Male Pathology Flashcards

1
Q

Cryptorchidism is _

A

Cryptorchidism is failure of the testicles to descend into the scrotum

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2
Q

The testes begin in the _ and descend through the inguinal canal and into the scrotum by month _ of life

A

The testes begin in the retroperitoneum and descend through the inguinal canal and into the scrotum by month 3-6 of life

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3
Q

Complications of cryptorchidism include _ and _

A

Complications of cryptorchidism include infertility and cancer risk (seminomas)

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4
Q

How does cryptorchidism lead to impaired testicular function/infertility?

A

Increased temperature damages cells in the testis

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5
Q

(Sertoli/Leydig) cells are more temperature sensitive and at risk of damage from cryptochidism

A

Sertoli cells are more temperature sensitive and at risk of damage from cryptochidism
* Leydig cells are largely unaffected

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6
Q

_ and _ are risk factors that increase the risk of cryptorchidism

A

Prematurity and Low birth weight are risk factors that increase the risk of cryptorchidism

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7
Q

Cryptorchidism presents as _

A

Cryptorchidism presents as absence of one or both testes in the scrotum

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8
Q

Cryptochidism will present with the following labs:
Sperm count
Inhibin
FSH
LH
Testosterone

A

Cryptochidism will present with the following labs:
Low Sperm count
Low Inhibin
High FSH
High LH
Low or normal Testosterone

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9
Q

Bilateral cryptorchidism will cause _ testosterone levels

A

Bilateral cryptorchidism will cause low testosterone levels
* Unilateral will result in normal testosterone levels

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10
Q

Cryptorchidism often resolves spontaneously but if persistent, _ should be performed between 6 months- 2 years of age

A

Cryptorchidism often resolves spontaneously but if persistent, orchiopexy should be performed between 6 months- 2 years of age

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11
Q

The _ is an outpouching of pertitoneum that guides the testes down through the inguinal canal

A

The processus vaginalis is an outpouching of pertitoneum that guides the testes down through the inguinal canal

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12
Q

Testicular torsion is an error of the _

A

Testicular torsion is an error of the processus vaginalis
* Failure of the testes to attach to the inner lining of the scrotum

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13
Q

Testicular torsion is _

A

Testicular torsion is rotation of testicle around the spermatic cord
* Causes risk of testicular necrosis

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14
Q

Testicular torsion is most common in _ population

A

Testicular torsion is most common in males 12-18 yo +/ groin trauma
* Population is very active (sports, etc)
* Horizontally aligned testicles is a risk factor

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15
Q

Testicular torsion presents with acute and severe testicular pain with “high riding testicle” and absent _ relex

A

Testicular torsion presents with acute and severe testicular pain with “high riding testicle” and absent cremasteric reflex
* May also present with nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain

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16
Q

In neonates, we might expect to see _ in testicular torsion

A

In neonates, we might expect to see blue unilateral scrotal mass in testicular torsion

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17
Q

Testicular torsion pain is not relieved by manual elevation of the testicle; this is a negative _ sign

A

Testicular torsion pain is not relieved by manual elevation of the testicle; this is a negative Prehn sign

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18
Q

We can diagnose testicular torsion via _

A

We can diagnose testicular torsion via ultrasound with doppler showing absence of testicular blood flow

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19
Q

We manage testicular torsion with _

A

We manage testicular torsion with orchiopexy within 6 hours
* Manual detorsion if surgical intervention is not available

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20
Q

Spermatocele is an accumulation of _

A

Spermatocele is an accumulation of sperm

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21
Q

Spermatocele is caused by _

A

Spermatocele is caused by dilation of rete testis or epididymal ducts
* Sperm collects in these locations –> cyst formation

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22
Q

A spermatocele presents as a fluctuant (tender/non-tender) paratesticular nodule

A

A spermatocele presents as a fluctuant non-tender paratesticular nodule

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23
Q

A spermatocele will have a (positive/ negative) transillumination test

A

A spermatocele will have a positive transillumination test

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24
Q

Congenital hydrocele is an incomplete obliteration of the _

A

Congenital hydrocele is an incomplete obliteration of the processus vaginalis

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25
Q

Congenital hydrocele is a scrotal accumulation of _

A

Congenital hydrocele is a scrotal accumulation of peritoneal fluid

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26
Q

The most common cause of scrotal swelling in infants is _

A

The most common cause of scrotal swelling in infants is congenital hydrocele

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27
Q

Congenital hydrocele will have a (positive/negative) transillumination test

A

Congenital hydrocele will have a positive transillumination test

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28
Q

How is congenital hydrocele managed?

