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VA > Line Training > Flashcards

Line Training Flashcards

1
Q

Departure ALT Wx minima?

A

Cat 3B @ Departure AD

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2
Q

Departure ALT max distance?

A

451nm/60min

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3
Q

Departure ALT max distance EDTO?

A

USA: 451nm/60min
AUS: 1227/180min

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4
Q

Def: Network AD

A

Scheduled destination

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5
Q

Def: Alternate AD

A

If destination U/A

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6
Q

Def: Adequate AD

A

Services and facilities available

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7
Q

Def: Emergency AD

A

Only in emergency (listed Jepp)

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8
Q

Def: Remote AD

A

Network port but geographically isolated

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9
Q

Def: Isolated AD

A

No suitable alternates within 90min holding fuel time

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10
Q

Def: Regular Charter AD

A

Destination to which charters are operated

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11
Q

Which AD can be departure ALT?

A

Network AD or Alternate AD

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12
Q

When must the WX be above applicable minima @ ALT

A

+- 30min

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13
Q

EDTO Alternate main RQMT?

A

Listed on AOC

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14
Q

EDTO Alternate AUS RQMT?

A

AUS: Min CTAF

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15
Q

EDTO Alternate INTL RQMT?

A

INTL: ATC + RFF (avbl 30min notice), MET forecast (NET, ALT, ADQ)

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16
Q

RFFS Requirement: Dep/Dest (INTL)?

A

ICAO 8 FAA D

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17
Q

RFFS Requirement: Alt (INTL)?

A

ICAO 7 FAA C

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18
Q

RFFS Requirement: EDTO Alt (INTL)?

A

ICAO 4 FAA A

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19
Q

RFFS Requirement: Aus?

A

ICAO nil FAA nil

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20
Q

RFFS Requirement: ADQ?

A

ICAO nil FAA nil

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21
Q

When does a FLT PLN rqr amendment W.R.T. delays?

A

Delay of >30 mins

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22
Q

How long is a SIG chart valid?

A

+- 3 Hrs

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23
Q

Can Non-ATC waypoints be entered into the FMS legs/route, E.g. EDTO entry/exit points?

A

No, the can interfere with ADS-C, they must be entered as Fixes

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24
Q

Max speed on departure US?

A

250kts <10,000ft or min operational speed.

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25
Q

OFCR Checks?

A 
3 Cupboards
EMK
Bomb Kit
Torch
2 BCF
4 PBE
footrests
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26
Q

Flight deck security checks?

A 
2 torches
4 masks
4 lifejackets
1 PBE
BCF, Gloves, Axe
No. of main gear pins?
2 per gear
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27
Q

No, Nose wheel lockout pins?

A

1

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28
Q

Location of: RAT door

A

RHS behind wing box

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29
Q

Location of: Oxygen pressure disc for cabin

A

RHS FWD of rear cargo door

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30
Q

Location of: TAT probe

A

LHS Flight deck

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31
Q

Location of: Oxygen pressure disc for flight deck

A

LHS aft of Flight deck

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32
Q

Sterile Flight Deck?

A

Closing of last cabin door to seatbelts off

Cabin crew prepare cabin for landing until seatbelts off

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33
Q

Can Non-ATC waypoints be entered into the FMS legs/route, E.g. EDTO entry/exit points?

A

No, the can interfere with ADS-C, they must be entered as Fixes

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34
Q

when must headsets be worn?

A

PDC
Push back to TOPC
TOPD to Shut down

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35
Q

In the U.S does “Taxi RWY 25L full length” mean you can taxi unrestricted to the holding point?

A

In the U.S: “Taxi RWY 25L full length” does not mean you can negate notes on taxi chart, E.G. hold short “C” and contact tower.

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36
Q

The FO makes a radio call to company during start, when and what?

A

FO radio to company with Crew complement, Final Fuel, Taxi Fuel. (once prelim load sheet obtained)

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37
Q

When logging fuel remaining at ETPs, which fuel value to we use?

A

use totaliser value not CDU(calculated) value.

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38
Q

When are sigmets valid?

