Lower Extremity Trauma Flashcards

1
Q

What is the primary cause of Femoral Shaft displacement?

A

Powerful musculature of the thigh

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2
Q

What type of femoral shaft fracture consists of a spiral or transverse fracture?

A

Type 1

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3
Q

What type of femoral shaft fracture consists of a comminuted fracture?

A

Type 2

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4
Q

What type of femoral shaft fracture consists of an open fracture?

A

Type 3

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5
Q

Of the 3 types of femoral shaft fractures, which is the most common?

A

Type 1

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6
Q

What kind of fracture of the femur occurs after signifiant trauma or as a pathological fracture due to metastatic bone disease or primary bone neoplasms or other osseous pathology?

A

Diaphysis fracture

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7
Q

What are the most common types of diaphysis fractures?

A

spiral or transverse-oblique fracture with Bayonet deformity

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8
Q

What medication is used to treat osteoporosis which

may result in characteristic femoral shaft fractures?

A

Bisphosphanates

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9
Q

What kind of trauma is the likely cause of a supracondylar and condylar fracture in the elderly who is osteoporotic?

A

Low-energy

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10
Q

What kind of trauma is the likely cause of a supracondylar and condylar fracture in younger patients?

A

High-energy

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11
Q

What kind of configuration do femoral condylar fractures take that are always intra-articular?

A

“T” or “Y” configuration

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12
Q

What was another name for tibial plateau fractures?

A

bumper/fender fracture

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13
Q

What is the most common mechanism for a proximal tibial fracture?

A

Axial loading (fall from height)

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14
Q

Which tibial plateau is more common to fracture due to impact of lateral femoral condyle?

A

Lateral plateau

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15
Q

What Shatzker type of Tibial Plateau fracture is a wedge (low force)?

A

Type 1

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16
Q

What Shatzker type of Tibial Plateau fracture is a wedge with depression?

A

Type 2

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17
Q

What Shatzker type of Tibial Plateau fracture is depression with no wedge?

A

Type 3

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18
Q

What Shatzker type of Tibial Plateau fracture is similar to type 1 but involves the medial plateau as a result of greater force?

A

Type 4

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19
Q

What Shatzker type of Tibial Plateau fracture involves both plateaus?

A

Type 5

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20
Q

What Shatzker type of Tibial Plateau fracture involves both plateaus and a part of the proximal metaphysis or diaphysis?

A

Type 6

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21
Q

What results from an intra-articular fracture with escape of fat and blood from the bone marrow into the knee joint?

A

Lipohemarthrosis

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22
Q

What two fractures are lipohemarthrosis most commonly associated with?

A

tibial plateau fracture

distal femoral fracture

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23
Q

What is the key sign of Lipohemarthrosis?

A

Fat-Blood-Interphase sign (FBI sign)

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24
Q

What may occur especially in young or adolescent patients as a result of pull and tear by the ACL?

A

Tibial spine avulsion

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25
Q

What is an avulsion likely to be caused by the pull of lateral capsular knee ligaments and possibly an IT band and has a high association with ACL tears?

A

Segond fracture

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26
Q

What is a transverse fractures of the proximal tibial metaphysis that occur in children while jumping on a trampoline (or bouncy castle)?

A

Trampoline fracture

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27
Q

How old are the patients typically for trampoline fractures?

A

2-5 years old

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28
Q

What type of fracture occurs with violent quadriceps muscles contraction or passive flexion against contracted quadriceps muscles?

A

Tibial tuberosity avulsion fractures

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29
Q

What type of fracture is usually post direct trauma to the patella or sudden forceful contraction of the
quadriceps muscles?

A

Patellar fracture

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30
Q

What is the most common type of patellar fracture?

A

Transverse fracture in mid patella (“split”)

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31
Q

What area is an osteochondral defect from due to lateral patella dislocation and stress against lateral femoral condyle prominence?

A

Medial facet

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32
Q

What artery can be injured with a Femoral-Tibial dislocation?

A

Popliteal artery

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33
Q

What is the most common type of femoral-tibial dislocation and is often due to a hyperextension injury?

A

Anterior

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34
Q

What type of femoral-tibial dislocation may be due to direct falls or MVA “dashboard” injury?

A

Posterior

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35
Q

What is the most commonly torn ligament of the knee, especially in sports that involve rapid starting, stopping, and pivoting?

A

ACL

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36
Q

What kind of sign indicates avulsion of fibular attachment of biceps femoris and lateral collateral ligament with potential postero-lateral instability and failed ACL reconstruction if this injury was undetected earlier?

A

Arcuate sign

37
Q

What part of the ACL do acute tears typically occur at?

A

Middle portion

38
Q

What line is known when a normal ACL angle should be aligned along femoral condyles?

A

Blumensaat’s line

39
Q

What are the 3 tears of the knee known as O’Donogheu’s unhappy triad?

A

ACL
MCL
Medial meniscus

40
Q

How does O’Donogheu’s unhappy triad come about?

A

pivot shift with strong valgus force

41
Q

What is the most common type of meniscus tear?

A

Horizontal/cleavage tear

42
Q

What part of the meniscus is torn most frequently due to its fixed attachment to corresponding tibial plateau?

A

Posterior horn of medial meniscus

43
Q

What is the most common cause of ankle injuries?

A

Excessive inversion

44
Q

What type of classification is a popular classification of lateral malleolar fractures?

A

Weber ankle fracture classification

45
Q

Which type of Weber classification is a fracture below syndesmosis- relatively, stable?

A

Weber A

46
Q

Which type of Weber classification is a fracture at the level os syndesmosis?