A

Congenital hydrocele will spontaneously resolve by age 1

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29
Q

Acquired hydrocele is a fluid accumulation in the scrotum often caused by _

A

Acquired hydrocele is a fluid accumulation in the scrotum often caused by infection, trauma, neoplastic activity

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30
Q

Varicocele is _

A

Varicocele is venous accumulation in the pampiniform plexus

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31
Q

Varicocele results from a distal blockage of the _

A

Varicocele results from a distal blockage of the testicular vein

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32
Q

The most common cause of scrotal enlargement in adult males is _

A

The most common cause of scrotal enlargement in adult males is varicocele

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33
Q

(Left/Right) sided varicocele is more common

A

Left-sided varicocele is more common; due to the left renal vein architecture

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34
Q

The pampiniform dilation seen in varicocele is often called _

A

The pampiniform dilation seen in varicocele is often called “bag of worms”
* It is larger with standing/valsalva

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35
Q

Varicocele will have (positive/negative) transillumination test

A

Varicocele will have negative transillumination test

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36
Q

We can diagnose varicocele via _ and manage it with _

A

We can diagnose varicocele via ultrasound showing pampiniform dilation and manage it with surgical ligation/embolization

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37
Q

Distortion of the penile architecture due to fibrous scar tissue following trauma is called _

A

Distortion of the penile architecture due to fibrous scar tissue following trauma is called peyronie’s disease

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38
Q

Peyronie’s disease involves fibrous scar tissue deposition in the _

A

Peyronie’s disease involves fibrous scar tissue deposition in the tunica albuginea

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39
Q

Peyronie’s disease is most often induced by _ (etiology)

A

Peyronie’s disease is most often induced by repeated trauma during intercourse

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40
Q

Peyronie’s disease often presents with _

A

Peyronie’s disease often presents with curved penis + erectile dysfunction (may or may not have pain)

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41
Q

Peyronie’s disease can be managed with _

A

Peyronie’s disease can be managed with collagenase injections or surgical repair

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42
Q

Prolonged erection resulting in penile ischemia is called _

A

Prolonged erection resulting in penile ischemia is called ischemic priapism

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43
Q

Explain the pathophysiology of ischemic priapism

A
  • Continuous erection > 4 hours
  • Mechanical obstruction of blood flow
  • Penile ischemia
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44
Q

_ disease can be a cause of ischemic priapism

A

Sickle cell disease can be a cause of ischemic priapism
* Sickled RBCs block venous drainage

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45
Q

Medications that can cause ischemic priapism disease include _

A

Medications that can cause ischemic priapism include sildenafil, trazodone

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46
Q

Ischemic priapism presents as _

A

Ischemic priapism presents as erection > 4 hours + pain

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47
Q

How do we manage ischemic priapism?

A
  • Corporal aspiration
  • Intracavernosal phenylephrine
  • Surgical decompression
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48
Q

Bowen disease is an in situ squamous cell carcinoma that involves _ precursor lesion

A

Bowen disease is an in situ squamous cell carcinoma that involves leukoplakia (white plaques) of penile shaft

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49
Q

Erythroplasia of Queyrat is an in situ squamous cell carcinoma that involves _ precursor lesion

A

Erythroplasia of Queyrat is an in situ squamous cell carcinoma that involves erythroplakia (red plaque) of the penile glans/ foreskin

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50
Q

Bowenoid papulosis is an in situ squamous cell carcinoma that involves _ precursor lesion

A

Bowenoid papulosis is an in situ squamous cell carcinoma that involves reddish papules throughout entire penis

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51
Q

Risk factors of squamous cell carcinoma of the penis include _ and _

A

Risk factors of squamous cell carcinoma of the penis include HPV infection and uncircumcised males

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52
Q

Benign prostatic hyperplasia is a hyperplasia of the _ and _ of the _ and _ lobes of the prostate

A

Benign prostatic hyperplasia is a hyperplasia of the stromal and epithelial cells of the middle and lateral lobes of the prostate

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53
Q

BPH is caused by high levels of _ (hormone)

A

BPH is caused by high levels of DHT

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54
Q

How does BPH present?

