out approach, and flight through volcanic ash

A

BOTH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Ignition should be set to _____ for turbulence, entry into icing, compressor stall recovery, and practice approach to stall recovery

A

1 or 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Bleed Air System Normal Start Pressure Range

A

25- 60 PSIG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Cabin Air Duct Pressure Normal

A

4- 20 inches

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Maximum Cabin Air Duct Pressure

A

20 inches

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Maximum (inflight) Cabin Differential Pressure

A

8.6 PSI (+/- 0.15)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Cabin Differential Pressurization relief valve

A

9.42 PSI (+/- 0.15)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Utility Hydraulic System Precharge

A

2000 PSI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Utility Hydraulic System Maximum Pressure

A

3500 PSI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Utility Hydraulic System Pump output, no load

A

2850 - 3150 PSI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Utility Hydraulic System Minimum Pressure under load

A

2400 PSI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Brake Hydraulic System Precharge

A

750 PSI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Brake Hydraulic System Normal Range

A

750 - 3150 PSI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Brake Hydraulic System Maximum Pressure

A

3500 PSI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Auxiliary Hydraulic System Precharge

A

2000 PSI (not indicated on rudder gauge)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Maximum Auxiliary Hydraulic System Pressure (as read on rudder gauge)

A

3500 PSI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Auxiliary Hydraulic System Pump output, no load (as read on rudder gauge)

A

2750 - 3150 PSI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Auxiliary Hydraulic System Write-up required(as read on rudder gauge)

A

2200 - 1400 PSI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Auxiliary Hydraulic System Maintenance required (as read on rudder gauge)

A

1400 PSI or less

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Auxiliary Hydraulic System Rudder deboost range (as read on rudder gauge)

A

2100 - 2400 PSI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Aircraft Generator Load, Continuous operation

A

261 amperes per generator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Aircraft Generator Load, 5-second operation

A

348 amperes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Aircraft Generator Frequency

A

400 (+/-20) hertz (as limited by using equipment)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Aircraft Generator Voltage

A

200 (+/-8) volts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

External Power Frequency

A

400 (+/-20) hertz

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

External Power Voltage

A

200 (+/-8) volts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

External Power Load

A

265 (+/-25) amperes for 5 to 7 secs, main receptacle only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Minimum Airplane Battery voltage for APU start

A

22 volts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Minimum Airplane Battery voltage for flight

A

24 volts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Emergency Airplane battery only operation

A

30 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

APU Normal operating speed

A

100% RPM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

APU Overspeed

A

110% RPM

66
Q

APU Underspeed

A

95% RPM

67
Q

APU Normal Operating Temperature

A

330 C

68
Q

APU Maximum Allowable Temperature

A

675 C

69
Q

APU Caution Temperature (yellow)

A

605 C - 675 C

70
Q

APU continuous load

A

348 amperes

71
Q

APU 5-minute load

A

406 amperes

72
Q

APU 5-second load

A

580 amperes

73
Q

APU Generator Frequency

A

400 (+/-7) hertz

74
Q

Minimum voltage for APU Start

A

22 volts

75
Q

The APU battery is a ___ volt, 44 amp-hour nickel-cadmium unit located in the _____ main wheel well compartment

A

24

right

76
Q

Maximum Operating Speed

A

350 KIAS from SL to 25,800 feet

M .84 above 25,800 feet

77
Q

Max airspeed with MACH trim inop (& emerg descent)

A

M .79; (M .825)

78
Q

Do not exceed ___ KIAS with flaps extended to 14 degrees

A

223 KIAS

79
Q

Do not exceed ___ KIAS with flaps extended to 25 degrees

A

215 KIAS

80
Q

Do not exceed ___ KIAS with flaps extended to 40 degrees

A

200 KIAS

81
Q

Do not exceed ___ KIAS with flaps extended to 50 degrees

A

195 KIAS

82
Q

Landing Gear Normal Operating Speed

A

270 KIAS, M .83

83
Q

Landing Gear Emergency Operating Speed

A

320 KIAS, M .83

84
Q

Landing Gear Extended Speed

A

320 KIAS, M .83

85
Q

Max Tire Speed

A

195 knots groundspeed

86
Q

Retractable Landing Lights Extension Speed

A

250 KIAS

87
Q

Retractable Landing Lights Retraction Speed

A

No limit

88
Q

The operating life of the retractable landing lights increases if the lights are retracted below ___