A

Weber B

47
Q

Which type of Weber classification is a fracture above the syndesmosis - unstable?

A

Weber C

48
Q

What is a lateral malleolus/distal fibula fracture above syndesmosis and is unstable known as?

A

Pott’s fracture

49
Q

How high above the lateral malleolus is typical for Pott’s fracture?

A

6cm

50
Q

What fracture is combination of oblique or spiral fracture of the proximal fibula and unstable ankle injury and also is associated with a high ankle sprain?

A

Maisonneuve fracture

51
Q

What Weber type is a Maisonneuve fracture?

A

Weber C

52
Q

What is a fracture of both lateral (fibula) and medial (tibial) malleolus accompanied with widening of ankle mortise due to deltoid ligament rupture?

A

Bimalleolar fracture

53
Q

What is another name for Bimalleolar fracture?

A

Dupuytren fracture

54
Q

What is the radiographic feature of Bimalleolar fracture?

A

Transverse tibial malleolus and oblique distal fibular fracture

55
Q

What type of Weber classification is a Bimalleolar fracture?

A

Weber C

56
Q

What parts are involved with a Trimalleolar fracture?

A

medial, posterior, and lateral malleolus

57
Q

What is the key feature to a Tillaux fracture?

What ligament causes the avulsion?

A

anterolateral distal tibial epiphysis avulsion

Anterior tibial-fibular ligament

58
Q

What type of Salter-Harris is Tillaux fracture?

A

Salter-Harris 3

59
Q

What kind of fracture is undisplaced spiral fractures usually of the tibia in toddlers either due to fall or when the leg is stuck in between the wooden spacing of the crib/cot?

A

Toddler Fractures

60
Q

What is a Toddler fracture known as when both the Tibia and Fibular are fractured?

A

Both Bones fracture

61
Q

What are the two foot bones that are most commonly fractured?

A

Calcaneus and Talus

62
Q

Which is the most commonly fractured tarsal bone?

A

Calcaneus

63
Q

In regards to calcaneal fractures, which type of fracture is the most common?

A

Intra-articular

64
Q

What should be evaluated when there are bilateral calcaneal fractures?

A

Spine

65
Q

What is the angle between two tangent lines drawn across the anterior and posterior borders of calcaneus on the lateral view?

A

Bohler’s angle

66
Q

What does the Bohler’s angle have to be for it to be a calcaneal fracture?

A

<20 degrees

67
Q

What fat pad should be looked for in a calcaneal fracture?

A

Kagar’s fat pad

68
Q

What is considered most sensitive and specific imaging of stress fractures of the lower extremity?

A

MRI

69
Q

What kind of classification is associated with Talus fractures?

A

Hawkins classification

70
Q

What type of Hawkins fracture is a non-displaced fracture

of the talus?

A

Type 1 (0-15% AVN risk)

71
Q

What type of Hawkins fracture is a displaced fracture with subluxation or dislocation of the subtalar joint and a normal ankle joint?

A

Type 2 (20-50% AVN risk)

72
Q

What type of Hawkins fracture is a displaced fracture with body of talus dislocated from both subtalar and ankle joint?

A

Type 3 (100% AVN risk)

73
Q

What were Talar neck and talar body fractures once known as?

A

Aviator’s fracture

74
Q

What sign describes subchondral lucency/osteopenia line of the talar dome that occurs secondary to subchondral atrophy 6-8 weeks after a talar neck fracture and indicates that there is sufficient vascularity in the talus?

A

Hawkins sign

75
Q

What fracture can mimic a lateral ankle sprain and occurs when the foot is dorsiflexed and inverted and is also known as Lateral talar process fractures?

A

Snowboarder’s fracture

76
Q

What Posterior talar process fracture involves the lateral tubercle?

A

Shepherd fracture

77
Q

What Posterior talar process fracture involves the medial tubercle?

A

Cedell fracture

78
Q

What is the most common type of dislocation involving the foot?

A

Lisfranc fracture/dislocation

79
Q

What type of Lisfranc fracture happens with lateral displacement of the 1st to 5th metatarsals, or of 2nd to
5th metatarsals where the 1st MTP joint remains aligned?

A

Homolateral

80
Q

What type of Lisfranc fracture happens with lateral dislocation of the 2nd to 5th metatarsals with medial dislocation of the 1st metatarsal?

A

Divergent

81
Q

What is a fracture/dislocation of the mid-tarsal joint (Chopart joint) of the foot, i.e. talonavicular and calcaneocuboid joints?

A

Chopart injury

82
Q

What 3 bones are most effected with a Chopart injury?

A

Calcaneus, cuboid, and navicular

83
Q

In what direction is the foot dislocated as it is plantar flexed and inverted with a Chopart Injury?

A

Superiorly and medially

84
Q

What metatarsal bones are the most common stress fractures and is also known as a March fracture?

A

2nd and 3rd metatarsals

85
Q

What fracture occurs at the base of the 5th Metatarsal and the key feature is 2-cm distal to the proximal tuberosity at the metadiaphyseal junction w/o distal or intra-articular extension?

A

Jones fracture

86
Q

T/F: Jones fractures are prone to non-union (with rates as high as 30-50%)

A

True

87
Q

What fracture occurs at the insertion of peroneus brevis (styloid process of the 5th metatarsal) and forcible inversion of the foot in plantar flexion and is known as a “tennis fracture?”

A

Pseudo-Jones fracture

88
Q

T/F: Toe fractures involving the nail are considered an open fracture and may carry risk of osteomyelitis

A

True