A
  • Urinary frequency
  • Dysuria
  • Difficulty with initation and termination of urination
  • Bladder distension, UTIs
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55
Q

Complications of BPH include:

A

Complications of BPH include:
* Hydronephrosis
* Bladder distension/hypertrophy
* UTIs
* Post-renal AKI

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56
Q

Hypospadias is an abnormal (ventral/dorsal) opening of the meatus

A

Hypospadias is an abnormal ventral opening of the meatus
* Meatus will more commonly be distal on the shaft/tip

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57
Q

Epispadias is an abnormal (ventral/dorsal) opening of the meatus

A

Epispadias is an abnormal dorsal opening of the meatus

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58
Q

Hypospadias is caused by failure of _

A

Hypospadias is caused by failure of the urethral folds to fuse

59
Q

Hypospadias can be associated with _ testicular pathology

A

Hypospadias can be associated with undecended testis

60
Q

Epispadias is caused by failure of _

A

Epispadias is caused by failure of genital tubercle to attain correct position

61
Q

(Epispadias/ Hypospadias) is associated with bladder exstrophy (urologic malformation where the bladder is open on lower abdomen)

A

Epispadias is associated with bladder exstrophy (urologic malformation where the bladder is open on lower abdomen)

62
Q

Peyronie’s disease involves fibrous plaque deposition in the _

A

Peyronie’s disease involves fibrous plaque deposition in the tunica albuginea
* Presents at the dorsal midline
* Often palpable mass

63
Q

Peyronie’s disease is associated with _ , abnormal thickening in the hand tissues resulting in contractures

A

Peyronie’s disease is associated with Dupuytren’s contracture , abnormal thickening in the hand tissues resulting in contractures

64
Q

Risk factors of peyronie’s disease includes _

A

Risk factors of peyronie’s disease includes:
* Penile trauma
* Diabetes
* Smoking

65
Q

Anterior urethral injuries involve the _ urethra to the _ urethra

A

Anterior urethral injuries involve the penile urethra to the bulbar urethra

66
Q

Perineal straddle injuries, MVCs, penetrating trauma, penile fractures are more commonly associated with (anterior/posterior) urethral injuries

A

Perineal straddle injuries, MVCs, penetrating trauma, penile fractures are more commonly associated with anterior injuries

67
Q

Pelvic fractures are more commonly associated with (anterior/posterior) urethral fractures

A

Pelvic fractures are more commonly associated with posterior urethral injuries

68
Q

The posterior urethra involves the _ urethra to the _ urethra

A

The posterior urethra involves the membranous urethra to the prostatic urethra

69
Q

Penile warts are also called _ and are most commonly caused by HPV

A

Penile warts are also called penile condyloma ; penile condyloma acuminatum are most commonly caused by HPV (mainly 6 and 11)

70
Q

Epithelial cells that are transformed by HPV are called _ on histology

A

Epithelial cells that are transformed by HPV are called koilocytes on histology

71
Q

“Large, dark, wrinkled, rasinoid nuclei”

A

“Large, dark, wrinkled, rasinoid nuclei” –> Koilocytes

72
Q

The most common cancer of the penis is _

A

The most common cancer of the penis is squamous cell carcinoma
* About 60% is HPV-dependent
* HPV 16, 18, 31, 33

73
Q

70% of males over age 60 have prostatic enlargement due to rapid replication of prostate cells, known as _

A

70% of males over age 60 have prostatic enlargement due to rapid replication of prostate cells, known as benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)

74
Q

BPH is most common in _ and _ zones

A

BPH is most common in transition zone and periurethral zone

75
Q

The prostatic growth in BPH is stimulated by _ hormone

A

The prostatic growth in BPH is stimulated by DHT

76
Q

Weak stream, intermittency, sense of incomplete emptying, straining are signs of (obstructive/irritative) issues of the bladder