A

250 KIAS

89
Q

Fixed landing lights should be ___ (except for momentary checks) unless the aircraft is moving. When a/c is on ground and not in motion, limit operation to ___ minutes

A

Off

5 minutes

90
Q

Fuel Dump Chutes Operating Limit

A

240 KIAS, M .83

91
Q

Fuel Dump Chutes Extended Limit

A

275 KIAS, M .83

92
Q

If aircraft requires more than ___ unit(s) of aileron trim or ___ unit(s) of rudder trim, enter condition on AFTO Forms 781A

A

1.5

1

93
Q

At 80 knots, the maximum allowable difference between the pilot and copilot airspeed indicators is ___ knots

A

4 knots

94
Q

If more than ___ unit(s) of aileron trim or ___ unit(s) of rudder trim are required, maintenance correction should be made at the next capable station

A

3

1.5

95
Q

Maintain ___ clearance to equip being refueled. Maintain ___ to ungrounded electro-explosive devices with weather radar on

A

10; 40

96
Q

Do not transmit on the HF radios (on the ground) unless personnel are at least ___ feet from all aircraft surfaces

A

15 feet

97
Q

Do not transmit on HF radios within ___ feet of equipment being fueled/defueled or any underground electro-explosive devices

A

30 feet

98
Q

Do not transmit on the AN/ARC-186 VHF radios (on the ground) unless personnel are at least ___ feet from the radiating antenna

A

4 feet

99
Q

Do not transmit on the AN/ARC-186 VHF radios within ___ feet of equipment being fueled/defueled or any ungrounded electro-explosive devices

A

24 feet

100
Q

Do not trasmit on the AN/ARC-210 (TCTO 762) VHF radios (on the ground) unless personnel are at least ___ feet from the radiating antenna

A

5 feet

101
Q

Do not transmit on the AN/ARC-210 (TCTO 762) VHF radios within ___ feet of equipment being fueled/defueled or any ungrounded electro-explosive devices

A

7 feet

102
Q

Do not trasmit on the UHF radios (on the ground) unless personnel are at least ___ feet from the radiating antenna

A

4 feet

103
Q

Do not transmit on the UHF radios within ___ feet of equipment being fueled/defueled or any ungrounded electro-explosive devices

A

8 feet

104
Q

In flight, do not transmit on mission radar within ___ feet horizontally or ___ feet vertically from another aircraft

A

1000; 1000

105
Q

transmission of the mission radar on the ground is _____ except by radar maintenance personnel using radar maintenance technical orders

A

Prohibited

106
Q

Mission radar ground speed envelope

A

450 +/-60 knots (rule of thumb)

107
Q

Re-compute applicable takeoff data if change occurs greater than…

A

Runway Temp: +/- 2˚C
PA: +/- 500 ft
GW: +/- 5000 lbs
CG: +/- .5%

108
Q

CFL is increased/decreased by approximately ___ by increases or decreases of…

A

100 ft

1˚C
100 ft PA
1,000 lbs GW

109
Q

With ___ increase in temperature, obstacle clearance calculations will be re-accomplished if obstacle clearance is ___ or less.

A

any

100 ft

110
Q

Increase rotation speed ___ knots for every ___ knots of tailwind.

A

4 knots

10 knots

111
Q

When increasing rotation, takeoff, or climbout speeds for gusts on takeoff, the maximum allowable increase is ___ knots

A

10

112
Q

When correcting approach speed for headwind and gusts, the total wind correction must not exceed ___ knots

A

20

113
Q

A/R airspeed from level off until 2 NM

A

M .76 or 310 KIAS, whichever is lower

114
Q

A/R airspeed at 1 NM

A

M .72 or 290 KIAS, whichever is lower

115
Q

A/R airspeed at 1/2 NM

A

M .69 or 285 KIAS, whichever is lower

116
Q

A/R airspeed in contact

A

M .66 or 275 KIAS, whichever is lower

117
Q

KC-135

inner extension limit

A

6 ft

118
Q

KC-135

center extension

A

12 ft

119
Q

KC-135

outer extension limit

A

18 ft

120
Q

KC-135

left/right azimuth limits

A

10˚

121
Q

KC-135

center azimuth position

A

0˚

122
Q

KC-135

upper vertical limit

A

20˚

123
Q

KC-135

center vertical position

A

Approximately 30˚

124
Q

KC-135

lower vertical limit

A

40˚

125
Q

KC-10

inner extension limit

A

6 ft

126
Q

KC-10

center extension

A

13 ft

127
Q

KC-10

outer extension limit

A

21 ft

128
Q

KC-10

left/right azimuth limits

A

19˚

129
Q

KC-10

center azimuth position

A

0˚

130
Q

KC-10

upper vertical limit

A

20˚

131
Q

KC-10

center vertical position

A

Approximately 30˚

132
Q

KC-10

lower vertical limit

A

40˚

133
Q

A maximum of ___ KC-10 aerial refuel transfer pumps should be used during refueling to prevent over pressurization of refueling system

