Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Pathology > Male Genital And LUTS > Flashcards

Male Genital And LUTS Flashcards

1
Q

Abnormal opening of urethra on ventral aspect of penis along shaft

A

Hypospadia

Sometimes constricted -> UTI

Assoc with hernia and undescended testis sometimes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Abnormal urethral orifice on dorsal aspect of penis

A

Epispadia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Inflammation of glans penis

A

Balanitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Inflammation of prepuce

A

Balanopthitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Agents causing balanopthitis and balanitis

A

Candida

Anaerobic: Gardnerella, pyogenic bateria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Rf for balanitis/balanopthitis

A

Poor hygiene
Uncircumcision
Smegma accumulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Prepuce cannot be retracted easily over glans penis

Congenital anomaly or scarring

A

Phimosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Pelves, ureter, bladder and urethra lining

A

urothelium

Lamina propria
Muscularis propria (detrussor muscle)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Most common Congenital disorder resulting in hydronephrosis

A

Ureteropelvicjunction obstruction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Uncommon cause of ureteral narrowing or obstruction by fibrous proliferative inflammatory processes encasing retroperitoneal structures causing hydronephrosis

A

Retroperitoneal fibrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Primary malignant tumors of ureter, renal pelvis, calyx, bladder are mostly

A

urothelial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Elevations associated with fibroinflammatory lesions

A

IgG4

Other rf of retroperitoneal fibrosis:
Ergot derivative
Adrenergic blocker
Lymphoma, urinary tract carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Idiopathic retroperitoneal fibrosis

A

Ormond disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Arise from persistent urethral obstruction (bph) resulting in pouchlike evagination of bladder wall

A

Diverticulum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Common agents causing bacterial cystitis

A

Coliform bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Hemorrhagic cystitis arise from (2)

A

cyclophosphamide (cytotoxic) use

adenovirus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Chronic pelvic pain syndrome
Persistent painful occuring in women
Intermittent, suprapubic pain, urinary freq, urgency, hematuria, dysuria,
fissures and punctate hemorrhage (glomerulation) in bladder

A

Interstitial cystitis

Later may develop into transmural fibrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Phagocytic and degradative function of macrophage overloaded with bacterial product
Laminated calcium deposition in lysosomes known as

A

Malakoplakia

Michaelis-Gutmann bodies within mac

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Inflammation from irritation to mucosa where urothelium is thrown to bulbous polypoid projections from submucosal edema
May be confused with papillary urothelial ca

A

Polypoid cystitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Metaplastic downward growth of urothelium into lamina propria with central epithelial cells diff into cuboidal or columnar lining cystitis glandularis

A

Brunn Nests

cystic spaces may be filled with clear fluid (cystitis cystica); goblet cells like intestinal mucosa (colonic metaplasia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

In response to injury bladder urothelium results to

A

squamous metaplasia (differentiate from glycogenated squamous epithelium)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

More common in countries where schistosomiasis is endemic

A

3-7% SCC of bladder

extensive keratinization
chronic bladder irritation; infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Urothelial ca rf (3)

A

smoking
occupational carcinogen
Schistosoma haematobium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Bladder carcinogenesis is initiated by

A

deletion of tumor-supressor gene on 9p and 9q leading to superficial papillary tumor
acquiring TP53 mutation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Genetic alterations in bladder ca:

A

FGFR3 mutation activating Ras oncogene

Loss of function mutation TP53 and RB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

2 precursor lesions of bladder ca

A

Noninvasive papillary tumor (most c)

carcinoma-in-situ

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Noninvasive papillary urothelial neoplasm range of atypia and grade:

A

1 papilloma
2 papillary urothelial neoplasm of low malig potential (PUNLMP)
3 low grade papillary urothelial carcinoma
4 high grade papillary urothelial carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Benign

Not associated with inc risk for subsequent carcinoma

A

Inverted urothelial papilloma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Cytologically malignant cells with flat urothelium
Behaves like high grade papillary urothelial ca
Sheds malignant cells into urine

A

CIS

Detected by cytology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

50-70% of CIS cases progress to

A

Muscle invasive cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

CIS or highgrade papillary invading lamina propria extending to muscle

A

Invasive urothelial cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Most important prognostic factor in urothelial carcinoma

A

Extent of invasion and spread (staging) at time of initial diagnosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Most common presentation of bladder CA

A

painless hematuria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Recurrece is high in urothelial ca bec

A

Of tendency to develop new tumors whatever grade with recurrence exhibiting higher grade at different sites from original lesion

Shedding and implantation of original tumor cells at new sites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Risk factor for tumor recurrence

A 
Tumor size
Stage
Grade
Multifocality
Mitotic index
Dysplasia/cis surrounding mucosa
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Small localized papillary tumors not high grade tx

A

transurethral resection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Tumors at high risk for recurrence and progression tx

A

Immunotherapy of intravesicular installation of TB strain BCG Bacille Calmette-Guerin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

BCG may be effective in high risk bladder CA bec

A

BCG elicits granulomatous reaction triggering effective local antitumor response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

HGUC

recurrence:
coexistent invasion:

A

45%

80%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Radical cystectomy is reserved for (3)