A

Weak stream, intermittency, sense of incomplete emptying, straining are signs of obstructive issues of the bladder

77
Q

Frequency, urgency, urgency incontinence, and nocturia are signs of (obstructive/irritative) issues of the bladder

A

Frequency, urgency, urgency incontinence, and nocturia are signs of irritative issues of the bladder

78
Q

Complications of BPH:

A

Complications of BPH:
* Urinary retention
* Gross hematuria
* UTI
* AKI
* Bladder stones

79
Q

A normal prostate is _ grams, an enlarged prostate is _ grams or larger

A

A normal prostate is 20-25 grams, an enlarged prostate is 30 grams or larger

80
Q

What is PSA?

A

PSA stands for prostate-specific antigen which is a protein secreted by prostatic epithelial cells

81
Q

Terazosin, tamsulosin, and silodosin are _ drugs

A

Terazosin, tamsulosin, and silodosin are alpha1 blockers
* Can be used for BPH
* They relax smooth muscle at the prostate to relieve obstruction

82
Q

Finasteride and dutasteride are _ drugs

A

Finasteride and dutasteride are 5alpha-reductase inhibitors
* Inhibit enzyme that converts testosterone to DHT to reduce hyperplasia in the setting of BPH
* Can take 6-9 months to notice effect

83
Q

Side effects of “-osins”

A

Side effects of “-osins”
* Orthostatic hypotension
* Dizziness
* Headache
* Nasal congestion
* Ejaculatory dysfunction

84
Q

Side effects of “-erides” like finasteride

A

Side effects of “-erides” like finasteride
* Sexual dysfunction (reduced libido)
* Gynecomastia
* Depression

85
Q

One surgical approach to treating BPH is TURP which is _

A

One surgical approach to treating BPH is TURP which is transurethral resection of the prostate

86
Q

Prostatitis is _

A

Prostatitis is inflammation of the prostate gland, usually due to infection

87
Q

Prostate feels tender and “boggy” on digital rectal exam

A

Prostate feels tender and “boggy” on digital rectal exam: prostatitis

88
Q

Acute bacterial prostatitis is often caused by microbial infection by pathogens such as _

A

Acute bacterial prostatitis is often caused by microbial infection by pathogens such as E.coli, proteus, klebsiella
* Can result from prostate biopsy, catheterization

89
Q

Symptoms and complications of acute bacterial prostatitis:

A

Symptoms and complications of acute bacterial prostatitis:
* Fever, chills
* Dysuria, frequency, urgency
* Pelvic, rectal, perineal pain/tenderness
* Complications: urinary retention, prostatic abscess

90
Q

Diagnosis of acute bacterial prostatitis requires _ ; treatment involves _

A

Diagnosis of acute bacterial prostatitis requires urinalysis, urine culture; treatment involves fluoroquinolones or TMP-SMX
* Prostatic secretions show WBCs
* Culture reveals bacteria

91
Q

Chronic colonization of the prostate gland (ie E.coli) can lead to _

A

Chronic colonization of the prostate gland (ie E.coli) can lead to chronic bacterial prostatitis
* Presents as dysuria with pelvic or low back pain

92
Q

Risk factors for chronic bacterial prostatitis

A

Risk factors for chronic bacterial prostatitis:
* Cystitis
* Epididymitis
* Catheter placement
* Anal intercourse

93
Q

Prostate cancer is the most common cancer in males in the US and the _ most common cause of cancer death

A

Prostate cancer is the most common cancer in males in the US and the second mcc of cancer death

94
Q

The most common type of prostate cancer is _

A

The most common type of prostate cancer is prostatic adenocarcinoma

95
Q

Risk factors for prostate cancer

A

Risk factors for prostate cancer:
* Age
* African American
* Family history
* Genetic factors (BRCA2)

96
Q

Prostate cancer most often originates from the _ zone

A

Prostate cancer most often originates from the posterior peripheral zone, around the apex of the prostate

97
Q

How does prostate cancer usually present?

