Liver and Friends Flashcards

1
Q

what are the functions of the liver

A
  • carb metabolism
  • fat metabolism
  • protein metabolism
  • hormone metabolism
  • toxin/drug metabolism and excretion
  • storsage
  • bilirubin metabolism and excretion
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2
Q

where is iron used in the body?

A

in myoglobin in muscles (300mg)

in haemoglobin in erythrocytes (1,800mg)

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3
Q

where in the body is iron stored?

A
  • 1,000 mg stored in the liver parenchyma
  • 600mg stored in reticuloendothelial macrophages
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4
Q

what is ferritin?

A
  • cytosolic protein that stores iron
    • small amounts are secreted into the plasma where it acts as an iron carrier
  • it acts as a buffer against iron deficiency and iron overload
  • plasma ferritin can be used as a marker of overall iron levels stored in the body
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5
Q

problems that can cause ferritin excess

A
  • excess iron storage disorders
    • haemolytic anaemia
    • hereditary haemochromatosis
    • iron replacement therapy
  • non iron overload:
    • liver disease
    • malignancies
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6
Q

ferritin deficiency

A

iron deficiency is the only known cause of low ferritin

this can result in anaemia

if ferritin is < 20 µg/L this indicates depletion

if ferritin is less than 12 µg/L then this suggests a complete absense of stored iron

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7
Q

difference between RDA and AI

A
  • recommended daily allowance
  • AI is adequate intake which is for when there is no RDA
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8
Q

retinal sources

A
  • humans need to make retinal from vitamin A
    • vit a includes retinal and carotines
  • they can either absorb it directly from meat or produce
  • or they can synthesise it form carotines (found in carrots)
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9
Q

functions of vitamin A

A
  • vision
  • reproduction
  • growth
  • stabilising cellular membranes
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10
Q

vit a deficiency

A
  • blindness
  • night blindness
  • xeropthalmia
  • rare in developed countries as the liver stores vitamin A well
  • it could be as a consequence of fat malabsorbtion
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11
Q

vitamin A excess

A
  • acute
    • abdo pain
    • headaches, dizziness, sluggishness and irritability
    • desquamation of the skin
  • chronic
    • joint and bone pain
    • hair loss, dryness of the lips
    • anorexia
    • weight loss and hepatomegaly
  • carotenemia
    • reversible yellowing of the skin
    • does not cause toxicity
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12
Q

vitamin D

A
  • increases intestinal absorbtion of Ca2+
  • promotes resorption and formation of the bone
  • deficiency
    • demineralisation of the bone
    • causes rickets in children
    • causes osteomalicia (soft bones) in adults
    • parathyroid gland secretes PTH
  • sun acts on a cholesterol derivative in the skin to form vitamin D3
  • both D2 and D3 can be from dietary intake
  • inthe liver and kidneys these are processed into 1,25 dihydroxyvitamin D which does the job of maintaining calcium uptake
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13
Q

Vitamin E

A
  • stored in non-adipose cells such as liver and plasma
  • there’s also a fixed pool in the adipose cells
  • it’s an important antioxidant
  • requirements in men
    • 4mg/day
  • requirements in women
    • 3mg/day
  • deficiency caused by
    • fat malabsorbtion (e.g. CF)
    • prem infants
  • deficiency causes
    • haemolytic anaemia
    • myopathy
    • retinopathy
    • neuropathy
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14
Q

Vitamin K

A
  • rapidly taken up by the liver
  • then transferred into very low density lipoproteins and low density lipoproteins which carry it into the plasma
  • sources:
    • vitamin K1
      • present in leafy GREEEEEEEEENS
    • vitamin K2
      • synthesised by intestinal bacteria
    • K3 and K4 are synthetic versions
  • Necessary for activation of clotting factors 10, 7, 9 and 2
  • deficiency
    • haemorrhagic disease of the newborn
    • rare in adults unless they are on warfarin
  • excess?
    • k1 relatively safe
    • synthetic versions are more dangerous
  • could cause oxidative damage, red cell fragility
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15
Q

water soluble vitamins

A
  • move more quickly through the body and therefore require more regular intake than fat soluble
  • they include
    • C
    • B12
    • folate (one of the B vitamins)
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16
Q

