Management of the Newborn Flashcards

1
Q

What are the three major s/sx of hypoglycemia in the neonate?

A
  • Poor feeding
  • Poor tone
  • Jitteriness
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2
Q

What causes macrosomia in the newborn born to DM mothers?

A

IGF increases tissue growth

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3
Q

What causes the SGA seen with DM mothers? In whom is this more common in?

A

Maternal renovascular insufficiency

Longstanding poorly controlled DM

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4
Q

What are the physical abnormalities that can occur with poorly controlled DM? (4)

A
  • Sacral agenesis
  • Femoral hypoplasia
  • Heart defects
  • Cleft palate
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5
Q

What are the metabolic disturbances common with DM babies? (3)

A
  • Hypomagnesemia
  • Hypocalcemia
  • Hypoglycemia
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6
Q

How do you prevent hypoglycemia in the newborn? Treatment if it occurs?

A
  • Early and frequent feeding

- Give D10 IV

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7
Q

What is the target BG level for newborns?

A

greater than 45 mg/dL

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8
Q

How soon should babies be fed if there is a risk for hypoglycemia?

A

Within 1 hour

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9
Q

What is chorioamnionitis?

A

Rupture greater than 18 hours that leads to sepsis

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10
Q

ROM greater than how many hours indicates a risk for chorioamnionitis?

A

18 hours

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11
Q

When should GBS be screened for?

A

35-37 weeks

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12
Q

How long should PCN treatment be done for prior to delivery?

A

at least 4 hours

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13
Q

What are the major s/sx of GBS in the neonate? (4)

A
  • Cold
  • Excessive jaundice
  • Gray/pale/hypoxemia
  • Decreased tone
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14
Q

True or false: transmission of GBS can occur before delivery

A

True

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15
Q

Most neonate present with GBS infection within what time frame?

A

Within 24 hours

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16
Q

Last onset GBS infection is defined when? Is this more commonly meningitis or pneumonia?

A

1 week to 3 months

Late = meningitis
Early = pneumonia
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17
Q

True or false: increased use of IV Abx has decreased the risk for late onset GBS

A

False

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18
Q

True or false: if GBS status is unknown, then Abx are recommended

A

True

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19
Q

Mother who labor for longer than how long are at increased risk for GBS?

A

18 hours

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20
Q

What is the treatment for asymptomatic infants with possible GBS infection?

A

Observe for ~48 hours

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21
Q

What is the treatment of infants with symptomatic infants with GBS infx?

A

Begin lab and x-ray work up including cultures, and Begin Abx

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22
Q

If no source for fever is found in the neonate less than 28 days, what is the work up? (4 +, what if cough, diarrhea)

A
  • CBC and BC
  • UA + UC
  • LP/CSF
  • HSV PCR of CSF
  • CXR if coughing
  • Fecal WBC if diarrhea
23
Q

What is fecal lactoferrin? When will this alway be positive?

A

Used to diagnose bacterial enteritis

Always positive if BF

24
Q

What are the three bacterial infections that are common in the neonate?

A

GEL

GBS
E.coli
Listeria

25
What is the treatment for Fever of unknown etiology less than 28 days?
Hospitalize until 48 hours and abx if culture
26
What is the treatment for GEL + herpes? (3)
Ampicillin Gentamicin Acyclovir
27
Brushfield spots = ?
White spots in the iris that can be seen with T21
28
What are the classic down syndrome features? (2)
- Endocardial cushion defect | - MR
29
What is an endocardial cushion defect?
The endocardial cushions are a subset of cells found in the developing heart tube that will give rise to the heart's valves and septa critical to the proper formation of a four-chambered heart
30
What is brachycephaly?
Wider head than long
31
What is the definition of polyhydramnios?
More than 25 AFI by US
32
What is AFI?
Amniotic fluid index
33
What are the associations of polyhydramnios? (5)
- **Fetal GI abnormalities** - Maternal DM - Neural tube defects - Hydrops - Multiple gestation
34
What are the signs of tracheoesophageal fistulas?
- Poor feeding - Excessive secretions - respiratory distress
35
What is the most common type of TE fistula?
Upper esophageal atresia and TE fistula
36
How do you diagnose esophageal atresia?
NG tube that comes back up
37
What is the treatment for a TE fistula?
Immediate surgical correction -Search for the VACTERL association
38
What is the VACTERL association?
- Vertebral anomalies - Anal atresia - Cardiac defects - TE fistula - Esophageal atresia - Renal and radial anomalies - Limb defects
39
What is the definition of oligohydramnios?
Less than 5 AFI by US
40
Oligohydramnios increases the risk for perinatal mortality by how much?
40x
41
What is Potter syndrome? (5)
Fetal compression, causing: - GR - Fetal GU abnormalities - Pulmonary hypoplasia - position deformities of the fetus - flat face and low set ears
42
What causes Potter syndrome?
Oligohydramnios in utero, causing fetal compression
43
What are the long term consequences of Potter syndrome?
- Renal insufficiency | - Pulmonary syndrome
44
What defines late prenatal care?
16-20 weeks
45
What is the standard of care for late prenatal care?
Test for drugs in the uterus and the cord
46
What should always be obtained with late prenatal care?
Social services consult
47
What are the s/sx of fetal EtOH syndrome? (3)
- MR - Smooth philtrum - Thin upper lip
48
Smooth philtrum + Thin upper lip = ?
Fetal EtOH syndrome
49
What happens to tobacco use with prego?
- IUGR - Heart defects - Limb deficiencies
50
What causes the effects of tobacco on a fetus?
Vasoconstriction and decreased blood flow
51
When is it appropriate to d/c a neonate who had late prenatal care? (4)
- Results of drug screen - social services seen - Urine output and stool 1x or more - f/u can be arranged
52
How is macrosomia defined?
by gestational age
53
How long does an infant have to have VSS for, when the mother received late prenatal care?
12 hours