A

1 muscularis propria invasion
2 CIS/Highgrade papillary CA refractory to BCG
3 CIS extending to prostatic urethra and duct not reached by BCG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Chronic venereal infection by spirochete T pallidum

A

Syphilis
Lues
Great Pox

African America 30x > Whites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Syphilis is transmitted via

and disseminates through

A

contact with cutaneous or mucosal lesion in sexual partner in early or primary and secondary stages in skin break
Vertical (placental)

Lymphatics and blood widespread

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Primary syphilitic lesion appearing a mean 21 days postinfection or anytime bet 9-90 days at point of entry
Indurated hard with clean moist base

A

Chancre

Resolves over 4-6weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Systemic dissemination of treponema continues mounting immune response in the form of 2 antibodies:

A 
1 nontreponemal (antibodies cross-reacting with host constituents)
2 antibodies to specific treponemal antigen

Both failing to eradicate organism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

In 25% of untreated syphilis, chancre is followed by

A

Secondary syphilis

Generalized LN, mucocutaneous lesions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Mucocutaneous lesions of primary and secondary syphilis are

A

teeming with spirochetes and are highly infectious

Resolve spontaneously
Early latent phase syphilis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Parenchymal damage in tertiary syphilis

Irregular, firm, mass of necrotic tissue surrounded by CT with mixed inflamm infiltrate

A

Gumma

48
Q

Generalized LN enlargement and mucocutaneous lesions symmetrically distributed
Maculopapular, scaly, pustular
Involvement of palms and soles is common

A

Secondary syphilis

49
Q

Lesion of secondary syphilis appearing in anogenital, inner thigh, axilla
Broad based, elevated, superficial mucosal

A

Condyloma lata

50
Q

Histologic exam of secondary syphilis lesions

A

Proliferative endarteritis
Lymphoplasmacytic inflammatory infiltrate
Spirochete abdundant

Other manif: hepatitis, renal disease, iritis, GI

51
Q

Major complications of tertiary syphilis

A

1 cardiovascular
2 neurosyphilis
3 benign tertiary

52
Q

Cardiovascular syphilis manifestation

A

Syphilitic aortitis 80%

53
Q

Occurs in those with concomittant HIV infection

A

Neurosyphilis 10%

54
Q

Gummas in various sites (bone, skin, mucous membrane of URT) due to delayed hypersensitivity

A

Benign tertiary

55
Q

Syphilis tx

A

Penicillin

56
Q

Greatest during primary and secondary stage when spirochetes are numerous any time during pregnancy

A

Congenital syphilis vertical transmission

57
Q

Congenital syphilis manifestation (3)

A

Stillbirth
Infantile
Late/Tardive

58
Q

Syphilis manifestation in infants (4)

A

1 hepatomegaly
2 bone abnormalities
3 pancreatic fibrosis
4 pneumonitis (pneumonia alba alveolar fibrosis)

59
Q

Stigmata of congenital syphilis develops at

In absence of tx,

A

4th month

40% of babies die in utero after 4th month

60
Q

Congenital syphilis in liveborn within first few months of life
Presents with chronic rhinits (snuffles) and mucocutaneous lesions like in secondary syphilis

A

Infantile syphilis

61
Q

Untreated congenital syphilis of more than 2 yrs

A

Late or Tardive

62
Q

Hutchinson triad of Tardive Congenital Syphilis

A

1 notched central incisor
2 interstitial keratitis with blindness
3 deafness from cranial nerve injury

63
Q

deformity by chronic inflammation of tibial periosteum:

deformed molar teeth:

A

saber-shin deformity

mulberry molars

Other sx: meningitis, chorioretinitis, gummas of nasal bone and cartilage (saddlenose)

64
Q

Mainstay of diagnosis in syphilis

A

Serology

65
Q

Nontreponemal tests (2)

A

RPR

VDRL

66
Q

Non treponemal tests RPR and VDRL measure antibody against

A

Cardiolipin

present in host tissue and treponemal cell wall

67
Q

Nontreponemal antibody tests are positive during

stage

A

4-6w infection and strongly positive in secondary stage

But appear negative during tertiary phase or positive after successful treatment

68
Q

In presence of primary chance the only way to confirm is:

A

Direct visualization of spirochete by darkfield or immunoflorescence

bec nontreponemal antibody tests are often negative in early stage

69
Q

False positive VDRL results occur in

A

15% usually from a variety of conditions like APAS

70
Q

Give strongly positive results in virtually all cases of secondary syphilis and even after successful treatment

A

Treponemal antibody test
Confirmatory

Not used to screen bec 2% have false positive rate and remain positive after treatment

71
Q

Central area of necrosis surrounded by lymphoplasmacytic infiltrate and epitheloid cell

A

Gumma

72
Q

STI by Neisseria gonorrhoeae

Spread by direct contact with mucosa of infected person

A

Gonorrhea

73
Q

Pili of N gonorrhoeae has affinity for

A

Columnar and transition epithelium

74
Q

Pilli attachment of gonorrhea

A

Prevents the organism from being unceremoniously flushed away by urine

75
Q

Intense suppurative inflammation
Purulent urethral discharge
Gram neg diplo within cytoplasm of neutrophils
Acute prostatitis, epididymitis, orchitis
In females, acute salpingitis, PID

