M: Bacterial Pathogenesis 1+2 - Week 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Define Normal Microbiota

A

Diverse group of microbes in and on the body

- found on skin and mucous membranes (incl. the eye)

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2
Q

An example of a virulence determinant are ‘siderophores’. What are siderophores? And what do they do?

A

small, high-affinity iron-chelating compounds secreted by microorganisms (such as bacteria and fungi)
– they serve to transport iron across cell membranes

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3
Q

How do specific bacterial factors assist virulence? List 6 ways they help virulence

A
  1. assist colonisation
  2. assist growth
  3. protect from immune response (e.g. capsule)
  4. cause damage (e.g. endotoxin, exotoxin)
  5. allow spread (e.g. IgA protease)
  6. transduction
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4
Q

Explain transduction

A

involves the transfer of genetic material by infection with a bacteriophage.

  • as a bacteriophage infected donor cell breaks down, the bacteriophage takes up some of the DNA of the organism and that goes on to infect another bacterial cell
  • so it shares this with the DNA of another bacterium
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5
Q

Explain transformation

A

(alongside transduction, is) Another process that can transfer DNA b/w bacteria
- free DNA strands enter the recipient bacteria cell and undergo homologous recombination to share the DNA

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6
Q

Explain conjugation

A

is where a bacterial cell may contain some extra DNA in the shape of a circle called a ‘plasmid’

  • the bacteria here use a sex pillus to join or “conjugate” another bacterium (of any species/genus)
  • then the plasmid is shared between the 2 bacteria
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7
Q

List the 4 methods of bacterial transfer of DNA

A
  1. Transformation
  2. Transduction
  3. Conjugation
  4. Transposition
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8
Q

Why might transduction be considered safer for bacteria than transformation?

A

Transduced DNA is always protected within the environment because it is contained within the bacteriophage (whereas in transformation it’s free dna)

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9
Q

Koch’s postulates describe the initial criteria used for proving that a particular microorganism caused a specific disease.

List all 4 of them.

A
  1. the microorganism must be present in every case of the disease
  2. the microorganism must be grown in pure culture from the host
  3. inoculation of the microorganism into a susceptible env. host should produce the same disease
  4. The microorganism must be able to be recovered from the infected experimental host
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10
Q

What are the 3 limitations of Koch’s postulates?

A
  1. normal flora is ineligible (b/c “microorganism can’t be present in healthy people”)
  2. fastidious bacteria cause problems (b/c “microorganism needs to grow in pure culture”)
  3. no animal models for human disease
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11
Q

In 1998 Falkow modified koch’s postulates to create the “Molecular Koch’s postulates”

List the 4 new criteria used

A
  1. Phenotype should be assoc. with pathogenic members of a genus/species
  2. Gene responsible for symptoms should be found in all pathogenic strains but not in no-pathogenic strains of that genus/species
  3. Inactivation of the gene assoc. with suspected virulence trait should lead to loss of virulence
  4. Replacement of the mutated gene should result in a return of virulence
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12
Q

In what ways might normal microbiota protect the host against disease? (5)

A
  • prevent colonization
  • produce pathogen growth inhibitors (basis of antibiotics)
  • fatty acids
  • bacteriocins
  • deplete nutrients
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13
Q

How does the outcome of colonization differ between pathogens and normal microbiota?

A

Normal microbiota: live mutualistically with the host (role in human nutrition and metabolism)

Pathogens: cause disease

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14
Q

T/F: normal microbiota can become pathogenic if moved

A

True

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15
Q

Where do pathogens come from? (2)

A
  1. Endogenous - other sites on the host (normal microbiota)

2. Exogenous - other people (their normal microbiota or pathogens). Or animals (zoonoses)

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16
Q

What are the 2 most common normal microbiota found in the eye?

A
  • staph. epidermidis (60-70%)

- staph. aureus (38%)

17
Q

Who has more Strep. pneumoniae in their eyes: children or adults? What does this mean?

A

Children. This means that children are at greater risk of infection with strep. pnuemoniae

18
Q

Name the 4 steps of infectious disease that can be asymptomatic

A
  1. colonization
  2. invasion
  3. replication
  4. evasion of innate immunity
19
Q

Name the 3 steps of infectious disease that are symptomatic

A
  1. damage host
  2. dissemination
  3. immunity
20
Q

Where do pathogens bind to in ocular infections? (2)

A
  1. mucosal epithelium (sparse microflora, so less competititon) and/or
  2. ocular biomaterials (contact lenses, IOL lenses, sutures, etc.)
21
Q

What 2 factors does the ability to colonise a particular site depend on?

A
  1. the presence of appropriate adhesion receptors

2. a suitable micro-environment for the organism’s survival (e.g. nutrients)

22
Q

What does epithelial colonisation depend on?

A

interactions b/w ligands (adhesins) on the microorganism surface, and specific receptors on the epithelial cell surface

23
Q

What feature of epithelial cells results in receptors being differentially expressed on different surfaces?

A

the epithelial cells are often polarized

24
Q

Bacterial adhesion can be fimbrial or non-fimbrial. List the 2 roles of fimbriae and describe their structure

A

Fimbriae (pili) serve 2 functions - adhesion and conjugation

structure: short, relatively rigid, has a hollow core, has a ligand for binding (adhesin) which is on the tip of the fimbriae

25
Q

How does non-fimbrial adhesion work?

A

microorganism adheres using molecules on their cell wall, utilizing non-fimbrial adhesins as ligands for ocular cell surface receptors

26
Q

Does psudeomonas aeuroginosa exhibit fimbrial or non-fimbrial adhesion?

A

Could be either. Depends on the strain.

27
Q

Provide an example of non-fimbrial adhesion

A

Staphylococcus aureus and streptococci use cell wall teichoic acids as adhesins. Receptors (for the teichoic acid) on ocular surfaces include fibronectin and collagen

28
Q

Some bacteria produce a glycocalyx external to their cell wall to contribute to (non-fimbrial) adhesion. Describe the 2 forms of glycocalyx

A
  1. Capsule (typically high MW polysaccharides)
    - adheres firmly to cell wall; also aids evasion of innate immune system
  2. Slime layer - loose unorganized layer that can be easily washed off: protects against dehydration and loss of nutrients
29
Q

Glycocalyxes are also involved in biofilm formation. What are Biofilms?

A

complex structures of bacteria held together by polysaccharides

30
Q

Explain transposition

A

Donor cell with transposon-containing plasmid. Plasmid transfer occurs via conjugation. Transposon Transposes.