Male/Female Repro Flashcards

1
Q

When are teat injuries most commonly seen?

A

w/in one month of calving

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2
Q

What is the major arterial supply to the udder?

A

External pudendal a.

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3
Q

Where is the elastic vs. fibrous udder support located?

A

Elastic=middle

Fibrous=lateral

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4
Q

What is the primary venous drainage from the udder?

A

External pudendal vein

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5
Q

Atresia in what quarter of the cistern has the best surgical prognosis?

A

Dorsal quarter

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6
Q

When do teat fistulas most likely occur?

A

After teat laceration when the milk tight seal is not obtained

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7
Q

What causes closure of teat cistern mucosa?

A

Polyglycolic acid

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8
Q

When should you treat stenotic teat sphincters to ensure patency?

A

Before morning milking

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9
Q

What are post-op recommendations for a tight teat sphincter?

A

Milk every 15 minutes for 2 hours and then every 2 hours

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10
Q

What are teat spiders?

A

Result of previous trauma to wall of teat

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11
Q

T/F: You should choose the largest fenestrated tube after removing mass of scar tissue

A

True

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12
Q

Where is the circumferential vascular plexus?

A

At the base of the teat

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13
Q

Rupture of the mucous membranes at the rosette of Furstenberg can be detected by what?

A

Ultrasound or double contrast radiographs

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14
Q

What are supernumerary teats?

A

Extra teats, typically smaller, cranial or caudal to existing teat

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15
Q

How are supernumerary teats removed?

A

Pincer/Burdizzo emasculatome & close with simple interrupted suture

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16
Q

What are teat obstructions treated with?

A

Thelotomy

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17
Q

Which teat lacerations have better prognosis?

A

Vertical cuts

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18
Q

By what percentage does the risk of mastitis increase by when a teat laceration is present?

A

50%

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19
Q

What is a slow (hard) milker?

A

Protrusions are inside the teat lumen making flow difficult

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20
Q

What are the three types of episioplasty surgeries?

A

Caslick’s procedure (vulvoplasty)
Perineal body reconstruction
Perineal body transection

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21
Q

What is the common treatment of pneumovagina?

A

Caslick’s procedure

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22
Q

How is a caslick’s surgery done?

A

Remove 3 mm of tissue from upper 1/3 of vulva with scissors, suture them closed with vertical mattress
REMOVE SUTURE PRIOR TO FOALING

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23
Q

What episiplasty procedure should be done if there is an ineffective vulvar & vestibular seal or rectovestibular injury?

A

Perineal body reconstruction

24
Q

Where is the incision made for a perineal body reconstruction?

A

Mucocutaneous junction of labium

25
Which episoplasty is indicated with forward sloping of vulva and no decrease in vulvar & vestibular openings?
Perineal body transection
26
Vesicovaginal reflux or urine pooling are due to what issues?
Pneumovagina Ectopic ureter Excessive closure of Caslick's
27
What are CS of urovagina?
Vaginitis Cervicitis Endometritis Decreased conception
28
What are the two tx options for urovagina?
Caudal relocation of transverse fold (vaginoplasty) | Caudal urethral extension (urethroplasty)
29
What are the four urethroplasty techniques?
Brown McKinnon Shires Monin
30
What are some common causes of perineal lacerations?
First time foaling, fetal malposition & nose or foot catches vulvovaginal fold
31
Which degree of perineal laceration requires surgery?
Third degree | Debridement, tetanus prophylaxis, allow granulation tissue to form
32
What is the method of perineal laceration repair that is 2 stages and makes a new opening into the vestibule and then re-creates a new floor of rectum a few weeks later?
Aanes method
33
What is the method of third degree perineal laceration that is a 1 stge repair?
Goetze/vaughn method
34
This is due to a laceration of dorsal vestibula into rectum without disruption of perineal body or anal sphincter
Rectovestibular fistula
35
What type of suture pattern is used when repairing a rectovestibular fistula?
Continuous suture pattern-distributes tension evenly
36
What are indications for a unilateral ovariectomy?
Removal for granulosa cell tumor | Ovarian abscess
37
What are indications for a bilateral ovariectomy?
Eliminate estrous or nymphomania
38
What is the instrument used for equine ovariectomy?
Ecraseur- used to grasp the ovary
39
What are complications of ovriectomy?
Dehiscence, pain, colitis, laminitis
40
When is a C-section indicated?
Dystocia | Ventral midline approach
41
What procedure is performed for removal of neoplasms, granulomas, scar tissue, chronic thickening or for penile paralysis?
Segmental posthectomy
42
What is a penile amputation called?
Phallectomy
43
How long before you perform a phallectomy should you castrate?
3-4 weeks before
44
Match the phallectomy techniques: 1. Tip towards tip of penis 2. Base towards tip of penis 3. urethra covers like umbrella 4. new opening created a. Scott's technique b. En bloc technique c. William's technique d. Vinot's technique
1. D- vinot's technique 2. C- william's technique 3. A- Scott's technique 4. D- En bloc technique
45
What is the procedure performed to retract paralyzed penis into prepuce?
Phallopexy | Bolz' technique
46
Where is the incision for a phallopexy made?
Incision made caudal to scrotum
47
T/F: Post phallopexy, heavy exercise should be performed to build up scar tissue and hold penis in place
TRUE
48
What temperature needs to be applied to tumors for hyperthermic therapy to be successful?
45 minutes in 45 degree Celsius- tissue will begin to slough
49
What should you avoid cutting through when repairing a scrotal hernia?
Vaginal tunic
50
What is used to treat SCC?
5-FU ointment
51
What is the most useful dx test used for urolithiasis?
Endoscopy
52
Preferred sx approach to urethral lumen in males?
Ventral midline
53
Preferred sx approach for removal of proximal urethral calculi in males?
Perineal urethrotomy
54
What muscle is not incised in a perineal urethrostomy?
Corpus cavernosum
55
What is the treatment used for large cystic calculus?
Laparocystotomy
56
What are routes of removal of cystic calculi?
Laparocystotomy Manual removal through urethra Sphincterotomy