Long bone fractures/head and neck fractures Flashcards

1
Q

What is the difference of fracture repair in domestic animals vs. large animals?

A

Large animals must be ambulatory & fully weight-bearing immediately post-op

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2
Q

What are the challenges of fracture fixation in equine?

A

Large plates make skin closure difficult
Implant failure (excessive movement)
Post-op lameness (contralateral limb laminitis)

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3
Q

How many Salter Harris fracture types are there and what are they?

A

Five

1: through the physis (S-straight)
2: through metaphysis (A-above)
3: through epiphysis (L-Lower)
4: through all (T-through)
5: compression (ER-CRush)

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4
Q

What causes the prognosis to decrease when dealing with Salter Harris fractures?

A

Articular involvement

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5
Q

What is a common fracture in young racehorses?

A

Lateral condylar fractures (vertical fractures of distal cannon bone)

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6
Q

Where are the condylar fractures commonly found in thoroughbreds vs. standard bred horses?

A

TB: Forelimb
SB: equally found on fore/hindlimb

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7
Q

What is the typical series of events leading to a condylar fracture?

A

High compressive load –> sclerosis –> microtrauma –> fracture

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8
Q

What type of condylar fractures have the best prognosis?

A

Non-displaced incomplete fracture

Hx of lameness with acute exacerbation

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9
Q

What signs are noticed with acute displaced fractures?

A

Pain on palpation
Joint effusion
Severe lameness after intense exercise

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10
Q

What radiographic view highlights palmar aspect of bone to fully evaluate the joint?

A

Tangential view

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11
Q

What is the sx treatment for a condylar fracture?

A

Internal fixation with transcortical lag screws

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12
Q

How many screws are needed in the internal fixation of a condylar fracture?

A

2 screws

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13
Q

What is the most common long bone fracture in horses?

A

Cannon bone diaphyseal fractures

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14
Q

What is the prognosis dependent upon for cannon bone diaphyseal fractures?

A

First aid in the field and external coaptation

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15
Q

What is the tx for cannon bone diaphyseal fractures?

A

Double plate fixation

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16
Q

What side are the plates placed on for cannon bone fractures?

A

Tension side, 90 degrees from each other

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17
Q

Why are plates offset when treating cannon bone diaphyseal fractures?

A

To reduce the fulcrum effect

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18
Q

What is the maximum amount of compression that is used when using plate holes?

A

4mm compression

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19
Q

What are the four functions of plates and which of these functions is not applied to LA?

A
  1. Compression
  2. Neutralization
  3. Tension band
  4. Buttress- not for LA (not strong enough)
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20
Q

What are two advantages of limited contact-dynamic compression plate?

A

Continuity of bending stiffness

Improved blood supply under plate (can place at 40 degree angle)

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21
Q

Which orthopedic plate is specifically made for equine?

A

Locking compression plate

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22
Q

What are ulnar fractures caused by?

A

Direct trauma

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23
Q

What muscle attaches to the olecranon?

A

Triceps m.

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24
Q

What is the characteristic sign of ulnar fractures?

A

Dropped elbow and carpus in flexion

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25
What is disrupted during an ulnar fracture?
Stay apparatus disrupted | Important to splint the carpus in extension before transport so they are weight bearing
26
Where is the splint for transport applied with ulnar fractures?
Palmar splint from fetlock to elbow | **exclusion of the joint above/below rule
27
What do young patients have present that can be confused with an olecranon fracture?
Apophysis
28
What is the tx of choice for ulnar fractures?
Open reduction & Internal fixation using tension band principle
29
Where is the ORIF plate applied in ulnar fractures?
Caudal ulna
30
What is the difference in treatment for patients +/- 250 kg?
> 250 kg: plate required | < 250 kg: tension band wire/cable fixation or hook plates
31
If the horse is not done growing, what should you make sure is not involved in the plate?
Don't involve the radius, can lead to elbow subluxation | *Adult horses you can place distal screws in caudal cortex of radius for more rigid fixation
32
What are the four ddx for ulnar fractures?
Humeral fracture Radial n. paralysis Olecranon fracture Neuro dz (rare)
33
What are femoral physeal fractures caused by?
Dystocia or group housed juvenile cattle mounting each other
34
What is the tx for femoral physeal fractures?
Stall rest & ORIF w/ pins/screws | Foals: dynamic hip screw system
35
What are the tx for tibial fractures in calves vs. foals?
Calves: Thomas Schroeder splint/cast Foal: plate & screw fixation w/ tension band wiring (cancellous screws)
36
How are radial fractures treated?
Double plate fixation
37
What is the minimum amount of pins needed per fragment?
2 pins per fragment | 3-5 in heavier animals
38
When can pins be removed post application?
6-8 weeks then additional stall rest for 2 more weeks
39
What is the difference in type 2 vs. type 3 pin placement?
Type 2: lateral --> medial | Type 3: cranial --> caudal
40
What is bone cement called?
PMMA (plate luting)- creates 100% bone-plate contact increasing strength of repair
41
T/F: You can attempt stall rest for a patient with a femoral fracture
FALSE- this is inappropriate tx for femoral fractures | Leads to severe fragment displacement
42
What is the tx of a femoral fracture for a neonatal calf?
stack pinning & cerclage wire
43
What is the tx of a femoral fracture for young ruminants?
IM pins & cerclage wire w/ active drain | No plates/screws in ruminants <4 mo. because cortical bone is thin/soft
44
What is the tx of a femoral fracture for older/heavier calf?
Stack pinning & type 1 external fixator
45
What is the tx of a femoral fracture for foals?
Double plate application
46
What is the tx of a femoral fracture for adult large animals?
double plate application
47
What type of force do IM pins protect against?
Bending (not axial/compressive) | Slow return to weight bearing
48
T/F: Avulsion fractures of incisors, mandible or premaxilla are common?
TRUE
49
T/F: mandibula region has great vascular supply
TRUE | good functional and cosmetic prognosis
50
T/F: You can remove loose teeth upon discovery of fracture
FALSE-wait for them to declare themselves
51
T/F: No diet modification needed for incisor fractures
TRUE
52
What do you need to watch for when treating a mandibular fracture
Buccal branches of facial n. with maxillary wiring
53
What are the compression surfaces of the mandible?
Ventral/lateral surface
54
What are head/neck fractures caused by?
Trauma
55
What drug should be avoided when a patient has head trauma and increased intracranial pressure?
Ketamine
56
What procedure should be performed if the patient is unable to breathe?
Tracheostomy - Midline of upper 1/3 of neck - Blunt dissection of sternothyrohyoid m. - Remove tracheal ring - Place tube
57
What are problems associated with calvaria fractures?
Subdural hemorrhage and hyphema
58
What is a common head fracture from young horses being halter trained?
Basilar fracture
59
What is a radiographic contrast evaluation of the nasolacrimal duct called?
Dacryocysto-rhinography
60
What catheter is placed in the maxillary sinus if a fracture is present?
Foley catheter (balloon catheter)
61
What type of facial fracture can lead to chemosis?
Zygomatic process fracture
62
Why is sx not commonly required for vertical ramus fractures?
The large masseter m. keeps fragments in place allowing healing
63
What are two causes of neck fractures?
Trauma or electrocution
64
When is static compressive spinal cord lesions clinically relevant?
If both dorsal & ventral contrast columns narrow at the same time
65
What is the tx for static compressive spinal cord lesions?
Dorsal laminectomy or cervical ventral interbody fusion