A

4

134
Q

Flap indicators may read +/- ___ of actual flap position

A

3˚

135
Q

Flaps will not be extended above ___

A

20,000 MSL

136
Q

Leading edge flaps extend and retract as the _____ trailing edge flaps pass through the _____ position

A

inboard

6 (+/- 3)˚

137
Q

If the mach bell rings before ___ or ___ is indicated, the point at which the bell begins to ring is limiting

A

Vmo

Mmo

138
Q

The airplane battery is a ___ volt, 31 amp-hour, lead acid unit located in the _____ section

A

24

right lower nose

139
Q

Rudder pressure should be approximately ___ when rudder is set to the high range and ___ when rudder is in low range

A

3000 psi

2250 psi

140
Q

Altimeter must read within ___ of known elevation (RESET/STBY modes)

A

75 ft

141
Q

Allowable tolerance between both RMDIs is ___

A

2.5˚

142
Q

Allowable difference between the RMDI and an HSI repeater (on the same compass system) is ___

A

1˚

143
Q

During the ADI test, the indicator should display ___ right bank and ___ nose up pitch

A

20˚

10˚

144
Q

Gaseous O2 pressure should be _____

A

290-430 psi

145
Q

LOX convertor stores ___ of LOX at a nominal pressure of ___

A

75 L

300 psi

146
Q

Oxygen level low light comes on at or below ___ or when the system pressure is below ___

A

7.5 L

42 psi

147
Q

Utility hydraulic reservoir is located in the ___ main wheel well

All airplanes have an extended filler neck and an expansion tank which has a capacity of ___

A

left

6.9 gal

148
Q

Hydraulic fluid above the ___ level replenished the auxiliary hydraulic system reservoirs

A

3.2 gal

149
Q

Rudder boost low pressure light indicates pressure in supply line to the rudder power unit is below approximately ___

Armed with _____ flaps down ___ or greater and rudder hydraulic pressure in the high range

A

2500 PSI

inboard
2˚

150
Q

Yaw damper disengaged light will come on when rudder pressure drops below ___ or yaw damper _____ power is lost or when certain circuit _____ occur within the yaw damper circuits

A

1200 psi

electric

faults

151
Q

Auxiliary and utility hydraulic pump low pressure lights come on when pressure decreases to approximately ___

The lights go out when pressure increases to approximately ___

A

1100 psi

1200 psi

152
Q

When fuel temperature is ___ or below, turn fuel heat on for ___ prior to T/O

A

0˚C

1 min

153
Q

If engines have been operating at idle thrust for ___ or more, fuel heater may be operated with engines at idle

Otherwise, fuel should be increased to ___ before the heaters are turned on and maintained at ___ for ___ after the heaters are turned off

A

5 min

1500 pph
1500 pph
2 min

154
Q

Fuel heat should be ___ for takeoff

A

off

155
Q

Turn on engine anti-icing during ground operations whenever icing conditions exist for takeoff (OAT ___ or lower with visible moisture present)

A

10˚C

156
Q

If the nose cowl anti-ice valve does not open in ___ at idle thrust, increase thrust to ___ N1

Do not exceed ___ N1 - if valve does not open within ___, valve has failed

A

1 sec
40%

40%
1 sec

157
Q

Do not use wing anti-ice for takeoff or until reaching ___

A

1000 AGL

158
Q

The oil pressure caution light will come on at ___ or ___.

It will go out at ___ on increasing pressure.

A

32 +/- 2 PSI or 50 PSID

36 PSI

159
Q

Oil pressure caution light should go off within ___ seconds after engine reaches stabilized idle

A

30

160
Q

Fuel flow at light-off above ___ pph indicates impending hot start (normally less than ___ pph)

A

1400

1000

161
Q

Fuel flow peaks at _____ pph during engine acceleration and stabilizes at ___ pph at idle

A

1600-1800

1100

162
Q

A rise in EGT should occur within ___ seconds after start lever is adanced

A

20

E-8C JSTARS (10 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions