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Kalitta 747-400 Systems > Loft Week OKE cards > Flashcards

Loft Week OKE cards Flashcards

1
Q
  1. When do we perform a max thrust takeoff?
A

(AOM Vol I, Aerodata)• When indicated by the TLR conditions• When indicated by the ACARS or EFB• When shown on the Flight Release.

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2
Q
  1. When is a takeoff alternate required?
A

(GOM, Ch 5)• If weather conditions at the airport of takeoff are below landing minimums or captain landing minimums or other operational conditions preclude a return to the airport.

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3
Q
  1. What weather is required to designate an airport as a takeoff alternate,when that airport has only one operational, straight in, approach?
A

(Ops Spec C-55) (GOM, Ch 5)• 400 feet and 1 statute mile added to the landing minima.

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4
Q
  1. What weather is required to designate an airport as a takeoff alternate,when that airport has two operational, straight in approaches?
A

(Ops Spec C-55) (GOM, Ch 5)• 200 feet and 1/2 statute mile added to the landing minima.

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5
Q
  1. What weather is required to designate an airport as a takeoff alternate,when that airport has a usable, authorized Category II approach?
A

(Ops Spec C-55) (GOM, Ch 5)• 300 feet and 3/4 statute miles, or RVR 4000.

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6
Q
  1. What weather is required to designate an airport as a takeoff alternate,when that airport has a usable, authorized Category III approach?
A

(Ops Spec C-55) (GOM, Ch 5)• 200 feet and 1/2 statute mile, or RVR 1800.

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7
Q
  1. What requirements, and distance does the takeoff alternate need to comply with?
A

(GOM, Ch 5)• Three engines• Two hours flying time, still air

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8
Q
  1. Where can the aircraft BOW listed on the flight plan be verified?
A

(GOM, Ch 11)• Weight & Balance Program, F-1• Weight & Balance Manual.

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9
Q
  1. When is a new flight plan required?
A

(GOM, Ch 9)• Aircraft Change• Aircraft has landed at an airport that was not on the release• Air turn-back.• Change in destination while on the ground.• DMI that restricts the flight from operating above 25,000 feet.• A new flight plan must be generated and provided to the crew if the air-craft weightexceeds the flight plan weight by more than 10,000 lbs. If logistics prevent the timelyreceipt of a new flight plan, the flight may still depart provided the PIC is made awareof any pertinent differences from the original flight plan, and the PIC agrees to operatethe flight with the available data. Coordinate with the Flight Follower and obtain timeand initials.

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10
Q
  1. When determining the required weather conditions at your ETA arePROB and TEMPO conditions controlling in a TAF?
A

(GOM, Ch 4)• Yes, when PROB or TEMPO are used in a forecast, these conditions are controlling.

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11
Q
  1. (Exhibit 1) You are in EHAM and you taxied 2.0 miles to get to thetakeoff runway. You are 830,000 lbs and you rejected at 140 knotswith an OAT 15c, enter the brake energy chart and tell me yourconsiderations?
A

• What zone do you fall into?• How many millions of foot-pounds are added for taxi distance?• Other consideration, notes.

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12
Q
  1. Your Flight Follower has elected to calculate your TLR using dryrunway data at your destination. Under what circumstances can heor she do this and what are the implications to your flight?
A

(GOM, Ch 5).(AOM, Vol I, App A)• Know that the info lives in the GOM and when you can plan to land usingdry runway data.• Know that conducting an approach to visibilities less than RVR 4000 (3/4NM) requires that the runway support a fully factored landing calculation.

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13
Q
  1. Why do you configure to Gear Up and Flaps 20 on a go around?
A

(AOM, Vol I, Aerodata)• In case of an engine failure on the go around, performance can be met.

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14
Q
  1. Your TLR has a notation “SLUSH-LEVEL 2” in the remarks section.What depth of slush has been planned by the flight follower?
A

(AOM, Vol I, Aerodata)• More than 1/8 inch, up to 1/4 inch.

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15
Q
  1. You are part of an augmented crew. You have just flown fromNewark to Bahrain. Crew Scheduling has notified you that you are toferry the aircraft to Dubai. What must Flight Following complete prior to your departure?
A

(GOM, Ch 11)• The FAR Part 91 Tail End Ferry Flight Worksheet must be completed.

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16
Q
  1. You are departing from KEWR on runway 22L. The runway is shownas grooved on the Jeppesen 10-9A page. There is light drizzle presentand reported. What runway condition will you select from the ACARSTO CONDITIONS menu? Why?
A

(AOM, Vol I, Aerodata)• Wet• Aerodata performance is runway specific, including any surface treatmentto enhance runway friction coefficient, such as grooving.

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17
Q
  1. When ia a new TLR required prior to departure?
A

(AOM, Vol I Aerodata)• The TLR is void when the actual QNH is more than .10” (3.4 hPa) belowthe planned QNH.• The TLR is void when the actual OAT is greater than the MaximumTemperature (MT) for the takeoff runway.• The TLR is void when the actual OAT is more than 10° less than theplanned OAT.• The TLR is void when the actual takeoff weight is greater than the plannedtakeoff weight, plus 10,000 pounds.• The TLR is void when a performance limiting MEL exists that is not shown inthe RMKS section.

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18
Q
  1. How much polished strut needs to be showing on each landing gear?
A

(AOM Vol I, Ch NP)• Some.

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19
Q
  1. Recite the Exterior Safety Inspection?
A

(AOM Vol I, NP)EXTERIOR SAFETY CHECKThe Exterior Safety check is performed on every flight before entering the airplane to ascertainthat no obviouly unsafe condition exits.• Check chocks in place.• Check landing gear door position.WARNING: WHEN ANY GEAR DOOR IS OPEN, CHECK THAT THE RESPECTIVE DOORHANDLE RELEASE IS IN THE “DOORS OPEN” POSITION. IF THE HANDLEIS IN THE “DOORS CLOSED” POSITION AND THE DOORS ARE OPEN,PRESSURIZING HYDRAULIC SYSTEMS #1 OR #4 WILL CLOSE THEDOORS AND CAN RESULT IN PERSONAL INJURY• Check APU fire control handle on APU Control Panel is in stowed position (unless APU is run-ning).• Check flight control surfaces position and condition.• Check APU exhaust area clear (unless APU running).

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20
Q
  1. Recite the Cockpit Safety Inspection?
A

(AOM Vol I, Ch NP)INTERIOR SAFETY CHECKAccomplish the following procedure to ensure safety of ground personnel and to permit safeapplication of electrical power.Battery Swtich…………………………………………………………ON Verify OFF light extinguishedStandby Power Selector……………………………………..AUTOHydraulic Demand Pump Selector……………………….OFFWindshield Wiper Selectors…………………………………OFFLanding Gear Lever……………………………………………….DNFlap Position Indication and Flap Lever……………AGREE If not in agreement, position lever to agree with flap positionAlternate Flaps Selector………………………………………..OFFWeather Radar……………………………………………………TESTTransponder……………………………………………………….STBY

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21
Q
  1. Minimum Oxygen limits for dispatch; passenger, crew and walkaround bottle?
A

(AOM Vol I, Ch L)• Passenger and Crew: 1400 PSI• Walk Around Bottle: 1200 PSI

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22
Q
  1. When must the security inspection be conducted? Who must conductit?
A

(AOM, Vol I, Ch NP)• The Security Inspection must be conducted for each originating flight, orwhenever the cockpit and/or upper deck have been unoccupied betweenflights.• All crewmembers must individually conduct the Security Inspection.

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23
Q
  1. You are in Oscoda. You approach the aircraft for the exteriorpreflight and see that both outboard ailerons are unlocked andappear to be down. What would you do?
A

(AOM, Vol II, Ch 9)• Nothing. This is a normal condition when hydraulics have been unpoweredfor an extended time on the ground.

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24
Q
  1. You are an IRP on a non-DHL flight departing from Hong Kong. Thepallets have been weighed and tagged in Kilograms.How can you print a load plan displaying Kilograms?
A

(W&B, Ch 6)• F6 display page, ALT F6.

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25
Q
  1. You are operating aircraft N782CK. While walking the freight, theIRP notices that there are four straps longitudinally across the top ofthe pallet located in position 1A. Are you legal to depart?
A

(ROM, Ch 3)• Yes, extra strapping is not required on production freighter aircraft.

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26
Q
  1. What is the maximum crew duty day for a Kalitta Air augmentedcrew operating under FAR 121 Supplemental rules assigned to adomestic flight?
A

(GOM, Ch 3)• 18 hours.

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27
Q
  1. What is the maximum flight time for an international flight conductedunder FAR 121 supplemental rules, operating with a basic crew?
A

(GOM, Ch 3)• 8 hours.

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28
Q
  1. What is the maximum number of hours that you can fly in a 90 dayperiod when operating as a double crew?
A

(GOM, Ch 3)• 350 Hours

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29
Q
  1. You have been assigned to a basic crew twice in a 30 day period.What is the maximum number of hours that you can fly in anaugmented crew during that 30 day period?
A

(GOM, Ch 3)• 100 Hours

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30
Q
  1. You have flown 26 hours in the last running 72 hours. What is the consequence?
A

(GOM, Ch 3)• You must have 18 hours of rest

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31
Q
  1. At Kalitta Air, who has operational control over initiation,continuation, diversion, or termination of a flight?
A

(GOM, Ch 5)• The PIC and the Director of Operations are jointly responsible foroperational control.

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32
Q
  1. What are the international basic fuel requirements?
A

(GOM, Ch 6)Any flight not operated entirely within the 48 contiguous United States with asuitable alternate(s) must be planned with enough fuel to:a. Fly to and land at the airport to which it was released;b. Thereafter, to fly for a period of 10% of the total time required to flyfrom the airport of departure to, and land at, the airport to which it wasreleased;c. Thereafter, to fly to and land at the most distant alternate specified inthe release; andd. Thereafter, to fly for 30 minutes at holding speed at 1,500 feet abovethe alternate airport under standard temperature conditions.

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33
Q
  1. What are B-43 fuel requirements?
A

(GOM, Ch 6)The flight must be planned with enough fuel to:a. Fly to and land at the airport to which it was released;b. Thereafter, to fly for a period of 10% of that portion of the enroute timebetween the departure airport and the airport to which it was releasedwhere the aircraft’s position cannot be “reliably fixed” at least onceeach hour (Class II Navigation area);c. Thereafter, to fly and land at the most distant alternate airport specifiedin the Flight Release; andd. Thereafter, to fly for 45 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption.

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34
Q
  1. What are B-44 fuel requirements?
A

(GOM, Ch 6)Any flight not operated entirely within the 48 contiguous United States withplanned re-release enroute must be planned with enough fuel to:a. Fly to and land at the airport to which it is released;b. Thereafter, to fly for a period of 10% of the total time from the point ofre-release to the airport to which it is re-released;c. Thereafter, to fly to and land at the most distant alternate specified inthe release; andd. Thereafter, to fly for 30 minutes at holding speed at 1,500 feet abovethe alternate airport under standard temperature conditions

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35
Q
  1. What are the international No Suitable Alternate fuel requirements?
A

(GOM, Ch 6)Any flight not operated entirely within the 48 contiguous United States with nosuitable alternate(s) must be planned with enough fuel to:a. Fly to the airport to which it is released, andb. Thereafter to fly for at least two (2) hours at normal cruising fuelconsumption. This is not intended to be used when alternate airportsare within two (2) hours flying time, but are not usable due toweather or other factors.

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36
Q
  1. Under B43 and B44, what deviations from flight plan must bereported to flight following?
A

(GOM, Ch 6)• ETA exceeds 15 minutes beyond flight plan ETA• Deviate more than 100 NM from flight plan route.• 4,000 feet or more from flight plan altitude.

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37
Q
  1. What is the planned minimum fuel for landing at an alternate airport?
A

(AOM, Vol I, Ch NP)• 12,000 pounds.

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38
Q
  1. How is the re release fuel pad designated on the flight release?
A

(FIB 14-10)• R/R Pad.

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39
Q
  1. You are release under B44. Using ACARS, what flight crew actioninitiates the process? How is the re-release documented? How is there-release accepted?
A

(AOM Vol I, Ch SP)• Crossing the first waypoint within the 2 hour window, send a companyposition report from the FMS.• When the uplinked re-release is received, print out the new analysis andinclude it in the trip envelope• Enter the Captain’s ID number in the field at LSK 5R to accept the re-release.

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40
Q
  1. Who can sign the GEN DEC?
A

(GOM, Ch 11)• Pilot in Command or authorized agent.

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41
Q
  1. You arrive via commercial airline in to EHAM and your passport was“stamped in”. You are operating out of EDDP, do you need to be“stamped out”?
A

(GOM, Ch 6)• Yes.

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42
Q
  1. When do you need a permit to proceed?
A

(GOM, Ch 6)• The Permit to Proceed is used by U.S. Customs officials toallow aircraft to tech stop (change crew, fuel, etc.) at a U.S. airport without meeting the fullinspection requirements of a normal entry. The detailed entry inspectionrequirements for the cargo will be completed at the final destination.

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43
Q
  1. You are being released to an airport located in a non-ICAO membercountry. What must be accomplished prior to departure?
A

(GOM, Ch 6)• The company will, through the POI, request an FAA evaluation of thatcountry’s terminal procedures.

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44
Q
  1. Who is responsible for all entry requirements into any particularcountry? Where are the entry requirements found?
A

(GOM, Ch 6)• The PIC• The manuals tab of Jeppesen FD Pro

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45
Q
  1. The Operations Control Center and the flight crew must notify whichUS agencies prior to every arrival?
A

(GOM, Ch 6)• Customs• Agriculture• Immigration

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46
Q
  1. If disinsection is required prior to entry into a particular country, whois recommended to disperse the spray?
A

(GOM, Ch 6)• A supernumerary

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47
Q
  1. You are westbound in the MNPS using ADS-C and when overflying40W, the ETA for 50W on the POS REPORT page of the CDU was2000z. You are now estimating 50W at 2003z, is any action required?
A

(Atlantic Hi Lo 1/2)• 3 minutes or more is a GNE• You must send a free text revised ETA to Gander as soon as possible.

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48
Q
  1. When does a charted non-compulsory reporting point become acompulsory reporting point in the Pacific?
A

(Pacific Hi Lo 1/2)• When the charted non-compulsory reporting point is on you flight plan routing strip.

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49
Q
  1. (Exhibit 2) On the Frankfurt UNOKO 07N arrival after crossingMANUV at FL150 you are cleared to “descend and maintain FL70”, dothe altitude restrictions on the arrival above FL70 still apply?
A

(FIB 12-05)• Yes, the charted altitude constraints remain mandatory, unless specificallycancelled by ATC.

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50
Q
  1. (EXHIBIT 3) You are filed for NAT X, which is CYMON, DENDU,51N050W, etc. You are requesting your oceanic clearance viadatalink. Identify the Oceanic entry point to be used for the DLCrequest.
A

(Atlantic Hi Lo 1/2)• DENDU

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51
Q
  1. List some of the approved methods for a reasonableness check priorto entry and after exiting MNPS airspace.
A

(GOM, Ch 6)• Current Position• Pre Selected Crossing Radial• Abeam Radial• Overhead• Radar

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52
Q
  1. (EXHIBIT 3) When not under radar control, what frequencies should bemonitored from DENDU to MALOT on the provided plotting chartexcerpt?
A

(MNPS Operations Manual)• 121.50• 123.45.• HF Primary, if no successful SELCAL check.