A

±3 hours of issue

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39
Q

What determines which Airports show up on the ND?

A

all have runways of 6000ft or longer (1829m)

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40
Q

When does wind data come out for uplink?

A

every 6 hours from 0400 onwards usually take 50-60mins to be ready for uplink.

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41
Q

Where can the block times be found?

A

COMM, COMPANY, FLIGHT TIMES

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42
Q

When does “Cabin crew prepare for landing” happen?

A

@ approximately 20,000ft

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43
Q

When does FLS come through

A

approx ETD-7

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44
Q

What rates does Fuel Jettison?

A

@ 2.5T/min (with fuel in C tank), 1.4T/min (C tank empty)

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45
Q

Do we need to talk to HF on switchover?(eg @ 20N)

A

Don’t need to actually talk to HF on switchover (only KSAK) but its a good idea to get a selcal check and update Primary/secondary as required.

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46
Q

How does one enter a latitude or longitude crossing?

A

put in the latitude on the legs page without executing then copy to scratchpad and enter in fix page, erase legs entry.

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47
Q

When entering a STAR+Approach how much more fuel can be expected to be burnt and extra time?

A

it usually adds 7-8 mins to the time and 100kg/min.

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48
Q

Which fuel gets logged at ETP vs waypoints?

A

ETP fuel logs are off the totaliser (EICAS), waypoint logs are calculated (pos rep page).

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49
Q

After switching off the centre tank pumps, when does the residual fuel drain out to the main tanks?

A

45mins (VPH) when main tanks reach 23.9T (others)

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50
Q

On leaving la domestic airspace, what happens?

A

will get a call, VHF advising of XPDR and onwards route, and control terminated.

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51
Q

On Taxi, each engine burns approximately?

A

1T/Hour or 33kg/min for both.

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52
Q

When loading a STAR/Approach, what is the procedure?

A

load and Execute then check the routing.

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53
Q

When putting EDTO alternate airports into the fix page, what else should be done?

A

also put them into the alternate page.

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54
Q

N2 idle?

A

Approximately 73%

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55
Q

LDR Autobrake setting?

A

Calculate landing distance on max manual +150m(flare distance anomaly)+15%(CASA 20.7) then use autobrake for taxiway

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56
Q

Wingspan?

A

64.8m

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57
Q

Wheelbase?

A

12.9m

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58
Q

Total length?

A

73.86m

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59
Q

Total Height?

A

18.85m

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60
Q

What makes the largest turn radius, most limiting factor?

A

Wingtips.

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61
Q

Min pavement width for 180deg turn?

A

56.5m

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62
Q

What is a PDA?

A

Performance Deterioration Allowance, on the flight plan and is entered into the FF Factor in the FMC perf init.

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63
Q

Can a PDA be negative?

A

Yes however it is company policy not to use negative values.

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64
Q

What is a class 1 EFB?

A

not mounted

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65
Q

What is a class 2 EFB?

A

mounted

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66
Q

What is a functionality level 2 EFB?

A

data is able to be input and computed however not connect to avionics of aircraft

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67
Q

What is a functionality level 1 EFB?

A

only displays data, cannot edit the data

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68
Q

What class and functionality level is the VA EFB?

A

Class 2, functionality level 1

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69
Q

Which is the top of the EFB mount?

A

The spring loaded part and also has a white strip.

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70
Q

Is there a place to charge the IPAD on the flight deck?

A

Yes, RHS of OBS centre console, 5VDC USB port.

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71
Q

What is the minimum number of EFBs required on the flight deck?

A

2, one for each primary crew.

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72
Q

When must an EFB be charged/updated?

A

Prior to each duty and positioning flights.

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73
Q

When are flight levels displayed for jetstreams on sigwx charts?

A

Only if wind speed in jet is greater than 120kts the levels at which the speed is >80kts will be shown.

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74
Q

When is a jetstream depicted on sigwx charts?

A

> 80kts.

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75
Q

What does the double bar symbol indicate on sigwx charts?

A

A wind speed change of 20kts or altitude change of 3000ft

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76
Q

What is: NOTAM

A

Notice to Air Men

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77
Q

What is: INTAM

A

Internal Notice to Air Men (company NOTAM remarks)

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78
Q

What is: FCON

A

Flight Crew Operational Notice

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79
Q

What is: OIC

A

Operational Information Circular

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80
Q

What is: FCIB

A

Flight Crew information bulletin (training)

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81
Q

External inspection, inspection flow?

A

Begins at 1L and progresses around nose, nose wheel, RHS fuselage, LE, TE, RHS Main Gear, RHS fuselage, tail, LHS fuselage, LH main gear, TE, LE, LHS fuselage, cabin service panel, check water and waste (engineering or captain to be informed if not 7/8th and max 3 bars)

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82
Q

landing gear and steering bypass pin fitting points?

A

Nosewheel pin may or may not be installed, vertically inserted to prevent the lockout lever from moving side to side. Main gear pins (2 per main gear) are removed if no placard in cockpit and A/C readiness log signed.

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83
Q

No. and location of brake wear indicator pins

A

2 per wheel on inside of hub

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84
Q

Does the nose wheel have brakes?

A

No

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85
Q

fuel jettison nozzle locations?

A

inboard of outboard flaps

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86
Q

RAT location?

A

RHS aft of wing box

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87
Q

Oxygen pressure relief green discs, no. and location?

A

2, Flight deck oxygen disc located on LHS of flight deck, Pax oxygen on RHS aft fuselage forward of rear cargo door.

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88
Q

What is the Readiness log ?

A

indicates whether the fan straps, gear pins and pitot covers are on or removed, if still installed there will also be a yellow card in front of the thrust levers.

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89
Q

What is the CRS?

A

(Certificate of Release to Service) on the first page of the maintenance log, located at the top, this is required prior to flight. Below are all the closed(blue) or deferred(red) defects, under the blue and red tabs.
There is a Non Airworthiness Defect (NAD) section under a white tab.

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90
Q

Wher to review recent defect history

A

The recent defects will be seen in the closed(blue) defect section

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91
Q

Do all maintenance log entries need to be signed off?

A

An INFO entry or pilot deferral does not need a CRS entry as it does not constitute a maintenance action.

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92
Q

Deferred discrepancy log location?

A

The deferred defects will be seen in the deferred(red) defect section

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93
Q

Cockpit Security check requirments?

A

Check for: 2 torches, 4 lifejackets, 4 masks, BCF, PBE, Axe, gloves and MEC tool. Check all compartments

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94
Q

TLDC methods of Use?

A

ACARS and flight dispatch are the only 2 approved sources of TLDC data, the IPAD is not approved. If ACARS does not work then flight dispatch needs to be called. Only used for take-off, landing is not yet approved.

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95
Q

TLDC input requirments?

A

airport, rwy, wind, Oat, QNH as a minimum

96
Q

Can you calculate a full thrust takeoff in TLDC?

A

TLDC will always try and use an assumed temp, the fixed de-rate must be entered manually.

97
Q

Does TLDC allow for a change in temp?

A

The solution will allow a temperature increase of 2 deg, or the assumed temp if lower or the MAXT.

98
Q

Does TLDC allow for a change in QNH/Altimeter?

A

No.

99
Q

What does the use of ‘ALL’ runway input provide?

A

if “All is entered in the RWY field then performance will be calculated for all runways.

100
Q

How many MELs can be applied for a TLDC solution?

A

Only 2 MEL codes can be entered in the TLDC solution but an unlimited number of weight penalties. The codes are entered in MEL1/2 fields, weight penalties are added up and entered in the MEL/CDL(kg) field.

101
Q

Can NOTAMed runways be used in TLDC?

A

NOTAMs can be entered in the SPECIAL field or as an intersection departure depending on the restriction

102
Q

When is a runway contaminated?

A

> 3mm water is contaminated or >20mm slush/snow

103
Q

Vref 30 check (tolerance?)

A

The TLDC Vref 30 is checked against the FMC and load sheet, can only be within a 1 knot band, eg. All between 135 and 136.

104
Q

What parameters does the • Optimum Cruise level take into account?

A

Optimum does NOT include wind, temperature for FL calculation

105
Q

What parameters does the Maximum Cruise level take into account?

A

This altitude is the most limiting of the Thrust, Certified or Manoeuvre limited ALT

106
Q

What parameters does the Recommended Cruise level take into account?

A

Is the optimum altitude taking into account wind and temperature ETC..
ECON cruise takes into account CI, wind, temp, weight and ALT.

107
Q

What is MRC?

A

MRC=CI=0

LRC, 5% faster than MRC with 1% fuel decrement

108
Q

Why do we step climb?

A

These are planned and entered on the flight plan with forecast winds/weights etc. The FMS also calculates when it would be optimal (CI, min cost, otherwise min fuel) to climb depending on the step entered. Winds must be entered for accurate predictions. EICAS VNAV STEP CLIMB will display if no climb commenced within 5 min of calculated climb.

109
Q

Why should routes not be shortcut?

A

When making a shortcut, the FMC my compute a shorter time frame but that may be because it doesn’t know the winds for the new track. Once new winds are uploaded the shortcut may not be short anymore. The ETPs are built around the flight plan tracks and if not flying on those tracks then the ETPs re no longer valid.

110
Q

When are fuel checks required?

A

Required every 45 minutes if flight>90 mins, realistically at each waypoint.

111
Q

What must be recorded on a fuel check?

A

The following must be recorded: ATA, A FREM, Margin>MINR, FOD, W/V, OAT, Mach #, TAS, GS.

112
Q

When must wx be updated?

A

For flights>90mins, destination/alternate weather should be updated hourly. All flights are provided with flight following.

113
Q

What are the weather separation standards?

A

> FL200, >20nm, 10nm

114
Q

Turbulence Penetration Procedures, modes?

A

V/S can be used in climb so that thrust is used for speed. Auto throttle may be removed but only in cruise

115
Q

Cabin Crew use/definitions of Moderate vs Severe Turbulence

A

B9 manual, mod: difficulty walking about, Sev: violently being thrown about

116
Q

Turbulence penetration speeds

A

270kts below F250, lower of 280 or 0.82M F250 and above. Always min 15kts>min manouvre

117
Q

When initially turning on the weather radar in auto, what happens?

A

3-4 sweeps to initialise

118
Q

What is WX+T?

A

activates the Doppler turbulence detection.

119
Q

What happens on manual mode in the Wx radar?

A

Gain and tilt must be manually controlled, all automatic features are disabled except for windshear. An M displays next to tilt to advise of manual mode

120
Q

What is the maximum range for weather detection/display?

A

320nm

121
Q

What is the maximum range for turbulence detection/display?

A

40nm

122
Q

How is turbulence displayed on the radar?

A

any turbulence will display as speckled magenta; severe is shown as solid magenta.

123
Q

What is a recommended rage slection for the ND for Wx detection?

A

80nm range on ND is big enough for early detection but also small enough to see the detail.

124
Q

Which airports are suitable EDTO alternates?

A

All NET, ALTN, ADQ are suitable as EDTO alternates (unless “non-EDTO only”)

125
Q

What ATC and ARFF services are required at EDTO alternates?

A

EDTO, Required INTL <30min notice ARFF min cat 4/A

For AUS airport only require CTAF

126
Q

Who tidies OFCR/Flight deck?

A

SO 1 to tidy up flight deck, SO 2 OFCR

127
Q

Arr Report procedure?

A

must be sent within 9 minutes of ACARS IN time(park brake set, fuel control cutoff, cabin door open). If after 9 min can fill out ENG 086

128
Q

How does the alternate page list alternates?

A

Earliest ETA first

129
Q

How to message to company?

A

Select message to ground then in the first line enter the address e.g. – ENG as per FCOM Supp and then from the next line onwards enter the message as free text.

130
Q

How to get weather?

A

COMPANY>Select message to ground then in the first line enter the address e.g. – ENG as per FCOM Supp and then from the next line onwards enter the message as free text

131
Q

How to tune HF radio?

A

To tune an HF radio, dial in the frequency then transmit a pulse. If the radio tuned then a beep will be heard, if not tuned there will be a 7 second tone.

132
Q

How to free dial on the Satphone?

A

Selecting SAT on the C CDU will bring up the satellite phone directory, to make a free dial find a page with blank number spaces, type 06…. as per the beginning of the other phone numbers then type in the required number and then line select to the empty spaces

133
Q

How to call/end call?

A

pickup phone then “dial” the press to talk is only required for PAs and pressing it once ends the call, also hanging up ends the call.

134
Q

How do ascertain selcall check ok?

A

selcall check is annunciated on EICAS with associated sound.

135
Q

How many and location of EPIRB?

A

2 EPIRB, 1R, 5R.

136
Q

Water isolation valve and location?

A

Water isolation above 2L, cuts water supply FWD of 2L.

137
Q

Apart from the main water cuttoff are there any other water/power cuttoffs?

A

Each galley has a water and power shut off.

138
Q

Are there water safety features in the toilets?

A

Toilets have a flush valve shutoff at the base of the bowl.

139
Q

How many exits are there and their uses?

A

10 doors, overwings only for land evacuation.

140
Q

How long does the PBE last?

A

PBE lasts 15min.

141
Q

What is TRIP Fuel?

A

TRIP Fuel burn T/O to Landing includes MEL/ICING/CDL

142
Q

What is CONT Fuel?

A

CONT % of TRIP fuel Max 3T, inflight 2T

143
Q

What is DEST TFC Fuel?

A

DEST TFC TFC holding @ Dest @ lower of F200 or CRZ level @LW

144
Q

What is DEST WX Fuel?

A

Wx holding @ Dest

145
Q

What is ALTN(port) Fuel?

A

ALTN(port) CRZ+CONT+MANUVR from Dest to ALTN Most restrictive ALTN

146
Q

What is ALTN WX/TFC Fuel?

A

ALTN WX/TFC TFC+Wx holding @ ALTN @ lower of F200 or CRZ level @LW

147
Q

What is FXD RES Fuel?

A

FXD RES 30 mins @ 1500ft, ZFW+FXD RES

148
Q

What is ETP B/U Fuel?

A

Any extra fuel for diversions

149
Q

What is RCL B/U Fuel?

A

Any extra fuel for Re-clearance

150
Q

What is MIN RQD Fuel?

A

TRIP Fuel burn T/O to Landing includes MEL/ICING/CDL
CONT % of TRIP fuel Max 3T, inflight 2T
DEST TFC TFC holding @ Dest @ lower of F200 or CRZ level @LW
DEST WX Wx holding @ Dest
ALTN(port) CRZ+CONT+MANUVR from Dest to ALTN Most restrictive ALTN
ALTN WX/TFC TFC+Wx holding @ ALTN @ lower of F200 or CRZ level @LW
FXD RES 30 mins @ 1500ft, ZFW+FXD RES
ETP B/U Any extra fuel for diversions
RCL B/U Any extra fuel for Re-clearance

151
Q

What is MARGIN Fuel?

A

MARGIN Extra to meet company RQMTS fuel over Dest

152
Q

What is TANKER/EXTRA Fuel?

A

TANKER/EXTRA tankering or operational

153
Q

What is TKOF Fuel?

A

Fuel @ takeoff

154
Q

What is APU Fuel?

A

APU APU fuel, refuel to engine start 180kg/45min

155
Q

What is TAXI Fuel?

A

TAXI Startup and taxi fuel based on statictics

156
Q

What is RAMP Fuel?

A

Total fuel after refuel

157
Q

What is FOD Fuel?

A

FOD fuel overhead destination min 60min (B777)

158
Q

Contingency fuel policy?

A 
Higher of:
1.	Lower of 5% of trip fuel or 
3% of trip fuel if En-route alternate is available within 20% of total route distance of route and within 25% of the destination or 20%+50nm, whichever is greater or
20min @ cruise consumption
2.	5 minutes @1500ft @ destination
Maximum 3T, 2T for inflight replanning
159
Q

How does a Decision point procedure work?

A

A re-clearance plan allows the removal of the destination alternate if the decision point is within 6 Hours of the decision

160
Q

What happens of there is a fuel discrepancy?