A

Prostate cancer:
* Often asymptomatic
* Irregular nodularity on DRE
* Elevated PSA

98
Q

Prostate cancer can be characterized by loss of _ on histology

A

Prostate cancer can be characterized by loss of basal cell layer on histology

99
Q

Lymphogranuloma venereum is _

A

Lymphogranuloma venereum is necrotizing granulomatous inflammation of the inguinal lymphatics and lymph nodes
* Heals with fibrosis –> rectal strictures

100
Q

Lymphogranuloma venereum is a sexually transmitted disease caused by _

A

Lymphogranuloma venereum is a sexually transmitted disease caused by Chlamydia trachomatis
* Caused by serotypes L1-L3

101
Q

Orchitis is _

A

Orchitis is inflammation of the testicle

102
Q

Name (4) common causes of orchitis

A

Name (4) common causes of orchitis:
1. Chlamydia trachomatis (young adults)
2. E.coli and Pseudomonas (UTI that travels)
3. Mumps (teenagers)
4. Autoimmune (granulomas in seminiferous tubules)

103
Q

Left sided renal cell carcinoma invading the renal vein puts a male at risk of _

A

Left sided renal cell carcinoma invading the renal vein puts a male at risk of varicocele

104
Q

Two categories of testicular tumors include _ and _

A

Two categories of testicular tumors include germ cells and sex cord-stroma

105
Q

Testicular tumors will be (positive/negative) on transillumination test

A

Testicular tumors will be negative on transillumination test

106
Q

(True/False) testicular tumors must be biopsied for diagnosis

A

False; we do not biopsy testicular tumors for risk of seeding the scrotum
* We just remove the testis with radical orchiectomy
* Most testicular tumors are malignant germ cell tumors

107
Q

95% of testicular tumors are _ tumors

A

95% of testicular tumors are germ cell tumors
* Usually occur between 15-40

108
Q

(Seminomas/ Nonseminomas) respond better to radiotherapy, metastasize later, and have a better prognosis

A

Seminomas respond better to radiotherapy, metastasize later, and have a better prognosis
* About 55% are seminomas, 45% are nonseminomas

109
Q

Seminomas resemble ovarian dysgerminomas, the tumor is comprised of cells with _

A

Seminomas resemble ovarian dysgerminomas, the tumor is comprised of large cells with clear cytoplasm + central nuclei
* Resemble spermatogonia

110
Q

(Seminomas/nonseminomas) form homogenous masses with no hemorrhage or necrosis

A

Seminomas form homogenous masses with no hemorrhage or necrosis

111
Q

_ is a malignant tumor of the testis comprised of immature, primitive cells that may produce glands; forming hemorrhagic mass with necrosis

A

Embryonal carcinoma is a malignant tumor of the testis comprised of immature, primitive cells that may produce glands; forming hemorrhagic mass with necrosis

112
Q

If embryonal carcinoma is treated with chemotherapy there may be _

A

If embryonal carcinoma is treated with chemotherapy there may be differentiation into another type of germ cell tumor (teratoma)

113
Q

The most common testicular tumor in children is the _ tumor

A

The most common testicular tumor in children (< 3) is the yolk sac tumor

114
Q

Teratomas are (malignant/benign) in males

A

Teratomas are malignant in males (as opposed to females)

115
Q

Types of nonseminomous tumors:

A

Types of nonseminomous tumors:
* Embryonal carcinoma
* Yolk sac
* Choriocarcinoma
* Teratoma
* Mixed germ cell

116
Q

Leydig cell tumors cause _ in male children and _ in male adults

A

Leydig cell tumors cause precocious puberty in male children and gynecomastia in male adults
* Leydig cells produce excess androgen

117
Q

Sertoli cell tumor is comprised of _ and usually has _ effect on males

A

Sertoli cell tumor is comprised of tubules and usually clinically silent in males

118
Q

The most common cause of testicular mass in males > 60 years old is _

A

The most common cause of testicular mass in males > 60 years old is lymphoma
* Typically diffuse large B-cell
* Often bilateral