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53
Q
  1. When using CPDLC and ADS-C for ATC communication within the NorthAtlantic MNPS, what additional communication procedures, if any,are required?
A

(Atlantic Hi Lo 1/2)• Maintain a listening watch on HF, or obtain a SELCAL check.

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54
Q
  1. You are operating from Cincinnati to Leipzig. You are on J564 to YYR,direct LOACH Your ETA for TAFFY is 1500. And, your ETA for LOACH is1620. With whom and when will you logon using CPDLC? What is thelogon ID?
A

(AOM, Vol I, Ch SP) (CA (HI) 3/4)• Montcon• Not before 1435 and not later than 1450• CZQM

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55
Q
  1. You are flying through Western Europe in Class A airspace. Can youclimb using visual separation from adjacent traffic?
A

(GOM, Ch 6)• Yes. ICAO regulations and PANS RAC allow for IFR flights in day VMC tomaintain their own traffic separation.

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56
Q
  1. Can you deviate from your oceanic route for weather withoutattempting to get a deviation clearance?
A

(Atlantic Hi/Lo 1/2, Tab 2, mid panel)• No, you must attempt to get a deviation clearance. If you cannot obtain thedeviation clearance, you can deviate and obtain a deviation clearanceat the earliest possible time.

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57
Q
  1. (EXHIBIT 4) What does the highlighted field represent, on the METARat UHHH?
A

UHHH 031900Z 01007MPS CAVOK M07.M17 Q0998 NOSIG• Wind 010 At 7 Meters Per Second, (multiply by two, gives you 14 KNOTS)

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58
Q
  1. (EXHIBIT 4) What does the highlighted field represent, on the METARat UHHH?
A

UHHH 031900Z 01007MPS CAVOK M07.M17 Q0998 NOSIG• Ceiling And Visibility OK

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59
Q
  1. (EXHIBIT 4) What does the highlighted field represent, on the METAR at UHHH?
A

UHHH 031900Z 01007MPS CAVOK M07.M17 Q0998 NOSIG• No Significant Change in the next two hours.

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60
Q
  1. (EXHIBIT 4) Your ETA for EHAM is 0530Z. What is your expected wind,visibility and ceiling?
A

TAF EHAM 031647Z 0318/0424 VRB03KT CAVOKBECMG 0318/0321 07006KTPROB30TEMPO 0320/0323 7000 -RA BKN040BECMG 0404/0407 04012KT 6000 BKN008PROB40TEMPO 0405/0411 4000 -RABECMG 0410/0412 9999 NSW SCT015 BKN020TEMPO 0411/0419 7000 –RA

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61
Q
  1. (EXHIBIT 5) Decipher the weather in area “A” of the weather chart.
A

(GOM, Ch 4)• Area of moderate to severe turbulence from FL330 to below FL250.

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62
Q
  1. (EXHIBIT 5) Decipher the weather in area “B” of the weather chart.
A

(GOM, Ch 4)• Isolated imbedded CB with tops to FL360 and bases below FL250• Occasional imbedded CB with tops to FL370 and bases below FL250.• Jetsetream with a 120 knot core velocity at FL330.• Jetstream with a 100 knot core velocity at FL380.• Area of moderate turbulence from FL360 to below FL250.• Tropopause height of FL500

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63
Q
  1. (EXHIBIT 5) Decipher the weather in area “C” of the weather chart.
A

(GOM, Ch 4)• Jetstream with a 90 knot core velocity at FL290.• Area of moderate turbulence from FL270 to below FL250.• Tropopause height of FL340.• Highest height of the tropopause in the depicted grid of FL360

64
Q
  1. (EXHIBIT 5) Decipher the weather in area “D” of the weather chart.
A

(GOM, Ch 4)• Lowest Height of the Tropopause in the depicted grid of FL200.• Area of moderate turbulence below from FL360 to below FL250.

65
Q
  1. What is the VOLMET frequency found for Amsterdam and where is it found?
A

(Europe (HI) 1/2)• 126.2

66
Q
  1. You are on a North Atlantic Track and cannot maintain your altitude,describe inflight contingency procedure if inflight clearance cannot beobtained.
A

(Atlantic Hi/Lo 1/2, Tab 2, lower panel)• Turn at least 45 degrees.• Offset 15 NM from track centerline.• Maintain a flight level which differs from those normally used by 500feet, or 1000’ if above FL410.

67
Q
  1. You are at your re-release point and you were unable tocommunicate with the company to coordinate your re-release whendispatched under B044, what do you do?
A

(GOM, Ch 5)• Proceed to your initial destination, after coordinating with ATC.

68
Q
  1. You must divert to a new destination. Procedurally, what are thethree required steps for a diversion?
A

(GOM, Ch 5) (GOM, Ch 8) (AOM, Vol II, Ch 4)• Coordinate with flight following• Coordinate with ATC• Change the destination airport on RTE Page 1 of the FMS CDU

69
Q
  1. You have suffered the loss of two engines enroute. Your ETP airportof Halifax is closer than your ETP airport of Shannon. Are yourequired to divert to Halifax?
A

(GOM, Ch 8)• No• ETP airports are a planning exercise. Land at the nearest suitableairport, in point of time.

70
Q
  1. If your destination airport is changed while you are in flight, whatmust the Flight Follower accomplish?
A

(GOM, Ch 9)• Verify maximum takeoff and landing weights will not be affected.• Verify minimum fuel requirements.• Provide alternate routing.

71
Q
  1. When are you required to complete a plotting chart?
A

(GOM, Ch 6)• The use of a plotting chart is required for all operations where the routesegment between the operational service volume of ICAO standardNAVAIDs exceeds 725 nautical miles for all turbojet aircraft.

72
Q
  1. You have received your North Atlantic Clearance, but have not yetreached your Oceanic Entry Point, and you lose one Long RangeNavigation Unit, what do you do?
A

(OpSpec B039)• Notify ATC of the failure and do not enter Oceanic Airspace;Climb/Descend or fly a Contingency route.

73
Q
  1. When are the altimeters required to be recorded on the Master FlightPlan?
A

(GOM, Ch 5) (GOM, Ch 6)• Reasonableness/Gross Error Check• 10 minute plot on NAT• At least once per hour in RVSM on flight plan or plotting chart• After initially leveling in RVSM

74
Q
  1. You are entering the North Atlantic MNPS. You have requested yourclearance but have not yet obtained the three required elements ofroute, altitude and Mach Number. What should you do at theboundary?
A

(Atlantic (H/L) 1/2, Panel 1)• Continue at your last assigned altitude using the filed route and MachNumber. And, continue efforts to obtain a complete clearance. Do nothold.

75
Q
  1. If you lose the GPS input to the FMS, can you still perform Class IInavigation?
A

(OpSpec B036)• Yes.

76
Q
  1. (EXHIBIT 6) Identify the altitudes in box A on the New York LowEnroute chart.
A

(GOM, Ch 1)A. MEA of 5000’ (minimum en-route altitude; lowest altitude meeting terrain,signal and ATC clearance requirements) and MOCA of 1600’ (minimumobstruction clearance altitude; lowest altitude between fixes that providesobstacle clearance and signal coverage if within 22nm of a VOR)

77
Q
  1. (EXHIBIT 6) Identify the altitude in box B on the New York LowEnroute chart.
A

(GOM, Ch 1)B. GRID MORA of 3100’ (grid minimum off-route altitude; 1000’ obstacleclearance where peaks are 5000’ or lower, 2000’ obstacle clearancewhere peaks are 5001’ or higher)

78
Q
  1. (EXHIBIT 6) What does “MAA” stand for in box C on the New York LowEnroute chart.
A

(GOM, Ch 1)C. Maximum Authorized Alititude (maximum authorized altitude; maximumaltitude suitable for navaid signal reception)

79
Q
  1. On a Terminal Procedure, unless otherwise noted, what is the radiusof protection of the MSA in reference to the charted fix.
A

(GOM, Ch 1)• Unless otherwise depicted, 25nm from the fix depicted in the MSA ring.

80
Q
  1. (EXHIBIT 7) While on L626 between PALPA and SUKET you experiencea rapid decompression, how low are you going to descend? Whencanyou descend further?
A

• FL160 until SUKET and then 11500

81
Q
  1. When may the Special Engine Failure Procedure be disregarded if anengine fails after V1?
A

(GOM, Ch 6)• The Contingency Procedure is not mandatory for use in VMC. In theevent of an engine failure in VMC, the flight crew may “see and avoid” obstacles.

82
Q
  1. What is the difference between QNE and QNH?
A

(GOM, Ch 1)• QNE is 29.92 or 1013.2, and is set when passing transition altitude inthe climb.• QNH is the local altimeter setting and is set when descending belowtransition level. It is an altimeter setting which, when the aircraft is onthe ground, will allow the altimeter to indicate the height above MSL.

83
Q
  1. What is QFE and when is it used at Kalitta Air?
A

(GOM, Ch 1)• Actual surface barometric pressure not corrected to sea level. Analtimeter set to QFE will read zero on the ground.• QFE, while commonly used in Russian airspace, is not authorized foruse at Kalitta Air. QNH must be requested or determined byconverting QFE.

84
Q
  1. When crossing the FAF on an approach what is the PNF required todo?
A

(AOM Vol I, Ch NP)• Verify that the final approach altitude (as briefed) is correct in bothaltimeters.• No flags are present on either pilot’s PFD or ND.• State (Fix Name), Checked.

85
Q
  1. (EXHIBIT 8) Using the following ILS CAT II/III RWY 25L chart at KLAXdescribe the proper altimeter bug setting for both the BARO andRADIO altimeters.
A

(AOM Vol I, App A)• BARO altimeter bug not used for approach (set out of view).• RADIO Altimeter bug set to published RA of 107’ as DH or AH.

86
Q
  1. (EXHIBIT 9) Using the following ILS CAT II/III RWY 10L chart at KPITdescribe the proper altimeter bug setting for both the BARO andRADIO altimeters.
A

(AOM Vol I, App A)• BARO bug on DA of 1310”.• RADIO altimeter bug set below zero (out of view).

87
Q
  1. You are conducting an ILS Category III approach At 1000’ the FMAchanges to “LAND 2”. The AH is now a?
A

(AOM VOl I, App A)• The Alert Height (AH) becomes a Decision Height (DH).

88
Q
  1. In-flight, Where is the fuel temperature as indicated on the EICAStaken from?
A

(QRH, Ch 12)• Main tank 1

89
Q
  1. What is the minimum fuel temperature and what should be done if the fuel temperature decreases below the minimum?
A

(QRH, Ch 12)• 3 degrees C above the fuel freeze point• Increase speed or change altitude or deviate to a warm air mass or allthree to achieve a TAT above the fuel temperature limit

90
Q
  1. What resource would you use to identify the Fuel Freeze point for thetype of fuel being used?
A

(QRH, Ch 12)• QRH, Ch 12.

91
Q
  1. If the fuel temperature system fails, what will you use as a source forfuel temperature?
A

(QRH, Ch 12)• The total air temperature indication.

92
Q
  1. What is the required information to be included in a position report?
A

(GOM, Ch 6)• Aircraft identification• Position• Time• Altitude or flight level• ETA and name of next reporting point• Name of next succeeding reporting point

93
Q
  1. What is Kalitta Air’s ATS code?
A

(GOM, Ch 9)• CKS, not to be confused with the IATA Airline I.D. of K4

94
Q
  1. If HF communication is lost while in Oceanic Airspace what othercommunication options are available for position reporting?
A

(Atlantic Hi/Lo 1/2, Tab 11 upper panel)• SATCOM via charted phone numbers• Use VHF to contact any other ATC agency• Inter-pilot air-to-air 123.45 to relay through other aircraft• ACARS

95
Q
  1. During your entry into Gander Oceanic Airspace you request a SELCALcheck and the check is unsuccessful. What should you do?
A

(Atlantic Hi/Lo 1/2, Tab 2 middle panel)• Maintain listening watch on the primary assigned HF frequency?

96
Q
  1. In remote ocean areas when communicating via HF radio, are youspeaking directly to ATC?
A

(GOM, Ch6)• No, you are speaking to a radio operator only. Clearances are issuedby ATC and relayed to you through these radio operators.

97
Q
  1. When is an ACARS In Range report required to be sent by the crew?
A

(AOM Vol I, Ch SP)• When there is a maintenance discrepancy entered in the aircraftlogbook.• When operating on an AMC flight and you are unable to contact BaseOperations 30 minutes prior to landing.

98
Q
  1. With the use of CPDLC/ADS-C, separation of aircraft will be?
A

(CPDLC Presentation)• Laterally? 30nm• Longitudinally? 30nm or 50nm, depending on the airspace.

99
Q
  1. Is pilot action required to send ADS-C position reports?
A

(CPDLC Presentation)• No pilot action is required.

100
Q
  1. If ADS-C is not available from a particular ATSU, what is the positionreporting procedure using CPDLC?
A

(AOM Vol I, Ch SP)• Report over all compulsory reporting points• Send an ATC position report from the Position Report Page of the FMS.

101
Q
  1. When must you accomplish an ADS/CPDLC Logon, if required, usingthe ATC LOGON/STATUS page?
A

(AOM Vol I, Ch SP)• 10-25 minutes prior to entry into ADS CPDLC airspace

102
Q
  1. What page would you go to verify if the Data Link is Ready?
A

(AOM Vol I, Ch SP)• Either by selecting the FMC COMM button or selecting ATC, thenLOGON/STATUS.

103
Q
  1. Under what condition would you select ADS OFF?
A

(AOM Vol I, Ch SP)• Unless ATC has requested you to select it off, it is Kalitta Air policy notto select ADS OFF.

104
Q
  1. When reporting by ADS-C only, can flight crews remove non-compulsory ATC waypoints?
A

(CPDLC Presentation)• Although physically possible, it is not permitted.

105
Q
  1. What is the required response time for an ATC uplink? What do youdo if you cannot respond in time?
A

(AOM Vol I, Ch SP)• One minute.• Send a STANDBY response.

106
Q
  1. After receipt of a “Conditional Clearance” the PNF should?
A

(AOM Vol I, Ch SP)• Leave the ATC UPLINK page displayed until the clearance has beencomplied with.• Print the ATC UPLINK page and place the printout where both pilotscan see it until the clearance has been complied with.

107
Q
  1. While using CPDLC to communicate with ATC, the EICAS message“DATALINK LOST” appears. What do you do?
A

(AOM Vol I, Ch SP)• Revert to voice communications.• Attempt to re-establish data link IAW the ACARS SupplementalProcedures.

108
Q
  1. You are ready to taxi in N741CK. What is the maximum the aircraftcan weigh?
A

(AOM Vol I, Ch L)• 873,000

109
Q
  1. You are in N745CK and have just received your weight and balance form.The zero fuel weight shows 612,754. Is any action required?
A

(AOM Vol I, Ch L)• You must remove enough payload to return the ZFW within limits.

110
Q
  1. You are in Europe. It is a grey and rainy day. Your intended landingrunway is not shown as grooved on the 10-9A airport chart. Brakingaction is reported as a “.30” on a Tapley report. What is your maximumrecommended crosswind component?
A

(AOM Vol I, Ch L) (QRH, Ch AP)• 20 knots

111
Q
  1. You are conducting a Category III approach. The approach chart indicatesa threshold crossing height of 39 feet. What is thesignificance?
A

(AOM Vol I, Ch L)• The minimum autoland threshold crossing height is 40 feet

112
Q
  1. You are conducting an RNAV approach, using VNAV as the pitchmode. When must the autopilot be disconnected?
A

(AOM Vol I, Ch L)• 50 feet below MDA

113
Q
  1. What is the maximum permitted depth of dry snow for takeoff? For landing?
A

(AOM Vol I, Ch L)• Takeoff – 2.4 inches• Landing – 4.0 inches

114
Q
  1. You are in Amsterdam on a grey and rainy day. The runway is wetand the breaking action has been reported as “4”. What is the maximumcrosswind component for landing?
A

(AOM Vol I, Ch L)• 30 knots

115
Q
  1. You are conducting an ILS approach to a runway with a prevailingvisibility of ¾ nautical miles. Is the flight director required to be on?
A

(AOM Vol I, Ch L)• No

116
Q
  1. What must a person do to enter the main deck in flight?
A

(AOM Vol I, Ch L)• He or she must carry a portable oxygen bottle to enter the main deck inflight.

117
Q
  1. You are conducting a flight with a payload that requires ballastfuel to bring the zero fuel weight CG within limits. What is themaximum amount of required fuel that can be shown on the flight release?
A

(AOM Vol I, Ch L) (AOM Vol II, Ch 12)• Approximately 244,000 pounds (244,416 @ 6.7 lb.gal)

118
Q

What are the Memory Items for an Engine Fire on the ground?

A

(BC-1)ENGINE FAILURE ON THE GROUNDFUEL CONTROL switch (affected engine)…………………CUTOFFENGINE FIRE ON THE GROUNDFUEL CONTROL switch (affected engine)…………………CUTOFFEngine Fire switch (affected engine)…………………………….PULLEngine Fire switch (affected engine)…………………………ROTATEEngine Fire switch (affected engine)……..ROTATE (to other bottle)

119
Q

What are the memory items for a multiple engine failure in flight?

A

(QRH, Ch 7)EGN 1, 2, 3, 4 FAIL (TWO or MORE ENGINES)FUEL CONTROL switches(affected engines)……………….……CONFIRM, CUTOFF, then RUNEGT…………………………………….………………………..MONITOR If EGT rapidly approaches the takeoff EGT limit, repeat step 1 as necessary.NOTE:EGT indication will turn red if the EGT exceeds the ground/single engine in-flight start limit; however, for the multi-engine in-flight start, the start EGT limit reverts to the takeoff limit.If high speed buffet occurs during the maneuver, relax pitch force as necessary to reduce buffet, but continue the maneuver.

120
Q

You have arrived on stand. Parking brake is set, engines 1,2,& 3 are shut down, and engine 4 is running as you await the connection of ground power. Suddenly, the marshaller gives you the signal for a fire on engine 4. With no master fire warning illuminated, what recall items should be accomplished?

A

(QRH, Ch 8)FIRE ENGINE TAILPIPEFUEL CONTROL switch (affected engine)……………….…..CUTOFF

121
Q

A hung start occurs after starter cutout, as indicated by the engine failing to accelerate 90 seconds after fuel control switch placed to run. What recall item should be accomplished?(This memory item is no longer in the QRH)

A

(QRH, Ch 8)

122
Q

An engine has failed in flight. N1 rotation and oil pressure are indicated. The EICAS message ENG 1 FAIL appears. What recall items should be accomplished?

A

(QRH, Ch 7)• None. There are no recall items associated with an engine failure. The appropriate QRH should be called for by the PF.

123
Q

What are the Memory Items for EICAS message “ENG 1 AUTOSTART”?

A

(QRH, Ch 7)ENG 1, 2, 3, 4 AUTOSTART (ABORTED ENGINE START)FUEL CONTROL switch………………………………..……….CUTOFF

124
Q

What are the Memory Items for the Engine Limit/Surge/Stall condition?

A

(QRH, Ch 7)ENGINE LIMIT/SURGE/STALLTHRUST LEVER (affected engine)…………………….……….RETARDRetard until indications stay within normal limits, or return to normal, or the thrust lever is closed.

125
Q

What are the Memory Items for the EICAS message “FIRE MAIN DECK”?

A

(QRH, Ch 8)FIRE MAIN DECK FIRE MN DK AFT, FWD, MIDDon the oxygen masks.Establish crew communications.

126
Q

What are the Memory Items for the EICAS message “CABIN ALTITUDE”?

A

(QRH, Ch 2)CABIN ALTITUDEDon the oxygen masks.Establish crew communications.

127
Q

What are the Memory Items for the EICAS message “FIREWHEEL WELL”?

A

(QRH, Ch 2)FIRE WHEEL WELLWhen extending or retracting the landing gear, do not exceed the gear EXTEND limit speed (270K/.82M).Landing gear lever…………………………………………………DNThis attempts to remove and extinguish the fire source

128
Q

Minimum turning radius for the Boeing 747 with and without body gear steering available?

