Malaria/Test 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the only species of malaria that can use animals as a vector?

A

Knowlesi

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2
Q

Where do merozoites transform into trophozoites?

A

RBCs

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3
Q

What are the two most common species of malaria?

A

vivax and ovale

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4
Q

Many of the symtpoms of malaria are thought to be caused by what cytokine?

A

TNF

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5
Q

What two cytokines inhibit erythropoiesis in malaria infected people?

A

TNF and IL1

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6
Q

Which two species of malaria infect both mature and young erythroctes?

A

falciparum and knowlesi

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7
Q

Which two species of malaria infect only young erythroctes?

A

vivax and ovale

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8
Q

Which species of malaria prefers older erythrocytes?

A

Malariae

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9
Q

The most severe form of anemia is caused by what species of plasmodium?

A

Falciparum

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10
Q

What are the two metabolic symptoms of Plasmodium infection?

A

hypoglycemia and lactic acidosis

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11
Q

What anti-malarial drug can release insulin? In what species could this cause a deleterious effect?

A

Quinine

falciparum

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12
Q

What is the most serious side effect of Vivax and Ovale infection?

A

splenic rupture

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13
Q

Which species of malaria causes RBCs to produce knobs? What is the effect of this?

A

Falciparum

adhere to microvascular endothelium

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14
Q

What are the three most common complications of falciparum malaria?

A

renal failure

pulmonary edema

cerebral edema

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15
Q

Vivax uses what RBC protein to gain access? What two population groups express this protein?

A

Duffy antigen

Caucasians and and Asians

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16
Q

What antibiotic is used to treat malaria?

A

Doxycycline

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17
Q

What two species are resistant to Chloroquine?

A

falciparum and vivax

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18
Q

Which anti-malarial is equally effective for all plasmodium species?

A

Mefloquine

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19
Q

Primaquine is effective against which two species?

A

vivax and ovale

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20
Q

In what patient group is primaquine contraindicated?

A

G6PDase deficiency

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21
Q

What drug is most effective in the Tx of Falciparum?

A

Malarone

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22
Q

What does clinical cure mean?

A

eradication of erythrocytic forms of malaria

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23
Q

What does radical cure mean?

A

elimination of hypozite of vivax and ovale

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24
Q

Babesiosis is carried by what organism?

A

Tick

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25
Does Babesiosis effect animals?
yes
26
What are the two most common babeiosis species?
microti divergens
27
What genus of tick carries babeoisis?
Lxodes
28
What three patient populations are at risk of babesiosis?
elderly, asplenic, immunocompromised
29
Does sexual reproduction of Babesia occur in the tick or human?
tick
30
What two drugs are used to treat babeoisis?
Quinine and Clindamycin
31
What genus of species transmits malaria?
Anopheles
32
Where is Knowlesi found?
Malaysia
33
How often does Plasmodium Malariae present with symptoms?
every 72 hours
34
What stage of replication of plasmodium destroys RBCs in humans?
asexual
35
Lack of which antigen on RBCs can confer resistance to plasmodium?
Duffy
36
Maltese cross = ?
Babesia
37
Where is the use of chloroquine recommended?
west of panama canal
38
What is the only drug that can kill the liver forms? What species?
Primaquine vivax and ovale
39
Are there differences in clinical outcome of new blood vs. old blood ?
nope
40
What is the best strategy, restrictive or non-restrictive? What does this mean?
restrictive wait until Hb is low to transfuse
41
What is the most common reason to leukoreduce?
CMV
42
How many RBC units in the US have been leukoreduced?
all
43
What is irradiation used for?
to prevent graft versus host disease
44
In what patient type is it necessary to irradiate?
immunocompromised
45
When is volume reduction used?
circulatory overload
46
When is plasma given?
when you want to replease coagulation factors
47
What does platelet refractoriness mean?
pt's receiving platelets may make antibodies to platelets
48
What are the four components of cryoprecipitate?
vWF, fibrinogen, 8 and 13
49
Which four factors are found in prothrombin complex concentrate?
two, seven, nine and ten
50
What is a normal WBC count in newborns?
9K - 30K
51
AML presents most often in what age group?
adults
52
What is more common, BALL or TALL?
BALL
53
Are ALL seen more common in children or adults?
children
54
What is the average age of Dx for CLL?
70
55
What is a normal Hb level for a 6-month old?
11.5 mg/dL
56
At what age should a child and adults Hb be roughly the same?
Age 12
57
How often do Vivax and ovale cause fever?
every 48 hrs
58
How often does Knowlesi cause fever?
24 hours
59
What is the name for the characteristic appearance of vivax and ovale in infected RBCs?
Schuffner dots
60
What does P. malariae look like in an infected RBC?
band
61
What two animals serve as a reservoir for ticks?
cattle and rodents
62
What are the two side effects of quinine?
cinchocism and hypoglycemia
63
What drug is used in the replacement of chloroquine?
Mefloquine
64
What antibacterial can be used for malaria?
doxycycline
65
What are the two major side effects of doxycycline?
staining of the teeth photosensitivity
66
What immunoglobulin can cross the placenta?
IgG
67
What is the function of H-antigen?
precursor antigen for A and B
68
What is the antigen of type A blood?
N-acetylgalactosamine
69
What is the antigen of type B blood?
galactosamine
70
Around what week of fetal life do antigens develop?
6th week
71
When do ABO antibodies develop?
6th month of life
72
What deficiency is a reason to wash RBCs?
IgA deficiency
73
What three diseases are cryoprecipitate used?
Hemphilia A vWF deficiency Factor XIII deficiency
74
When is the transfusion of blood best indicated?
massive trauma
75
What is the result of a febrile transfusion reaction?
almost always benign
76
What is the most common cause of febrile transfusion reaction?
cytokines being released by leukocytes
77
What medicine is given to avoid a febrile transfusion rxn?
acetaminophen
78
What are the two most often reasons for an allergic transfusion reaction?
plasma platelets
79
An anaphylactic rxn to a transfusion is most often caused by what deficiency? Does pretreatment work in these patients?
IgA no
80
What are the two most common signs of TACO?
increased BP and HR
81
TRALI is most often caused by what two components of blood?
platelets and plasma
82
What is the timespan for TRALI?
within six hours
83
What is the treatment for TRALI?
O2
84
What should not be given during TRALI? What is given?
diuretic pressors
85
What is the common antibody responsible for hemolytic anemia?
anti-Kidd
86
What does Rho-GAM do?
bind to RH antigen on baby's cells
87
In a child, when is WBC highest?
at birth
88
An I:T ratio greater than what indicates a risk of sepsis?
0.20
89
Why are Hb and HCT high at birth?
High affinity of HbF is interpreted as hypoxia and EPO is released
90
What are normal Hb values for a newborn?
14-22
91
What is the definition of polycythemia in an infant ?
greater than 65%
92