Vitamin C

A
  • found in citrus fruits
  • adults need 40mg/day
  • functions:
    • collagen synthesis
    • carnitine sunthesis
    • neurotransmitter synthesis
    • antioxidant
    • iron absorbtion
  • deficiency = scurvy within 50-100 days without VC
    • teeth and gum disease
    • easy bruising
    • hair loss
  • treatment for scurvy with vitamin C very quickly relieves symptoms
    • full recovery within 48 hours
  • excess
    • some GI side effects
    • no evidence that vitamin c reduces the incidence or duration of colds
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17
Q

vitamin B12

A
  • Found in fish eggs meat and milk
  • binds to R proteins which protect it from destruction in the stomach
  • IF is produced by parietal cells
  • IF-B12 complex is absorbed in the terminal ileum
  • B12 is then stored in the liver
  • deficiency caused by
    • pernicious anaemia
    • malabsorbtion
    • veganism
  • symptoms
    • macrocytic anaemia
    • peripheral neuropathy in prolonged deficiency
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18
Q

folate

A
  • found in many foods
  • a type of vitamin B
  • higher requirements during pregnancy
  • coenzyme for methylation reactions so is needed for DNA synthesis
  • deficiency caused by:
    • malabsorbtion
    • drugs (e.g. methotrexate)
    • diseases that increase cell turnover (e.g. leukaemia)
  • deficiency symptoms:
    • macrocytic anaemia
    • foetal development abnormalities - involving neural tube
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19
Q

clotting factors produced in the liver

A
  • I (fibrinogen)
  • II (prothrombin)
  • IV
  • V
  • VI
  • VII
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20
Q

measuring clotting factor performance

A

prothrombin time (extrinsic pathway)

international normalised ratio

Activated partial thromboplastin time (intrinsic pathway

an increased PT could mean liver disease but is not specific to liver disease

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21
Q

what are xenobiotics

A
  • foreign substances that are not normally found in the body and which cannot be used for energy
  • can be absorbed from the lungs, skin or ingested
  • drugs are xenobiotics
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22
Q

xenobiotic metabolism

A
  • the kidney only excretes water soluble material so xenobiotics need to be converted to hydrophillic metabolites for excretion
  • most of this metabolism takes place in the liver
  • it normally happens in two phases
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23
Q

biotransformation reactions

A
  • some compounds can be excreted after phase I
  • some compounds go on to phase II without a phase I
  • most biotransformation occurs in the SER
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24
Q

Cytochrome P450 enzymes

A
  • responsible for most phase I reactions
  • there are at least 10 main groups of cytochrome-P450 enzymes
  • they are encoded by a family of 57 genes
  • features they all have in common:
    • present in SER
    • oxidise substrate and reduce oxygen
      • in electron transport chain, cytochromes reduce O2 as the final electron acceptor
    • have a reductase unit which utilises NADPH
    • generate reactive free radicals
    • inducible
      • sustained exposure to substances leads to up-regulation
      • patients may need increasingly large doses
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25
Q

one cytochrome-P450 isoform to remember

A
  • CYP3A4
  • it is involved in the metabolism of about 50% of all clinically prescribed drugs
    • statins
  • in the above the 3 refers to the subfamily and the A4 refers to the isoenzyme
  • Grapefruit juice inhibits CYP3A4 causing increased blood levels of the drug
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26
Q

anti-psychotics and smoking

A
  • clozapine is an anti-psychodit med
  • undergoes serious hepatic metabolism by cytochromes
  • CYP1A2 is considered to be the main one
  • CYP1A2 is induced by smoking
  • smoking cessation while on clozapine needs to be accompanied by a dose reduction of 30-50%
  • dose should be increased if someone on clozapine takes up smoking
  • things that do the same thing as smoking:
    • grilled meat
    • rifampicin
  • Antibiotic ciprofloxacin inhibit CYP1A2 resulting in higher concentration of clozapine
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27
Q

Four outcomes of drug metabolism

A
  1. active drug to inactive metabolite
  2. active drug to active metabolite
  3. inactive drug to active metabolite
  4. active drug to reactive intermediate (may be toxic)
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28
Q

inactivation of a xenobiotic example

A
  • Phenolarbitol is a sedative and anti-epileptic
  • lipophilic so distributes into fat tissue
  • so only a small amount of active drug is dissolved in plasma and can be excreted by kidneys
  • elimination requires
    • phase I: introduction of a functional group (OH group)
    • phase II: conjugation (to either a glucaronic acid or a sulphate)
  • products are polar enough to dissolve and be excreted by the kidneys
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29
Q

example of an active drug being converted to an active metabolite

A
  • morphine is a metabolite of codeine
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30
Q

inactive drug to active metabolite example

A
  • nitroglycerin is metabolised by cytochrome p450 enzymes to produce NO as the active principle
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31
Q

active drug to reactive intermediate (toxification of xenobiotics)

