Male / Female Pathology Flashcards

1
Q

Describe where the prostate is found

A

at base of bladder around urethra
anterior to rectum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What maintains the prostate gland

A

androgens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Arises from inner transitional zone or central zones

A

BPH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

BPH is due to an increase in

A

androgens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What converts testosterone to DHT
What does DHT cause

A

5 α reductase
hyperplasia of gland

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What can increase DHT receptors

A

estrogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Hesitancy and intermittent interruption to pee

A

BPH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Urgency, frequency and nocturia

A

BPH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Well defined nodules compressing urethra

A

BPH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are 2 things to treat BPH

A

5 α reductase inhibitors
α -1 adrenergic blockers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

This decreases DHT

A

5 α reductase inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Finasteride is a

A

5 α reductase inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

This relaxes prostate smooth muscle for less urinary symptoms

A

α - 1 adrenergic blockers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Most common cancer in men

A

Prostatic carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

This promotes but DOES NOT initiate cancer growth in the prostate

A

Androgens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Arises from the peripheral zone

A

Prostatic carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Palpable on DRE

A

Prostatic carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Androgen-regulated fusion genes

A

Prostatic carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Increased risk in 1st degree relatives

A

Prostatic carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Inherited BRCA1, BRCA2 mutations can increase risk

A

Prostatic carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Clinically silent

A

Prostatic carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the first sign of Prostatic carcinoma

A

metastasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Involvement of what is common with the metastasis of Prostatic carcinoma

A

Bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Highly variable disease course, can not predict what tumor will be aggressive

A

Prostatic carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Gleason score is used to asses

A

Prostatic carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

This shows histologic grade (differentiation)

A

Gleason score (Prostatic carcinoma)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What two things are need for prognosis of Prostatic carcinoma

A

clinical spread and histologic grade

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Remain as free episomal viral DNA and cause benign lesions

A

Low risk HPV (6,11)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Viral integration/incorporation

A

HRHPV (16,18)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What oncogenes are produced from HRHPV, and what do they promote/cause

A

E6 and E7 oncogenes
neoplasia (growth of tumors)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

HPV infection alone is __ to cause cancer

A

insufficient
(genetic hits are necessary)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Usually small, just below the surface of ovaries, large ones can be palpable/painful

A

Follicle and luteal cysts (common)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Patients with this syndrome can be put on metformin (insulin resistance)

A

Polycystic ovarian syndrom (PCOS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

With PCOS, there is excess production of __ by multiple cystic follicles

A

androgens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Hirsutism, oligomenorrhea, infertility

A

PCOS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Due to HPV 6, 11
NOT precancerous

A

Condyloma acuminata (vulva neoplasia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Large anogenital warts
Men and women

A

Condyloma acuminata (vulva neoplasia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Papillary and elevated or flat rugose
Wrinkled or creased with a halo

A

Condyloma acuminata (vulva neoplasia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Koilocytosis

A

Condyloma acuminata (vulva neoplasia)
(describing the shape of the cell)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Caused by oncogenic strains of HPV (HRHPV)

A

Cervical carcinoma

41
Q

What zone in involved with Cervical carcinoma

A

Transformation zone

42
Q

Junction of exocervix and endocervix

A

Transformation zone

43
Q

What has an affinity for the transformation zone

A

HRHPV

44
Q

What is the change that occurs with the transition zone

A

metaplasia into immature squamous cells

45
Q

Evolves from asymptomatic precancerous lesion from many years before

A

Cervical carcinoma

46
Q

What two things are needed for Cervical carcinoma to occur

A

HPV
Mutations in tumor suppressor genes and oncogenes

47
Q

Most important risk factor for Cervical carcinoma

A

Persistent infections with HPV
(with high risk subtypes)

48
Q

Early age at 1st intercourse puts you at risk for

A

Cervical carcinoma

49
Q

Multiple partners puts you at risk for

A

Cervical carcinoma

50
Q

Male partner with history of multiple partners puts you at risk for

A

Cervical carcinoma

51
Q

Smoking puts you at risk for

A

Cervical carcinoma

52
Q

Invisible or exophytic

A

Cervical carcinoma

53
Q

Presents as squamous cell carcinoma

A

Cervical carcinoma

54
Q

Early detection of __ is performed with a Papanicolaou smear (Pap smear)