A

A fuel leak should be suspected if the fuel is not balanced or if there is a discrepancy between the totaliser and calculated of 500kg/30min or more

161
Q

How does Commitment to Destination work?

A

If at any point the FOB

162
Q

What does landing assured mean?

A

Captains judgment: can land with any forecast Wx deterioration or single failures of airborne or ground based facilities. <2hrs of landing can use METAR for wx assessments.

163
Q

What are the rules with regard to cuffing/uncuffing?

A

Pax can be restrained on Captains order, can be let out of cuffs if captain approves.

164
Q

How is the DDG numbered?

A

Page numbers: DDG section number.MEL number.Page number
Multiple defects must be entered individually, if a second defect occurs in the same system, this will be a new defect under “both” and the single defect still stands eg.. “left” and “both”.

165
Q

What is the meaning of a Comm

A

incoming message

166
Q

What is the meaning of a Advisory

A

routine awareness, possible action

167
Q

What is the meaning of a Warning

A

immediate awareness & action

168
Q

What is the meaning of a Caution

A

immediate awareness, possible action

169
Q

What is the meaning of a Memo

A

normal current state of systems

170
Q

What is the meaning of a Status

A

notification for pre-dispatch MEL or maintenance action

171
Q

Who may MEL an item?

A

The PIC may apply an MEL as long as no (M) is required.

172
Q

what are the maintenance due times (ABCD)?

A

Maintenance intervals A as listed, B 3 days, C 10 days, D 120 days.

173
Q

How long can a CDL be open for?

A

30 days to fix

174
Q

When is dispatch?

A

Dispatch=last cabin door closed

175
Q

What would cause a return prior to Take-off and after dispatch?

A

After dispatch, prior to takeoff the following will cause the flight to return to gate: Land, takeoff not permitted, (M) action, ETOPS affecting.

176
Q

Altimetry SOPs (descent)?

A

When on descent an aerodrome QNH is obtained, this needs to be cross checked against an independent source, when ATC clears for descent an provides QNH this also needs to be crosschecked with the previously obtained QNH.

177
Q

Regions using metre altimeter heights?

A

China, Russia, North Korea, Mongolia and Commonwealth independent states

178
Q

” vs Hpa?

A

US uses “mercury(altimeter), AUS uses hpa(QNH)

179
Q

Oxygen min dispatch, auto deploy, oxygen flow?

A

Crew: FCOM 1, FCON, Performance inflight & SP, 1300PSI @ 21°C crew oxygen
Passenger: 1450PSI, Oxygen maskes deploy >13,500ft and flow control close

180
Q

Must oxygen masks be worn in normal ops?

A

For flight above F410, one duty pilot must wear an oxygen mask on dilute

181
Q

Where does TOS get oxygwn from?

A

FCOM 2, B9. The TOS is an integral part of the passenger oxygen system and allows use without deployment of all masks.

182
Q

How to operate TOS?

A

A mask must be plugged in prior to switching on, then all removed prior to switching off/re-setting. Maximum of 4 masks at one time

183
Q

How to re-set TOS?

A

TOS: all removed prior to switching off/re-setting

184
Q

How to re-set Crew oxy?

A

Crew: close doors and press re-set switch to restore microphone

185
Q

How to re-set PAx Oxy?

A

Pax: flow control closes

186
Q

What is the critical fuel scenario?

A

The critical fuel scenario is when the aircraft as only enough fuel to fly from the ETP to the des/altn with only reserves intact at the planned FL DP/DP1/OEI.. shaded grey on the flight plan.

187
Q

What are the critical fuel scenarios, not shaded grey?

A

The other critical fuel scenarios will not be shaded as the fuel onboard will more than required.

188
Q

EDTO Weather requirements (pre dispatch)?

A

Pre-dispatch: (A1 13.1.9) must be above EDTO alternate minimums (CAT D table) which is a function of approaches/runways available, ceiling and visibility

189
Q

EDTO Weather requirements inside EDTO?

A

EDTO area: No requirements however if an alternate falls below minimas then an appropriate replacement should be found

190
Q

What is an EA/IA?

A

EA, EDTO aerodrome, IA, non-EDTO airport.

191
Q

Diversion fuel on critial fuel summary is what?

A

DIV Fuel is the fuel required from the ETP to the ALTN taking account of DP, DP1, OEI as applicable

192
Q

What is ETP Buildup?

A

ETP B/U is any fuel required in excess of flight plan to meet EDTO diversion requirements

193
Q

The Fuel REQ on the critical fuel scenario is what?

A

Fuel REQ is the fuel required from Dep to the ETP then on to the ALTN.

194
Q

What are: EEP’s, EXP’s, ETP’s,

A

EEP: EDTO entry point
EXP: EDTO Exit point
ETP: Equi-time point

195
Q

EDTO fix usage?

A

FMC fixes are used for all EDTO alternates and also EDTO ETPs. The ALTN/1227 nm ring, dep/destination 60nm & 1227 nm ring. ETP, no ring required however usually use nm per EA number eg EA2 2nm ring.

196
Q

EDTO weather monitoring requirements?

A

Weather shall be updated for the Dest/ALTN every 60mins using ACARS, AERIS, VOLMET, ATC.

197
Q

Weather deterioration below minima (before & after EEP)

A

Before EEP a suitable replacement airfield is required, inside EDTO an appropriate replacement should be found but is not a requirement

198
Q

Diversion airport selection order of preference?

A

List of ALTN in A1, order of preference: NET, ALTN, ADQ, EMG, Other. It is at the captains discretion as to which airport is selected.

199
Q

What is CPDLC?

A

Controller Pilot Data Link Communications, operates through the DATA frequency on the C VHF radio, HF radio? and satellite, in order of priority

200
Q

What is ADS(B, C)?

A

Automatic Dependant Surveillance (-B, Broadcast, -C, Contract), its function is to provide surveillance and communications in non-radar airspace.

201
Q

When transfered to a new FIR on CPDLC, what happens?

A

Between FIR boundaries automatic transfer will occur, on initial logon and on transfer, once in the new FIR, a position report is required. The position report is accessed through the same menu.

202
Q

How to request deviations CPDLC?

A

For diversions off track, re-routing and direct to, a ROUTE REQUEST can be made.

203
Q

Position reporting CPDLC?

A

Waypoints sequence and if CPDLC is logged on and ADS is working, no reports are required

204
Q

How to know a message was sent (CPDLC)?

A

When sending/acknowledging messages, the respective action will show on the MFD to show that the action is taking place.

205
Q

Can CPDLC messages be reviewed?

A

Any communication sent/received will be available through the uplinks/downlinks pages on the respective menus

206
Q

When required to give a report once a condition is obtained, how can this be done through CPDLC.

A

When given a clearance e.g. climb to and maintain, report maintaining. A report can be armed and the option will display once the clearance is acknowledged. Once armed the report will be sent once the condition is met by the aircraft.

207
Q

What info does ATC automatically get through CPDLC?

A

ATC will get automatic reports at waypoints, some of the information will be current waypoint, next waypoint (as per normal position reporting), they will also get the waypoint after the next waypoint. If a STAR has been loaded but not cleared, ATC may take issue.

208
Q

Special considerations in certain airspace CPDLC?

A

KSAK, need to get HF+selcall from VHF prior to oceanic. NZ require a 300s data buffer limit.

209
Q

Can an emergency be declared through CPDLC?

A

An emergency message (PAN/MAYDAY) can be sent through CPDLC through the ATC, EMERGENCY REPORT option.

210
Q

How does the FC know of a new message or data?

A

The EICAS will alert flight crew to a new message with the COMM or ATC message. These are all medium to low level messages

211
Q

What is RNP?

A

RNP is a subset of PBN, RNP is RNAV with performance monitoring. The RNP value is the accuracy (NM) required, the system guarantees that this will be met 95% of the time

212
Q

RNP vs ANP including PFD/ND indications?