A
  • benzo(a)pyrene from cigarette smoke is converted to very reactive carcinogenic metabolites
  • paracetamol is another one
    • the product is innocuous and easily excreted
    • but the intermediate NAPQI is toxic
    • if it’s taken at therapeutic doses then not too much damage can be caused before the intermediate is excreted
    • if taken in overdose it overwhelms the phase II enzymes and causes cell damage
    • hepatocytes worst affected because they have the highest quantity of cytochrome enzymes
    • the person may develop fulminant hepatic failure
    • has the same cytochrome enzyme as alcohol
    • because it’s inducible, more paracetamol is metabolised to NAPQI in people who drink more
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32
Q

Phase I reactions

A
  • oxidation, reduction or hydrolysis reactions to expose functional groups
  • this is so that phase II reactions can take place
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33
Q

Phase II reactions

A
  • these are conjugation reactions to make the compound more water-soluble
  • glucoronidation is the most common phase II reaction
  • transferase enzymes are mainly responsible for phase II reactions
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34
Q

phase II enzymes can be:

A
  • Microsomal
    • found in SER
    • inducible by drugs and diet
  • Non-microsomal
    • found in cytoplasm and mitochondria of hepatocytes
    • non inducible
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35
Q

pseudocholinesterase

A
  • a non-microsomal enzyme that acts on succinylcholine
  • succinylcholine is a muscle relaxant that is used in anaesthesia
  • normally 90-95% of succinycholine is inactivated by pseudocholinesterase
  • this means only 5-10% of the drug reaches the neuromuscular junction and paralysis onlu lasts about 5-10 minutes
  • in pseudocholinesterase deficiency, paralysis could last 8 hours
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36
Q

metabolism of ethanol

A
  • doesn’t fit phase I and phase II because it doesn’t need to be conjugated for excretion
  • only 2-10% is urinated out though because it is used in the liver as a dietary fuel
  • this is mainly via the enzyme alcohol dehydrogenase
  • ADH creates the toxic intermediate acetaldehyde
  • theres another route which uses cytochrome P450 enzymes
    • normally this only accounts for about 20%
    • but chronic alcohol use can INDUCE 5-10 times as much of the cytochrome p450 enzyme
    • this also produces toxic acetaldehyde
    • it just does it at a very fast rate and overwhelms the enzymes responsible for clearing the acetaldehyde
    • this means that it accumulates in the liver and causes damage
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37
Q

main source and loss of nitrogen in the body

A

source: dietary protein
loss: gut and kidneys (as urea)

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38
Q

metabolic use of amino acids

A
  • body maintains a pool of free amino acids in the blood
  • in the fed state the net contributor is the diet
  • in the fasting state the main contributor is skeletal muscle
  • bodily protein is in constant turn-over
    • degradation via lysosomal and ubiquitin pathways
    • protein resynthesis
  • amino acids can be used to:
    • make protein
    • make other nitrogenous products
    • synthesise glucose by first removing the amino group
  • removed nitrogen is excreted in urea
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39
Q

recommended dietary protein

A

0.75g/kg/day

50-60g in normal adults

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40
Q

what is the nitrogen balance

examples of positive and negative nitrogen balance

A

where intake and excretion of nitrogen is roughly equal

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41
Q

important derivatives of glycine

A
  1. haem
  2. creatinine
  3. purine bases
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42
Q

important derivatives of aspartate

A
  1. purine bases
  2. pyrimidine bases
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43
Q

important derivatives of tyrosine

A

dopamine

catecholamines

thyroid hormones

melanin

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44
Q

How much total body protein is turned over each day?

How much is excreted as nitrogen?

A

1-2% of total bodily protein

20-30g of bodily protein

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45
Q

Why are blisters firm?