A

SIL (Squamous intraepithelial lesion)

55
Q

Most successful cancer-screening test ever developed

A

PAP smear

56
Q

When to start and when to stop PAP smears

A

21-65 = pap every 3 years
30-65 = PHV or HRHPV co test
>65 = stop pap smears

57
Q

HPV vaccine for boys and girls 11-12 years old

A

Gardasil 9
Protects agaisnt 6, 11, 16, 18

58
Q

Nulliparity is a risk factor

A

Ovarian cancer

59
Q

Low parity is a risk factor

A

Ovarian cancer

60
Q

Family history is a risk factor

A

Ovarian cancer

61
Q

BRCA-1 mutation is a risk factor

A

Ovarian cancer

62
Q

Limited until it is widespread

A

Ovarian cancer

63
Q

Abdominal pain, swelling, ascities (seeding of peritoneal cavity)

A

Ovarian cancer

64
Q

Does not progress directly to carcinoma, most regress

A

LSIL (Low grade SIL)

65
Q

High risk to progress to carcinoma

A

HSIL (High grade SIL)

66
Q

Most common malignancy of women

A

Breast cancer

67
Q

Adenocarcinoma

A

Breast cancer

68
Q

Most common benign epithelial lesion
brown/blue cyst
Increased fibrous stroma
Micro-calcifications

A

Nonproliferative disease / fibrocystic disease

69
Q

What hormone is in excess with breast cancer

A

estrogen

70
Q

Mutations in the breast epithelial cells cause expression of these 3

A

Estrogen receptor (ER)
Progesteron receptor (PR)
HER2

71
Q

5-10% of breast cancers are germline mutations in

A

BRCA1 and BRCA2 (DNA repair genes)

72
Q

3 major groups of breast cancer subtypes

A

ER + (HER -) - this is the majority
HER2 + over-expression (ER +/- doesnt matter)
Triple negative : no ER, no PR, no HER2 overexpression

73
Q

2 leading cause of cancer death in women

A

Breast cancer

74
Q

Risk for breast cancer increases after age

A

30
(stops at menopause)

75
Q

Greatest risk is 1st degree relative with early onset

A

Breast cancer
(5-10% are due to mutations)

76
Q

Highest rate of breast cancer is seen in __ decent

A

european

77
Q

Early first period puts you at risk for

A

Breast cancer

78
Q

Older age at 1st pregnancy puts you at risk for

A

Breast Cancer

79
Q

Nulliparity puts you at risk for

A

Breast Cancer

80
Q

NO breast feeding puts you at risk for

A

Breast Cancer

81
Q

Obesity post menopause puts you at risk for

A

Breast Cancer

82
Q

Hormone replacement post menopause puts you at risk for

A

Breast Cancer

83
Q

Ionizing radiation puts you at risk for

A

Breast Cancer

84
Q

If a breast is feeling pain the lesion is most likely

A

benign

85
Q

Is inflammation common with breast cancer

A

NO - due to infection during lactation

86
Q

Small amount of bilateral discharge

A

Normal

87
Q

what arises in large ducts below the nipple causing discharge

A

papilloma

88
Q

Bloody discharge

A

malignancy

89
Q

Breast lumpiness

A

usually normal
Granular tissue

90
Q

Most palpable masses are

A

benign

91
Q

All palpable masse require

A

evaluation because some malignancies are circumscribed

92
Q

Gynecomastia

A

Breast enlargement in males
Imbalance of estrogens and androgens

93
Q

The older you are, symptoms more often mean

A

malignancy

94
Q

Treatment for ER or PR positive breast cancer (3)

A

Endocrine / hormone therapy
Tamoxifen
Aromatase inhibitor

95
Q

Treatment for HER2 positive breast cancer

A

Target therapy
Herceptin

96
Q

Where can breast cancer progress to

A

Pectoral muscles
Dimpling of skin or nipple

97
Q

What causes skin thickening (peaud’orange)

A

Lymphatic involvement of breast cancer

98
Q

Breast cancer can metastasis to

A

any organ

99
Q

Why are mammograms better with older aged patients

A

Breast density increases and gets more fat
easier to detect lesions