A

The ANP and RNP is displayed on PROG pg 4 and also on the bottom of the ND including which Nav source is being used.
IF ANP>RNP, a NAV UNABLE RNP EICAS message will display, ND RNP values turn amber and the FMS message VERIFY POSITION annunciates. If the aircraft deviates outside the RNP tolerance the deviation indicators on the PFD turn amber.

213
Q

If ANP exceeds RNP what is required?

A

“Negative RNP” if one system still operates, the failure does not need to be reported. A safety report will be required

214
Q

What is oceanic airspace?

A

RNP 10, oceanic and remote: AUS, NZ, US, ICAO require 2 LRNS

215
Q

Minimum equipment for RVSM?

A
  • Two primary altitude indications
  • One ATC transponder with altitude reporting
  • One autopilot with altitude control
  • One altitude alert function
216
Q

Vertical speed considerations in proximity to other traffic in RVSM?

A

Traffic or areas of high traffic, ROC should <1000 ft/min ±1000 ft
of cleared flight level.

217
Q

Can deviation due weather be conducted without a clearance in oceanic RVSM?

A

If Wx diversion required and clearance cannot be obtained, can deviate up to 10nm L/R track, if more required: S of track up 300ft, N of track down 300ft (SUND)

218
Q

When can SLOP be used?

A

Only available in oceanic airspace

219
Q

What can SLOP be used for?

A

to avoid collisions of on same airway due to GPS accuracy, generally to avoid head on collisions, not for Wx or wake turbulence. Only used on published, fixed or flex tracks, no point on UPRs.

220
Q

How far are SLOP deviations?

A

1 or 2nm to right of track

221
Q

What must a DDO include?

A

2 local nights(8hrs, 2100-0800) 34hrs min

222
Q

How long must TFOD be?

A

greater of 12hrs or preceding duty period, with exceptions if duty≤12hrs every 7 days, 36 hours FOD

223
Q

When can standby be rostered? and for how long?

A

Standby can only immediately precede a duty (max 12 hours).

224
Q

Max duty following standby?

A

Maximum STBY and duty =6 hours+FDP

225
Q

Open day protocols?

A

Open days will be a min 3 days. Not counted as duty until called out for which a min 12 hour notice is given

226
Q

Minimum crew compliment and composition for dispatch

A

Min flight crew 9.5-12 hours=3, ≥12hours 4 flight crew. Min 10 cabin crew with decrease in Pax, full pax 13 required

227
Q

FDP limit?

A

16-18 hours (1-2 additional flight crew)

228
Q

Can FDP be extended and time at controls?

A

Max time at controls is 10.5 hours (augmented). Split duty: 3-10 hours of rest=1.5-5 hour extension. Can extend time and controls and FDP by 2 hours if crew deemed capable of it. Can increase by 4 hours if suitable sleeping accommodation supplied

229
Q

Maximum cumulative duty in 7/14/28 days

A

Duty: 100 in 14 days, 60 in 7 days

230
Q

Maximum cumulative flight time in 7/14/28 days

A

Flight time: 1000 in 365 days, 100 in 28 days

231
Q

What is significant about 30T of fuel?

A

If 30T of fuel is loaded the C.G. does not move, in the event of a diversion and second sector without any change to load, putting 30T of fuel on would not change C.G. position (%MAC) from ZFW %MAC

232
Q

If a safety report is submitted for an IRM/RRM does the ATSB need to be informed?

A

No, that gets done by safety.

233
Q

Min EFB battery life?

A

Battery must have sufficient charge for the duty, it can be charged onboard in crew rest. A minimum charge of 20% prior to TOPD is recommended.

234
Q

What is different about lithium battery fires?

A

If a lithium battery catches on fire, it must be extinguished/cooled with water or other non flammable liquid. Normal fire fighting methods may be used to combat any surrounding fire as a by product of the lithium battery but is unlikely to work in the battery itself.

235
Q

What defines the Maximum thrust limited altitude?

A

Maximum thrust limited altitude for VAI B777 is based on 300fpm (PI tables notes)

236
Q

Are there any buffers built into TLDC with regard to wind?

A

TLDC uses 50% of headwind component and 150% of tailwind component.

VA (11 decks)

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