A
  • high amount of protein in the exudate
  • this draws water in
  • this is why burns are accompanied by sucha acute protein loss
    • widespread tissue damage
    • lots of protein lost in the exudate
    • increased metabolic requirement for protein at the SAME time as increased protein loss
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46
Q

Two different types of protein degradation

A

Lysosomal and non-lysosomal

  • Lysosomal
    • takes place in the reticulo endothelial system of the liver
    • sinusoidal epithelial cells
    • kupffer cells - immune cells of the liver
    • pit cells
  • Non-lysosomal degradation
    • Normally in a proteasome and is ubiquitin dependent
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47
Q

Protein digestion summary and enzymes

A
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48
Q

why might the body degrade proteins

A
  1. faulty/aging/obsolete proteins
  2. as a part of signal transduction
  3. as part of a flexible system that needs to meet the energy requirements of its environment
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49
Q

ubiquitin

A
  • tag for degradation by the proteosome
  • it’s a small protein
  • three enzymes are involved in making the chains
    1. E1: ubiquitin-activating enzyme
    2. E2: ubiquitin-conjugating enzyme
    3. E3: ubiquitin-protein ligase
  • the longer the chain the stronger the signal
    • especially if it’s >4
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50
Q

Protein half lives

A
  • some are short and some are long and it’s dependent on their N terminal residues
    • some amino acids at the N terminus have a stabilising effect
    • some amino acids at the N terminus have a destabilising effect
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51
Q

Ubiquitin targets

A
  • PEST sequence
    • proline, glutamic acid, serine and threonine all found in a region of 12aas
    • these sequences promote ubiquiting chain formation
    • they normally only become exposed when catabolism is needed
  • Cyclin destruction box
    • similar to PEST but found on cyclins
    • obviously need to be degraded very rapildy - CDKs and cell cycle
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52
Q

Proteosome

A
  • Central proteosome with two regulatory caps
  • one cap at either end
  • the caps are what binds the polyubiquitin
  • the cap unfolds the protein and feeds it into the central cylinder
  • amino acids released by this process are re-cycled into new proteins
  • those that aren’t are rapidly degraded by the urea cycle
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53
Q

what happens to excess amino acids

A
  • they are degraded by the urea cycle
  • regardless of their source they are not stored
  • those which aren’t immediately incorporated into proteins are degraded
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54
Q

what are the names of enymes that attach and remove phosphate

A
  • attach: kinase
  • remove: phosphatase
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55
Q

three amino acids in animals that can be phosphorylated

A
  • serine
  • threonine
  • tyrosine
  • ratio of phsophorylation is 1000:100:1 (in the order above)
  • even though the level of tyrosine phosphorylation is minor, the effect is huge
    • BCR-Abl is a constitutively active tyrosine kinase
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56
Q

Two forms of malnutrition

A
  • merasmus
    • severe wasting simply form insufficient calorie intake
    • cancer cachexia
    • anorexia
  • Kwashiokor
    • swelling of the abdomen
    • caused by hypoalbuminaemic oedema
    • caloric intake is adequate but protein is not
    • fatty liver
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57
Q

THE FIVE KEY PLAYERS IN AMINO ACID CATABOLISM

A
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58
Q

Lysosomal degradation: 4 types

A
  • Macroautophagy
    • non-selective ER deriveed autophagosomes engulf cytosolic proteins/aggregates/organelles
    • fuses with lysosome to initiate degradation
  • Microautophagy
    • non-selective invaginations of lysosomal membranes engulf proteins/organelles
  • Chaperone mediated autophagy
    • chaperones take proteins to lysosomes in response to stressors
  • Endocytosis/phagocytosis
    • degradation of extracellular substances
59
Q

control of appetite

A
  • Ghrelin increases appetite
  • Leptin decreaes appetite
60
Q

leptin

A
  • in normal weight people it suppresses appetite
  • in the obese there are very high leptin levels
  • you get leptin resistance
61
Q

Ghrelin

A

increases before meals and stimulates the appetite

62
Q

Glucose alanine cycle - can you draw the diagram and can you describe the function

A
  • alanine is the principle ammonia scavenger
  • glutamate collects the ammonia
  • ALT shifts the amino group from the glutamate to pyruvate
  • this forms an alanine
  • alanine travels in the blood to the liver where the reverse happens
  • the NH4+ produced is then turned into urea via the urea cycle
  • the pyruvate produced is turned into glucose by gluconeogenesis
  • solves two problems with one cycle. moves carbon atoms of pyruvate, as well as excess ammonia, from muscle to liver as alanine. in the liver the alanine gives pyruvate (for gluconeogenesis) and releases ammonia for conversion into urea. The energetic burden of gluconeogenesis being imposed on the liver rather than muscle, so that muscle ATP can be devoted to muscle contraction
63
Q

most important protein produced by the liver

A

albumin and clotting factors

64
Q

albumin

A
  • 9-12g produced by the liver each day but can be increased 3x
  • leaves the circulation via the interstitium
  • returns via the thoracic duct
  • it’s an anticoagulant
  • it maintains the colloid osmnotic pressure
  • it’s important for binding and transport of other particles
65
Q

effect of hepatic injury on clotting

A
  • reduced production of clotting factors
  • reduced synthesis of inhibitors of coagulation (e.g. albumin)
  • reduced hepatic clearance of activated clotting factors
  • platelet abnormalities
    • number and function
66
Q

what is the blood supply of the liver?

A
  • Afferent:
    • 75% from the Portal Vein
    • 25% from the Hepatic artery
  • Efferent:
    • Hepatic Veins directly into IVC
67
Q

What is the portal triad?

A
  1. bile duct
  2. portal vein
  3. hepatic artery

In microanatomy 6 portal triads surround one central vein

68
Q

Saturated and Unsaturated Fats

A
  • Saturated:
    • non bent
    • so can line up tight
    • solid at room temperature
  • Unsaturated
    • kinked - either cis or trans
    • less lightly packed
    • either mono or poly (MUFAs or PUFAs)
    • oils
69
Q

how many calories do lipids yield per gram

A

9

70
Q

functions of lipids

A
  • energy reserve
  • necessary for some cellular functions
  • necessary for all cell membranes
  • necessary for hormone metabolism
  • necessary for ADEK absorbtion
  • cholesterol is the backbone of adrenocorticoids and sex hormones
  • cholesterol is also the backbone of vitamin D
71
Q

energy reserves in blood glucose

A

40 kcal

lasts a few mins

72
Q

energy reserves of body glycogen

A

600 kcal

this would last a day

it’s mainly stored in the liver but some in the muscle too

73
Q

energy reserves of body lipids

A

100000kcal

this can last us from 30-40 days

74
Q

in what form are lipids transported?

A
  • predominantly as triglycerides or fatty acids bound to albumin or as other lipoproteins
  • remember TGs cannot diffuse across cell membranes so lipases release FAs to facilitate transport into the cell
75
Q

Fatty acid uptake

A
  • once they’ve been broken down from TG the FAs can diffuse across the membrane
  • they can also undergo facilitated transport
    • if there is increased FA (supply)
    • or if there is increased receptors (demand)
76
Q

Fatty Acid Transporter systems

Can you draw the diagram?

A
  • FA binding protein
    • this can be induced by increased fatty acid uptake by the cell
  • FAT - fatty acid translocase
  • FATP - fatty acid transport polypeptide
77
Q

effect of insulin on lipid metabolism

A
  • promotes fat storage in adipodicytes
  • stimulates LPL –> breakdown of TG & release of FFA to be transported to adipocytes and stored as TG
  • reduces activity of hormone sensitive lipase to reduce FA export from adipocytes
78
Q

Insulin resistance:

A
  • increased lipolysis in adipocytes leading to increased TG in the circulation
  • increased supply of FA to adipocytes which leads to increased uptake
  • this is often coupled with high glucose
  • this means less demand for lipids from the liver to be used for energy
  • this means that a fatty liver will ensue
    • more fat to the liver
    • less fat from the liver used
79
Q

insulin resistance and fatty acid uptake (adipocytes and hepatocytes) can you draw the diagram

A
80
Q

De novo lipogenesis in the liver

A
  • Dependent on insulin conc and sensitivity
    • more insulin = more lipid synthesis &vv
  • the liver does this to create lipids for:
    • energy source
    • as stuctural components for cells
  • the liver does this by serially lengthening Acetyl-CoA via:
    • decarboxylative condensation reactions
  • the rate limiting step is:
    • Acetyl-Coa –> Malonyl CoA via Acetyl CoA carboxylase
  • Also related to the amount of FAS (fatty acid synthetase)
81
Q