A

Gonorrhea

76
Q

Gonococcal infections may be transmitted to infants developing

A

purulent infection of eyes (opthalmia neonatorum)

77
Q

More sensitive and rapid for gonorrhea testing

A

NAAT

Culture for antibiotic sens

78
Q

Most common bacterial cause of STD

A

Chlamydia trachomatis
frequently accompanies gonorrheal infection

Next most common nonGU U. urealyticum

79
Q

Infectious form of C trachomatis

Limited survival in extracellular environment

A

Elementary body

80
Q

In the host cell, once taken up via receptor mediated endocytosis elementary body becomes

A

reticulate body

81
Q

Chlamydia trachomatis has preference for

A

columnar epithelial cell

82
Q

Chlamydia trachomatis NGU is diagnosed by

A

Nucleic acid amplification test on voided urine

83
Q

Chlamydial infection may manifest as

A

reactive arthritis

Reiter syndrome

84
Q

Reiter syndrome is common in patients positive fr

A

HLAB27

85
Q

Reiter syndrome (4)

A

Urethritis
Conjunctivitis
Arthritis
Generalized mucocutaneous lesions

86
Q

Chronic ulcerative disease by C trachomatis
Rf: multiple sexual partner
Nonspecific urethritis, papular or ulcerative lesion of lower genitalia, tender inguinal LN unilateral with proctocolitis

A

Lymphogranuloma venereum

87
Q

Mixed granulomatous and neutrophilic inflamm response
Variable chlamydial inclusion
Irregularly shaped foci of necrosis and neutrophilic infiltration (stellate abscess)
Lymphedema
Rectal stricture in women

A

LGV

88
Q

LGV dx in active lesion

A

Organism in Biopsy or smear of exudate

89
Q

LGV dx chronic

A

antibodies

NAAT

90
Q

Third venereal disease from H ducreyi

Cofactor in HIV

A

Chancroid (soft chancre)

91
Q

Painful erythematous papule 4-7 days post inoculation
Errodes into multiple irregular ulcers
Shaggy yellow gray exudate base
Enlarged inguinal LN (buboes)
Neutrophilic debris and fibrin with granulation of necrosis and vessel thrombosis

A

Chancroid

92
Q

Chancroid dx

A

Identification of organism on culture

93
Q

Chronic inflammatory disease by Calymmatobacterium granulomatis
Rf: multiple sexual partners

A

Granuloma inguinale

94
Q

Raised papular lesion of moist, stratified squamous epithelium
Ulceration, granulation, soft, painless mass with raised indurated border
No regional lymphnode involvement
Pseudoepitheliomatous hyperplasia

A

Granuloma inguinale

95
Q

Pathognomonic of granuloma inguinale

A

Donovan bodies

Coccobacilli within vacuoles in mac

96
Q

urethritis, ulcerative genital lesions, lymphadenopathy and rectal involvement
lymphedema

A

LGV

97
Q

Painful ulcerative infection, chancroid

Inguinal node involvement

A

Chancroid

98
Q

Chronic fibrosing STD with initial papular lesion on genitalia expanding and ulcerating
Granulation tissue and epithelial hyperplasia mimicking SCC

A

Granuloma inguinale

99
Q

Vaginitis caused by protozoan

A

Trichimoniasis

100
Q

Form of t vaginalis that adheres at mucosa

A

trophozoite

101
Q

Pruritis
Profuse, frothy, yellow vaginal discharge
Colonization cause urinary frequency and dysuria

Dx

A

Trichomoniasis

Smear

102
Q

Anogenital herpes cause

A

HSV 2

in recent years, it may also be caused by 1

103
Q

Painful erythematous vesicles on mucosa
Intraepithelial vesicle with necrotic debris, neutrophil
Cowdry type A

A

Genital herpes simplex

104
Q

Recurrence is more common in 1 or 2

A

HSV1

105
Q

Neonatal herpes 2nd wk of life (4)

A

Rash
Encephalitis
Pneumonitis
Hepatic necrosis

106
Q

Herpes dx

A

Viral culture

107
Q

Condyloma acuminatum caused by

A

HPV 6 and 11

108
Q

Condyloma acuminata occurs in males on

A

Coronal sulcus
Inner surface of prepuce

Females seen vulva

109
Q

Painful erythematous intraepithelial vesicle on mucosa and skin of external genitalia with regional LN enlargement

A

Primary HSV lesion

110
Q

Necrotic cells and multinucleate giant cell with intranuclear inclusion

A

Cowdry type A

111
Q

Neonatal herpes complication

A

Encephalitis

112
Q

HPV in males cause

in females

A

Penile cancer

Cervical dysplasia and cancer
Vulvar cancer

113
Q

Ureaplasma urealyticum in males cause

A

Urethritis

114
Q

Ureaplasma urealyticum in females cause

A

Cervicitis

115
Q

T vaginalis in males cause

In females cause

A

Urethritis, balanitis

Vaginitis

Pathology (24 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions