Ma'am Oledan 2 semis Flashcards

1
Q

congenital aganglionic megacolon

A

Hirschsprung disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

characterized by persistent constipation: partial or complete intestinal obstruction

A

Hirschsprung Disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

congenital anomaly thatt results in mechanical obstruction

A

Hirschsprung Disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

absence of ganglion cells results in loss of rectosphinteric reflex

results in a lack of enteric nervous system

HD internal sphincter does not relax

A

Hirschsprung Disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

a midline defects of the spinal cord
involving the failure of the osseous
(bony) spine to close

  • common defects of CNS
A

Spina Bifida

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

two categories of Spina Bifida

A
  1. SB occulta
  2. SB cystica
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

refers to a defect that is not visible
externally It occurs most commonly
in the lumbosacral area

A
  1. Spina Bifida Occulta
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

it is not apparent unless there is
neuromuscular disturbances (static
changes in gait, foot deformity,
bowel and bladder disturbance)

A

. Spina Bifida Occulta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q
  1. skin depression or dimple
  2. port-wine angiomatous nevi
  3. dark tufts of hair
  4. soft subcutaneous lipomas
A
  1. Spina Bifida Cutaneous indications
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

refers to the visible defects with an
external saclike protrusion

A

. Spina Bifida Cystica

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Two major forms SB Cystica

A

Meningocele

Myelomeningocele

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

which encases
meninges and spinal fluid but no
neural elements

A

Meningocele

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

which contains
meninges, spinal fluid and nerves

A

Myelomeningocele
(meningomyelocele)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

related to to the normal formative
stages of the nervous system on the
first trimester of pregnancy

A

Spina bifida causes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

it requires a multidisciplinary
approach involving the specialties of
Neurology,
Neurosurgery, Pediatrics, Urology,
Orthopedics, Rehabilitation, Physical
Therapy, Social Service and
intensive nursing care in a variety of
specialtyareas

A

Management of spINA BIFIDA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

s a syndrome or sign resulting from the
disturbances in the dynamics of CSF

A

Hydrocephalus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Hydrocephalus caused by various conditions such
as:

A
  1. Congenital
  2. Acquired condition (intraventricular
    hemorrhage, tumor, CSF infection,
    or head injury)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Three Factors that Influence the dinical
picture in hydrocephalus are the following:

A
  1. Acuity of onset
  2. Timing of onset
  3. Associated structural malformation.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

predominant sign in hydrocephalus infant

A

head enlargement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

in older infants
and children the lesions responsible for
hydrocephalus produce

A

adjacent structures
other neurologic signs through pressure on

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Preterm infant with hydrocephalus is high
risk for

A

Intraventricular hemorrhage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Signs of Hydrocephalus in Infant

A

-Head grows in an abnormal rate

-Bulging of fontanels (with or without head
enlargement)

-Anterior fontanel is tense

-Scalp veins are dilated esp. when the baby
cries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Signs of Hydrocephalus in Children

A

-Check the ICP (Intracranial Pressure) if it is
increased.

-If ICP increased the child will complain
headache on awakening with improvement
later

-Followed by emesis, uprate posture,
strabismus

-Irritable, lethargic, confuse and incoherent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

PERINAUD SYSNDROME

A

UPGAZE PALSY

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

PARINAUD WITH LID RETRACTION AND INCREASED TONIC DOWNGAZE

A

SETTING SUN SIGN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

MOST COMMON TX FOR HYDROCEPHALUS

A

SHUNT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

3 TYPE OF SHUUNT

A

INFLOW CATHETER

VALVE MECHANISM

OUTFLOW CATHETER

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

DRAINS CSF FROM VENTRICLES

A

INFLOW CATHETER

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

REGULATES PRESSURE CONTROL

A

VALVE MECHANISM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

RUNS UNDER THE SKIN AND MOVES THE CSF TO PERITONEAL CAVITY

A

OUTFLOW CATHETER

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

-It is a neurologic disorder characterized by
carly onset and impaired movement and
posture. lt is non progressive and may be
accompanied by perceptual problems,
language deficits, and intellectual
involvement.

A

Cerebral Palsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

-It characterized by abnormal muscle tone
and coordination as primary disturbance

A

Cerebral Palsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

-It is the most common permanent physical
disability of childhood.

A

Cerebral Palsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Cerebral Palsy CAUSES

A
  1. Prenatal factors
  2. Perinatal factors
  3. Postnatal factors
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

EXCESSIVE TONE IN VOLUNTARY MUSCLE

A

SPASTIC TYPE CEREBRAL PALSY

35
Q

ABNORMAL INVOLUNTARY MOVEMENT ‘WORMLIKE’

A

ATHETOID/DYSKINETIC TYPE CEREBRAL PALSY

36
Q

INVOLVEMENT HAVE AN AWKWARD, WIDE BASED GAIT

A

ATAXIC TYPE CEREBRAL PALSY

37
Q

SHOWS SPASTICITY AND ATHETOID MOVEMENT

A

MIXED TYPE

38
Q

it is an acute inflammation of the
meninges and CSF

A

Bacterial Meningitis

39
Q

it remains a significant cause of
illness in the pediatric-age groups
because of undiagnosed and
untreated or inadequately treated
cases caused by bacterial agents, H
influenza type B

A

Bacterial Meningitis

40
Q

route of infection of bacterial meningitis

A

Vascular dissemination

41
Q

fluid pressure is
measured and samples are obtained
for culture

A
  • lumbar puncture
42
Q
  • the child may resist the flexion of
    the neck, neck stiffness until the
    neck is drawn into
A

Manifestation of Bacterial meningitis

43
Q
  • injuries are usually attributed to
    extreme heat source but may also result
    from exposure to cold, chemicals,
    electricity, or radiation
44
Q

n the third leading
cause of unintentional injury-related death
among children 14 years and under

A

-fire and burns

45
Q

-The majority of burns results from contact
with

A

thermal agents

46
Q

caused by household
current have the greatest incidence in young
children, who insert conductive objects into
electrical outlets or bite, suck on connected
electrical cords

A

-Electrical injuries

47
Q

can cause extensive injury.
The severity of injury is related to the
chemical agent

A

Chemical burns

48
Q

is a three-dimensional
wound is also assessed in relation to the a is
also assessed in relation to the depth of
injury.

A

-Thermal injury

49
Q

are classified as
superficial wounds which are usually of
minor significance.

A

First Degree Burns

50
Q

-Tissue damage is minimum, the protective
function of the skin remain intact, and
systemic effect are rare. Pain is the
predominant symptom, and the burn heals
within 7 days without scarring. Mild
sunburn is an example of a ___________

A

First Degree Burns:

51
Q

partial thickness
injuries involve the epidermis and varying
degrees of the dermis, sweat glands and hair
follicles are intact

A

Second Degree Burns:

52
Q

-These wounds are painful, moist, red, and
blistered. Dermal elements are intact, and
the wound should heal in approximately 14
days with variable amount of scarring. The
wound is extremely sensitive to temperature
changes, exposure to ait, and light touch.
Sweat

A

Second Degree Burns

53
Q

or full-thickness burns are
serious injuries that involve the entire
epidermis and dermis and extend into
subcutaneous tissue.

A

Third Degree burn

54
Q
  • they lack sensation in injury because of the
    destruction of the nerve endings
A

Third Degree burns

55
Q

: are also full-thickness
injuries and involved underlying structures
such as muscles, fascia, and bone. The
wound appears dultand diy, and ligaments,
tendons, and bone may be exposed.

A

Fourth Degree Burns

56
Q

require the services
and facilities of a specialized burn
center with expertise in burn care

A

major burn

57
Q

may be treated in
the hospital i dinar bum: am be
treated in an out patient

A

moderate burn

58
Q

can be treated in an
outpatient basis.

A

minor burn

59
Q

Usually associated with industrial
exposure

A

chemical Burns

60
Q

effects of Hot Air
Hot Steam

A

Laryngeal obstruction
Bronchospasm

61
Q

effects of Smoke
Hot Particles
Aspiration

A

Mucosal Slough
Infection
Bronchiolar plugging
Atelectasis
Bronchospasm

62
Q

effects of Irritant gases

A

Pneumonia
Pulmonary Edema

63
Q

-This is the immediate consequence
of fluid loss and results in decreased
perfusion and oxygen delivery.

A

Hypovolemia

64
Q

forms rapidly after burn injury

65
Q
  • Circulating blood volume decreases
    dramatically during burn shock.
A

Decreased circulating blood volume

66
Q
  • is common during the first week of the
    acute phase, as water shifts from the
    interstitial space to the vascular spacce
A

Hyponatremia

67
Q

-Loss of skin results in an inability to
regulate body temperature

A

Hypothermia

68
Q

-It is a Chronic inflammatory disorder of the
airways, in which many cells play a rule.

69
Q

-these episodes are usually associated with
variable air flow with limitation or obstruction

70
Q

-In children inflammation causes recurrent
episodes. Like wheezing, breathlessness, chest
tightness and cough particularly at night in the
early morning.

71
Q

a also
causes an associated increase in the bronchial
hyper responsiveness.

72
Q

a is a chronic disease with acute
exacerbations characterized by intermittent
airway obstruction in response to a variety
of stimuli.

73
Q

common chronic illness in children

74
Q

called Atopic/allergic
asthma. An “allergen” or an “antigen” is a
foreign particle which enters the body

A

Extrinsic Asthma

75
Q

called non-allergic
asthma, is not allergy-related, in fact it is
caused by anything except an allergy.

A

Intrinsic asthma

76
Q

is a type of cancer of
blood or bone marrow
- Characterized by an abnormal
increase of immature white blood
cells called “blasts”.

77
Q

is the soft, spongy
tissue in the center cavity of all
bones.

A

bone marrow

78
Q

Two most common leukimia

A

Acute lymphoid leukemia (ALL)

  1. Acute non-lymphoid (myelogenous)
    leukemia (AMLL or AML)
79
Q

peak incidence in 2 to 6 years more
in boys than girls. median age in
adults- 35years

A

Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia

80
Q

occurs when one or more parts of the
urinary system (kidneys, ureters,
bladder or urethra) become infected
with a pathogen (most frequently,
bacteria).

81
Q

The 3 basic forms of UTI are:

A
  1. pyelonephritis,
  2. cystitis, and
  3. asymptomatic bacteriuria.
82
Q

is the most common serious
bacterial infection in infants

A

Pyelonephritis

83
Q

s a bacterial infection of the
kidneys
o It can be acute or chronic and is most
often due to ascending of bacteria
from bladder up to ureters

A

Pyelonephritis

84
Q

indicates that there is bladder
involvement: symptoms include dysuria,
urgency, frequency, suprapubic pain,
incontinence, and malodorous urine.