FAS

A
  • expressed predominantly in the liver
  • activated by insulin
  • inactivated by glucagon
  • negative feedback: increased FAS in hepatocytes decreases FAS synthesis
82
Q

Cholesterol

A
  • liver is the major organ that produces cholesterol
  • 90% of cholesterol is endogenous
  • the only export of cholesterol is through bile
83
Q

Fatty acid export from the liver

A
  • ApoB100 is synthesised in the rER
  • Lipid components are synthesised in the sER and added to ApoB
  • ApoB complex is transported to the golgi where it’s glycosylated
  • glycosylated Apo’s bud off the golgi and migrate to the sinusoidal membrane of the hepatocyte
  • vesicles fuse with the membrane and a VLDL is released
84
Q

What increases FA oxidation

A

FFA release from adipodicytes

this is increased by glucagon

and decreased by insulin

85
Q

3 locations of Lipid Oxidation in the liver

A
  • peroxysomal B-oxidation
  • mitochondrial B-oxidation
  • ER omega oxidation (Cytochrome p450 catalysed)
86
Q

Mitochondrial B oxidation

A
  • progressive shortening into acetyl-CoA subunits
  • these are condensed into ketone bodies
  • these enter the TCA cycle
  • regulated by:
    • carnitine concentration
  • certain drugs like alcohol inhibit B oxidation
87
Q

Peroxisomal B oxidation

A
  • the main role of this is for detoxification of:
    • very long chain fatty acids
    • C-27 bile acid intermediates
    • other toxic lipids
  • 4 step process repeatedly shortens chain length
  • there’s lots of redundancy (each step can be done by a couple of enzymes to ensure that even if there are problems the system keeps going)
  • disruption leads to micro-vesicular steatosis
88
Q

Microsomal omega oxidation

A
  • normally a minor pathway but increases as the fat load increases
  • CYP4A enzymes oxidise saturated and unsaturated fatty acids
  • there’s omega hydroxylation in the ER followed by decarboxylation of the omega fatty acid in the cytosol
  • they can then enter the B oxidation cycle
89
Q

What are PPARs

A
  • peroxisome proliferator activated receptor
  • there are 4 (alpha, gamma, beta and delta)
  • they are involved in lipid homeostasis
  • alpha, beta and delta facilitate energy combustion
  • gamma facilitates energy storage
  • alpha is a lipid sensor and a transcription factor
  • if alpha isn’t working it leads to steatosis
90
Q

what is steatosis?

A

abnormal retention of lipids within a cell

91
Q

stages of liver damage

A
  1. Normal liver
  2. this gets fat deposits on it and becomes a Fatty liver which is enlarged
  3. this becomes inflamed (steato hepatitis) because of the lipid toxicity and scarring forms this is Liver Fibrosis
  4. This growing of the connective tissue destroys liver cells and this is Cirrhosis
92
Q

Developing a fatty liver

A
  • excess dietary fat/overall caloric intake leads to increase in plasma TG
  • also leads to increased release of FAs from adipodicytes and uptake by hepatocytes
  • There’s a decreased demand for fuels leading to increased storage
93
Q

What is NAFL

A
  • Non-alcoholic fatty liver
  • it’s overstorage of unmetabolised energy exceeding the energy combustion capability of oxidation\
  • it leads to liver cirrhosis
  • Incidence:

50% diabetic patients (including lean diabetics)

75% of obese patients

98% of morbidly obese patients

94
Q

What is hepatic steatosis

A
  • a type of NAFL
  • this is when fat content of the liver exceeds 5-10% the weight of the liver
95
Q

What is Steatohepatitis

A
  • this is when the fat becomes inflamed
  • this is due to the fatty hepatocytes apoptosing and releasing TGs and toxic FAs
  • the FAs result in oxidative stress
  • this results in proinflammatory cytokines from Kupffer cells
    • this is hepatitis
  • stellate cells are also activated
    • this leads to fibrogenesis
    • the high capacity of the liver to repair itself has been overtaken and we got scarring
  • at the end there’s relatively less fat but lots of scarring
96
Q

Alcohol and fatty liver

A
  • associated with fatty liver because it is so calorific and metabolised in the liver
  • it also inhibits PPAR alpha leading to decreased fat oxidation
  • the very fatty liver leads to cirrhosis
97
Q

Glucose and the Liver in the fed state: can you draw the diagram?

A
98
Q

what energy source fo RBCs use?

A
  • They don’t have mitochondria so can’t make ATP
  • they rely on a constant stream of glucose that they convert into pyruvate and lactate
99
Q

Effects of cortisol on fuel metabolism

A
100
Q

Effects of adrenaline on fuel metabolism

A
101
Q

How much bile is produced by hepatocytes each day?

A
  • between 200ml and 1000ml
102
Q

what is the function of bile?

A
  • lipid digestion and reabsorbtion
  • cholesterol homeostasis
  • excretion of lipid soluble xenobiotics/drug metabolites
103
Q

Bile acids

A
  • AKA bile salts
  • Make up 50% of the dissolved constitiuents of bile
  • syntheised from cholesterol in the pericentral hepatocytes
  • primary bile acids:
    • cholic acid (CA)
    • CDCA
  • these are both water soluble
  • they are conjugated with glycine or taurine to make them more hydrophillic and acidic before secretion into the canaliculus
104
Q

bile in fasted state

A
  • travel down hepatic duct into the gall bladder where it can increase in concentration by up to 10x
105
Q

bile in fed state

A
  • CCK secreted by the duodenum
    • this contracts the gall bladder
    • it relaxes the spincter of oddi
  • this resultd in the secretion of a concentrated solution of bile
  • the gall bladder remains concentrated so that synthesised BA goes directly to the gut
106
Q

where does the portal vein collect blood from?

A

collects blood from the superior mesenteric vein ( venous drainage of the small and large intestines)

107
Q

Enterohepatic circulation

A
  • 95% of bile acids secreted by a hepatocyte have been previously secreted
  • bile acids remain in the lumen
  • then in the jejunum and the ilium they are reabsorbed
    • this is via teh apical sodium bile acid transporter (ASBT)
  • the bile acids re-enter the liver via the portal circulation
  • bile acids are taken up by hepatocytes, reconjugated and secreted into biliary canaliculi
  • there are usually 2-3 cycles per meal
108
Q

blood supply of gall bladder

A

arterial: cystic artery
venous: no discrete venous drainage - blood seems to drain directly into the liver

109
Q

Hepatic plate can you draw the diagram

A
110
Q

Blood supply to the liver

A
  • 80% is from the hepatic portal vein
  • 20% is from the hepatic artery
111
Q

What is Bilirubin

A
  • it is the haem breakdown pigment (dark brown)
  • becomes more concentrated during storage in the gall bladder
  • gives faeces its colour
112
Q

what’s in bile

A
  • Bile acids
  • Water and electrolytes
  • Cholesterol
  • Pigments
113
Q

Exocrine pancreas

A
  • this is 90% of the pancreas
  • ducts are lined by simple cuboidal epithelium
  • acinar cells
    • store zymogens that will be activated later
    • Centriolobular cells
      • procude HCO3- and Mucin
    • Apical cells
      • produce pro enzymes
114
Q

stimulation of exocrine function of the pancreas

A
  • luminal acidity detected in the duodenum
  • Enteroendocrine cells secrete CCK
    • causes apical cells to secrete pro-enzymes
    • also causes gall bladder to contract
  • S cells secrete secretin
    • causes centrolobular cells to secrete mucin and HCO3-
115
Q

endocrine pancreas

A
  • islets of langerhans
    • Beta cells
      • insulin
    • Alpha cells
      • glucagon
    • Delta cells
      • somatostatin
        • this reduces secretion by parietal cells
116
Q

liver embryology

A
  • endodermal outgrowth of the foregut
  • bile produced from 12th week
117
Q

pancreas embryology

A
  • dorsal and ventral buds
    • ventral bud
      • uncinate process and inferior portion of head
    • dorsal bud
      • everything else
118
Q

cellular composition of the islets of langerhans

A
  • beta cells: 65-80%
  • alpha cells: 15-20%
  • delta cells: 3-10%
119
Q

what nerve is the liver supplied by and what nerve roots is this from

A

the liver is part of the foregut and therefore supplied by the greater splanchnic nerve (T6-9)

120
Q

from which layer of the trilaminar disk do hepatocytes develop from

A

the endoderm

121
Q

overall describe the embryology of the liver

A

liver buds develop anteriorly and then swing to the right, fusing with the posterior abdominal wall

122
Q

what nerve supplies the pancreas?