119
Q

PSA > _ is worrisome at any age

A

PSA > 10 is worrisome at any age

120
Q

Decreased percent of free-PSA is indicative of _

A

Decreased percent of free-PSA is indicative of cancer
* Cancer makes bound PSA

121
Q

Prostate cancer commonly spreads to the _ or _

A

Prostate cancer commonly spreads to the lumbar spine or pelvis
* Can present with low back pain

122
Q

We expect _ bacteria on UA and culture for chronic prostatitis cases

A

We expect no bacteria on UA and culture for chronic prostatitis cases
* We have inflammation of the prostate without infection
* Due to normal flora, trauma, or autoimmune conditions

123
Q

Three main types of urinary incontinence:

A

Three main types of urinary incontinence:

124
Q

Overflow incontinence is a neurologic dysfunction of _

A

Overflow incontinence is a neurologic dysfunction of detrusor underactivity

125
Q

Overflow incontinence is often caused by _

A

Overflow incontinence is often caused by obstruction, stricture
* Can be diagnosed ivia bladder US or bladder scan

126
Q

Sress incontinence is due to _

A

Sress incontinence is due to weak outlet
* Common in individuals with a weak pelvic floor (vaginal deliveries, prostate surgery)

127
Q

Leakage with increased abdominal pressure describes _ incontinence

A

Leakage with increased abdominal pressure describes stress incontinence
* Coughing, laughing, standing up

128
Q

Urge incontinence is an issue of _

A

Urge incontinence is an issue of bladder overactivity
* The leakage is preceded by sense of urgency

129
Q

The most common type of cancer arising in the bladder is _

A

The most common type of cancer arising in the bladder is urothelial carcinoma
* Can also have squamous cell carcinoma and adenocarcinoma of the bladder

130
Q

The classic presentation of urothelial carcinoma is _

A

The classic presentation of urothelial carcinoma is painless hematuria

131
Q

Urothelial carcinoma arises via two distinct pathways _ or _

A

Urothelial carcinoma arises via two distinct pathways flat or papillary

132
Q

(Flat/papillary) urothelial carcinomas will develop as high-grade tumors that invade

A

Flat urothelial carcinomas will develop as high-grade tumors that invade

133
Q

Flat urothelial carcinoma is aggressive and associated with early _ mutations

A

Flat urothelial carcinoma is aggressive and associated with early p53 mutations

134
Q

Urothelial carcinoma is strongly associated with environmental carcinogen exposure such as:

A

Urothelial carcinoma is strongly associated with environmental carcinogen exposure such as:
* Smoking
* Aromatic amines (dyes)
* Cyclophosphamide

135
Q

Bladder cancer diagnosis (or work up for hematuria) includes _ imaging

A

Bladder cancer diagnosis (or work up for hematuria) includes cytoscopy

136
Q

Invasive urothelial carcinoma invades into the _ into deeper layers like _

A

Invasive urothelial carcinoma invades into the basement membrane into deeper layers like submucosa, muscularis propria

137
Q

Most papillary urothelial carcinomas are _

A

Most papillary urothelial carcinomas are indolent (low grade)

138
Q

_ and _ are two risk factors for testicular cancer

A

Cryptorchidism and Klinefelter are two risk factors for testicular cancer

139
Q
A

Seminoma:
* Sheets of malignant germ cells with clear cytoplasm giving “fried egg” appearance

140
Q

_ is a germ cell tumor in males that is associated with high placental alkaline phosphatase (ALP) levels

A

Seminoma is a germ cell tumor in males that is associated with high placental alkaline phosphatase (ALP) levels

141
Q

_ contain disordered syncytiotrophoblasts and cytotrophoblastic elements and metastasis to the _ and _

A

Choriocarcinomas contain disordered syncytiotrophoblasts and cytotrophoblastic elements and metastasis to the lungs and brain

142
Q

_ is associated with an increased fraction of free PSA

A

BPH is associated with an increased fraction of free PSA
* Prostate adenocarcinoma will have low fraction free PSA

143
Q

BPH/ prostate adenocarcinoma may cause a post-renal AKI with labs:

A

BPH/ prostate adenocarcinoma may cause a post-renal AKI with labs:
High BUN
High Cr
BUN/Cr < 20

144
Q

Embryonal carcinoma ‘cell markers’

A

AFP and hCG