A

(AOM Vol I, Ch NP) (AOM Vol II, Ch 1)• 153ft and 170ft

129
Q
  1. What is the wing span of the B-747-400?
A

(AOM Vol II, Ch 1)• 211ft 5in

130
Q
  1. When are the emergency lights automatically activated?
A

(AOM Vol II, Ch 1)• When DC Power Fails

131
Q
  1. What is the operating life of the emergency lights?
A

(AOM Vol II, Ch 1)• 15 minutes

132
Q
  1. When are the landing lights at their maximum intensity?
A

(AOM Vol II, Ch 1)• 15 minutes

133
Q
  1. When do the NO SMOKING and FASTEN SEAT BELT signs automatically illuminate regardless of switch position?
A

(AOM Vol II, Ch 1)• Supernumerary oxygen on

134
Q
  1. What is the primary emergency exit for the flight crew and supernumeraries?
A

(AOM Vol I, Ch NP) (QRH, back cover)• Left and Right Upper Deck Doors/Crew Service Doors

135
Q
  1. What is the maximum pressure drop during an O2 preflight test?
A

(AOM Vol II, Ch 1)• 30 psi

136
Q
  1. The escape rope, at door L1, is located where?
A

(AOM Vol II, Ch 1)• In the upper door sill

137
Q
  1. What breathing apparatus should be used for investigating a smoke or fire condition? What breathing apparatus should be used for fighting a fire?
A

(AOM Vol II, Ch 1) (QRH, Ch 8)• PBE for both

138
Q

What system or systems would be inoperative with both the left and right Isolation Valves closed?

A

(AOM Vol II, Ch 2)• Trim Air• Aft Cargo Heat• Potable Water Head Pressure• Cargo Smoke Detection• Number 2 Pack

139
Q
  1. What controls the output temperature of all packs?
A

(AOM Vol II, Ch 2)• The zone requiring the coldest temperature

140
Q
  1. With the Lower Lobe Conditioned Airflow Rate Selector (LLCAFR) switch in the OFF position, what is the temperature range available with the Lower Lobe Temperature Selector?
A

(AOM Vol II, Ch 2)• The Lower Lobe Temperature Selector is inoperative with the LLCAFER switch in the OFF position.

141
Q
  1. What determines when the packs will go to Normal Flow?
A

(AOM Vol II, Ch 2)• When the aircraft has arrived at the cruise altitude entered in the FMS.

142
Q
  1. What will illuminate the bleed SYS FAULT light?
A

(AOM Vol II, Ch 2)• Bleed air overheat, or• Bleed air overpressure, or• HP bleed valve open when commanded closed, or• PRV open when commanded closed

143
Q
  1. With the SYS FAULT light illuminated, is reversing available on landing?
A

(AOM Vol II, Ch 2)• Yes, unless an overheat condition exists or the start valve is not closed.

144
Q
  1. What unit in the bleed air system reduces bleed temperature?
A

(AOM Vol II, Ch 2)• Fan air precooler

145
Q
  1. When the Engine Bleed Air Switch is selected off, what valves close?
A

(AOM Vol II, Ch 2)• PRV• HP

146
Q
  1. In an aircraft equipped with the NASI ECO system, what is the cockpit indication that the packs are in normal flow? What is indicated on the ECS Synoptic Page?
A

(AOM Vol II, Ch 2)• The NORM legend in the ECO switch• The ECS Synoptic Page indicates HI FLOW

147
Q
  1. With the Engine Bleed Air Switch off, and no fault detected, what components are available?
A

(AOM Vol II, Ch 2)• Thrust Reverse• Nacelle Anti Ice

148
Q
  1. Under what circumstances must Nacelle Anti Ice be selected ON on the ground?
A

(AOM Vol I, Ch SP)• When the OAT is 10 degrees C or below and visible moisture is present.• Where surface snow, ice standing water or slush are present.

149
Q
  1. What are the engine run up procedures with Nacelle Anti Ice selected ON?
A

(AOM Vol I, Ch SP)• 60% N1, for 30 seconds every 30 minutes, and• For 30 seconds just prior to the start of the takeoff roll

150
Q
  1. When is anti-fogging available to the windows?
A

(AOM Vol II, Ch 3)• When AC electrical power is supplied to the aircraft

151
Q
  1. How do you reset a windshield heat controller fault?
A

(AOM Vol II, Ch 3)• When AC electrical power is supplied to the aircraft

152
Q
  1. When are the TAT probes heated?
A

(AOM Vol II, Ch 3)• Window heat switch off for 10 seconds, then on

153
Q
  1. If heavy rain or hail are encountered in descent, what is required?
A

(AOM Vol I, Ch SP)• Continuous Ignition Switch to on• Autothrottles disconnect

154
Q
  1. What is required if operation is conducted in moderate to severe icing conditions for prolonged periods with the N1 less than 70%?
A

(AOM Vol I, Ch SP)• Increase thrust on one engine at a time to a minimum of 70% N1 for 10 to 30 seconds every 10 minutes.

155
Q
  1. What does the careted EICAS message “>ICING NAC” mean?
A

(QRH, Ch 3)• Ice detector detects ice and any nacelle anti ice system is off in flight.

156
Q
  1. What does the careted EICAS message “>ANTI ICE” mean?
A

(QRH, Ch 3)• Any nacelle or wing anti ice system is on and the TAT is greater than 12 degrees C, or the Ice Detector does not detect ice.

157
Q
  1. On descent into Delhi with convective activity in all quadrants, what steps must be taken to improve engine flameout margins with TAT below 10 degrees C?
A

(AOM Vol I, Ch SP)• Pack Hi Flow Switch to ON• Nacelle Anti Ice Switches ON• Below 22,000 feet, Wing Anti Ice Switch ON

Kalitta 747-400 Systems (18 decks)

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