A

the pancreas is part of the foregut and therefore supplied by the greater splanchnic nerve (T6-9)

123
Q

from what layer of the trilaminar disk does the pancreas develop?

A

endoderm

124
Q

give a very brief description of the embryology of the pancreas?

A
  • The pancreas develops as dorsal and ventral buds
  • They rotate posteriorly and fuse together
  • The ventral pancreas becomes the head and uncunate process of the pancreas
  • As a result, the superior mesenteric vein and artery get sandwiched
125
Q

LDL

A

formed in the plasma

these deliver cholesterol to cells throughout the body

126
Q

exocrine pancreas

A
  • dark staining acinar cells make up the majority of the pancreas’s bulk
  • they release proenzymes in granules to break down carbs, protein and lipids
  • the proenzymes are activated by enteropeptidases in the duodenum
  • acini also release bicarbonate to neutralise the chyme
127
Q

HDL

A

formed in the liver. these remove excess cholesterol from the blood and the tissues

128
Q

VLDL

A

these are synthesized in hepatocytes

they carry triglycerides from glucose in the liver into adipodicytes

129
Q

what process converts alanine to pyruvate?

A

transamination

130
Q

why must ammonia be cleared?

A

it can cross the bb barrier and can be neurotoxic

131
Q

Affect of CCK on the pancreas?

A

causes the release of the enzymes from the cells by exocytosis.

132
Q

lymphatic drainage of the liver

A

space of disse –> lymphatic channels in portal tract –> lymphatic channels of hepatic hilum –> cisterna chyli –> thoracic duct

thoracic duct drains into the circulation at the confluence of the left internal jugular vein and the left subclavian vein

133
Q

What is this? talk about it

A
  • these are biliary canaliculi and sinusoids
  • sinusoids are fenestrated capillary vessels
  • the capillary wall is too collapsed against adjoining cells to be seen
  • the vessels sit on a mesh of reticulin (collagen III)
  • they are seperated from the hepatocytes by the space of Disse
  • endothelial cells discriminated from Ito cells and hepatocytes by their small dense nuclei
134
Q

what is this? what are the blue things? and what do they do? what dye has been used?

A
  • these are Kupffer cells in the lining of the sinosoids
  • they are the resident macrophages of the liver
  • they are important for host defence as well as (in part) the production of bilirubin
  • their presence has been demonstrated because they phagocytosed india ink
135
Q

what epithelium lines the billiary tree?

A
  • cuboidal epithelium
  • in the smaller vessels it is simple but then towards the distal end it is stratified
136
Q

what epithelium lines the gallbladder? what is their special adaptation?

A

simple columnar

they have poorly developed microvilli which are used for the reabsorption of water in order to concentrate the bile

137
Q

how much of the mass of the gland does the exocrine portion of the pancreas account for?

A

90%

138
Q

what is this? what type of epithelium is it?

A

This is the wall of the gall bladder

  • lining is towards the bottom
  • this is a simple columnar epithelium
  • the holes at the bottom are the poorly developed microvilli where the lining has been thrown into folds to reabsorb water
  • you can see the wall above is connective tissue and smooth muscle
  • it also contains blood vessels
139
Q

how are enzymes secreted from the pancreas?

A

pancreas is a wholly serous gland (watery & enzyme rich)

produces various enzymes which are packaged together in secretion granules at the apex of each cell

when food enters the duodenum they are induced to release their stored enzymes by CCK

these only become activated when they reach the alkaline environment of the duodenum

140
Q

affect of secretin on the pancreas?

A

stimulation with secretin causes the pancreas to release an alkaline fluid

this fluid is mainly produced by the centro-acinar cells and small duct cells

141
Q

what is this? what epithelium lines it? what is either side?

A
  • this is a picture of a large pancreatic duct
  • the epithelium of the duct is simple cuboidal
    • at a more distal end it may become stratified
    • duct cells produce most of the fluid component of the secretion
  • The pancreas is a bunch of grapes
    • each grape has a narrow stalk duct that connects it to the main duct
    • larger ducts join
    • eventually one or two main ducts enter with the common bile duct into the second part of the duodenum
142
Q

what is this and what are the arrows pointing to?

A
  • this is exocrine pancreas
  • the acini are the spherical clumps of cells
  • the arrows point to centro-acinar cells which can be seen inside several of the acini
143
Q
A