Does polycythemia need to be taken from a venous or arterial sample?
venous
93
What is the lifespan of RBCs in a newborn?
80 days
94
What is a nadir ?
trough of HB concentration
95
When is nadir usually reached?
6-8 weeks
96
What is the equation for the low-end of MCV in children under 10?
70 + age
97
What is the equation for the high-end of MCV in children under 10?
84 + (0.6*age)
98
What type of milk can cause a folate deficiency?
goat
99
What is the most common cause of iron deficiency anemia in an infant?
excessive milk intake
100
What causes Diamond Blackfan anemia?
congenital abnormality in ribosomal protein synthesis
101
What is the Tx of iron overload in infants?
deferoxamine
102
Which species causes the highest parasitemia?
falciparum
103
Does TRALI have hypertension or hypotension?
hypotension
104
What blood component is most likely to contain bacteria?
platelets
105
Does TACO present with fever?
no
106
What are the two mutations in essential thrombocytosis? What cell is over-produced?
JAK2 and MPL megakaryocytes
107
What are the two mutations in primary myelofibrosis?
JAK2 and MPL
108
Is the reticulocyte count high or low in TEC?
low
109
Is the reticulocyte count high or low in DBA?
low
110
What is increased during DBA?
HbF
111
WHat drug is given to treat DBA?
prednisone
112
What species of malaria can remain dormant for years?
vivax and ovale
113
Which species of malaria can only infect RBCs containing Duffy antigens?
Vivax
114
What form of malaria does chloroquine kill?
intra-erythrocytic
115
In what two patient populations is doxycycline contraindicated?
children and pregnant women
116
Do RBC carbohydrate antigens tend to stimulate IgG or IgM?
IgM
117
Do RBC protein antigens tend to stimulate IgG or IgM?
IgG
118
What is the anitgen of H-antigen?
H-antigen
119
How long can a febrile rxn take place after a transfusion?
up to 4 hours
120
At what age does Hb reach adult levels?
two years
121
What is the treatment for TEC?
supportive
122
What dietary supplement is given during sickle cell disease?
folic acid
123
What is the most fatal cancer?
lung
124
What is the most important prognostic criteria for cancer?
staging
125
Why can malaria cause hypoglycemia?
induced insulin release from pancreas
126
Which malarial species likes to consume blood glucose?
falciparum
127
Which malarial species likes to consume blood glucose?
falciparum
128
Is glycophorin A an IgG or IgM antigen?
IgM
129
Is glycophorin A an IgG or IgM antigen?
IgM
130
Is glycophorin B an IgG or IgM antigen?
IgG
131
What sugar is present in H-antigen?
fucose
132
What happens sooner, TACO or TRALI?
TACO
133
At what age should iron supplementation begin for a child that is exclusively breast fed?
4 months
134
At what age should iron supplementation begin for a child that is exclusively breast fed?
6 months
135
What procedure is used to Dx most plasma cell disorders?
Bone marrow biopsy
136
How big is a Stage 1A renal cell carcinoma?
less than 4 centimeters
137
What did Nish say two drugs are used to treat liver?
doxorubicin and irinotecan
138
What three cancers can cause a malignant pleural effusion?
lung, breast and ovarian
139
What three types of cancer are relatively resistant to radiation?
sarcoma, melanoma, renal cell
140
What does radiosensitive mean?
melts to radiation
141
What does radioresponsive mean?
melts quickly to radiation
142
Does radiation work better on poorly oxygenated or well oxygenated cancer cells?
well oxygenated
143
What is the radiosensitive phase of the cell cycle?
G2/M
144
What is the radioresistant phase of the cell cycle?
S
145
What penetrates superficially, electrons or photons?
electrons
146
What penetrates deep, electrons or photons?
photons
147
What is IGRT useful for?
tumors that can move
148
What does radical cure mean?
parasites are no longer present in liver
149
What does recrudescence mean?
reappearance of detectable blood stream forms
150
What are the two platelet antibodies?
anti-HLA and anti-HPA
151
What is given to support a patient with TRALI?
O2
152
What is the normal WBC at birth?
9K-30K
153
At what age should a child and adults WBC be roughly the same?
12 years
154
What is a normal lymphocyte percentage?
35%
155
What is a normal nadir for a full-term infant?
9 mg/dL
156
What is the upper limit of MCV for children?
96
157
What are the two viruses that are known to cause HCC?
HBV and HCV
158
Hepatic tumors have almost exclusive blood supply from what vessel?
hepatic artery
159
What two cancers are radioemobilization used for?
HCC and colorectal carcinoma
160
What two species of malaria can lay dormant for years?
vivax and ovale
161
According to Nguyen, what cells expand during CLL?
granulocytic and megakaryocytic