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IPC Theory Flashcards

1
Q

documents required to carry

A

 FCL
 Medical
 Certificate of check
 Passport

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2
Q

Priviledge of Cruise relief co-pilot rating

A

Act as co-pilot of an aircraft of the specified type

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3
Q

Limitation of Cruise relief co-pilot rating

A

operator has a training and checking system; and

only while the aircraft is > FL200

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4
Q

Recent experience SO

A

training and checking system and
• 2 hours of sim; or
• passed the flight test; or
• flown the aircraft.

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5
Q

Privileges of instrument ratings

A
  • IFR; or

* NVFR.

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6
Q

fly single-pilot IFR?

A
  • flight test single-pilot aircraft; or

* instrument proficiency check in a single-pilot aircraft.

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7
Q

Recent experience VA

A

a flight or sim 70 Days
OPC 15 months
Line check 12 months
Prof Check 6 months (-2+1)

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8
Q

When can equipment be un serviceable?

A
  • CASA approved
  • PUS (MEL/CDL)
  • Pax convenience
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9
Q

Air instruments reqd?

A 
ASI
2x ALT
VSI
Mach meter 
with ALT Static or dual flush static ports
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10
Q

Gyro Instruments?

A 
2x AH
DG
T+Slip
Duplicated PWR+ Monitor and;
3rd AH	30 minutes independent power source
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11
Q

Non Gyro/Air instruments/Equipment?

A 
Compass
Clock 
OAT
Pitot Heat
Windshield Wiper
FDR, CVR
XPDR & ADSB (CTA)
GPWS 
AAI or Alt alert
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12
Q

A/P Required?

A 
Roll
HDG hold	Pitch
ALT hold
or;
Co-pilot 	IFR
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13
Q

Lighting (at night)?

A

1) Passenger Lights (not required if not carrying passengers)
2) Pilot Compartment lights
3) Position and Anti-Collision lights
4) Instrument illumination
o with intensity control
5) Landing Light (2 required if carrying passengers CHTR)
6) Emergency light =Torch: 1 per crew member

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14
Q

Controlled aerodrome with interleaved circuitry lighting, spacing doubles due to a failure. vis?

A

published minimum multiplied by a factor of 1.5

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15
Q

FD or AP(LOC, GP) fails ILS, min vis?

A

1.2 km

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16
Q

Failure warning (AH and DG) ILS Min vis?

A

1.2 km

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17
Q

HIRL fails ILS, min vis?

A

1.2 km

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18
Q

HIAL Fails ILS min vis?

A

1.5 km

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19
Q

RVR Fails ILS min vis?

A

0.8 km

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20
Q

HIAL fails (LOC only) min vis?

A

+0.9 km

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21
Q

VOR range @ 0-5000ft

A

60 nm

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22
Q

VOR range @ 5000-10,000ft

A

90 nm

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23
Q

VOR range @ 10,000-15,000ft

A

120 nm

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24
Q

LOC range @ 2000ft +-10deg

A

25 nm

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25
Q

LOC range @ <5000 ft

A

30 nm

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26
Q

LOC range @ 5000ft and above

A

50 nm

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27
Q

GPS tolerance ENR

A

2 nm

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28
Q

GPS tolerance TERM

A

1 nm

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29
Q

GPS tolerance APP

A

0.3 nm

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30
Q

Tolerances NDB

A

± 5°

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31
Q

Tolerances DME

A

± 2 nm

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32
Q

Order of Precision navaids

A

LOC-GPS-VOR-NDB

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33
Q

Radio Communication Requirements

A

2 VHF Radio or VHF + HF

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34
Q

Radio Failure Procedures Clearance limit

A

ALT for 3 min and/or hold for 3 min

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35
Q

Radio Failure Procedures passing reporting point

A

SPD and ALT for 60min

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36
Q

Radio Failure Procedures Vectors

A

vector for 2 min

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37
Q

Radio Failure Procedures Holding

A

Complete one more hold

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38
Q

Radio Navigation Systems RQMT

A

GNSS (any TSO) and 1 DME or GPS

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39
Q

Radio Navigation Systems RQMT

A

2 TSO145, 146, 196a

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40
Q

Take of minima

A 
0ft, 550m 
	Runway edge lighting (60m)
	Centreline lights/markings
	CTAF(R), Day only
or;
800m
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41
Q

LVOPS, B777

A

(A1 11.2.4)

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42
Q

Cat D Vat spd

A

141-165

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43
Q

Cat D initial app spd

A

185-250

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44
Q

Cat D final app spd

A

130-185

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45
Q

Cat D circling spd

A

205

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46
Q

Cat D M.A. spd

A

265

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47
Q

Cat D reversal speed

48
Q

Holding speed (ICAO)≤ 14,000 feet

49
Q

Holding speed (ICAO)> 14,000 to 20,000 feet MSL

50
Q

Holding speed (ICAO)> 20,000 to 34,000 feet MSL

51
Q

Holding speed (ICAO)> 34,000 feet MSL

52
Q

Holding speed (FAA)≤ 6,000 feet MSL

53
Q

Holding speed (FAA)≤ 14,000 feet

A

240 knots, May be restricted to 210 knots

54
Q

Holding speed (FAA)> 14,000

55
Q

Circling Area **Not Permitted on the B777

56
Q

Life jackets rqd?

A

Life jackets 50 miles.

57
Q

Life rafts rqd?

A

120 minutes @ normal cruise or
400 miles whichever is the less
1 life raft, 1 ELT required
A set of Flares

58
Q

Emergency equipment ?

A

Greater than 50nm require ELT 406 MHz

59
Q

Alternates Aids

A

RPT & CHTR

• Withstand failure of 1 airborne aid or vis app

60
Q

Alternates Cloud

A

> SCT below last route segment + 500ft (>4/8ths), or IAP ALT minima

61
Q

Alternates Visibility

A

> 8 km or IAP ALT minima

62
Q

Alternates Wind

A

Less than crosswind or downwind of the aircraft (from AFM)

63
Q

Alternates Prov / Prob

A 
	TAF
	TAF Valid
o	30 min before ETA
o	60 min after ETA
	Non-Provisional TAF
	No Probability that any weather will be below ALT minima
64
Q

Alternates Lighting

A

PAL
 PAL & STBY& Responsible Person
Available 10min before ETD and 30min after or
Available 30min before ETA to parking (AIP ENR 1.1 59.4)
 Portable & Responsible Person
 Electric & Portable & Responsible Person
 Electric & STBY
OR
 BOD + 10min holding

65
Q

Alternates Storms

A

Holding fuel
 INTER: 30 minutes
 TEMPO: 60 minutes

66
Q

Alternates Vis app?

A

Alternate required or > 8km Vis &

67
Q

Departure Alternate minima?

A

< Cat IIIB

68
Q

Departure Alternate distance? (non edto)

A

Non-EDTO, US, NZ, Cook Is, Samoa

60 min: 451nm

69
Q

Departure Alternate distance? (edto)

A

EDTO 180min: 1227nm

70
Q

Special Alternate Weather Minima rqmts (A/C)

A

2 ILS/ VOR
• 2 LOC, G/P, marker and VOR receivers or
• one marker receiver and DME
• 2 ADF systems, when an NDB is used for the ILS

71
Q

Special Alternate Weather Minima rqmts (Wx)

A
  • local METAR/SPECI and
  • forecasting services and
  • aerodrome control service
72
Q

Operation Below LSALT/MSA Day/Night

A
  1. ATS Radar Vectors
  2. DME/DGA arrival,
  3. instrument approach or holding procedure,
  4. Take-off and landing
  5. during climb after departure from an aerodrome, or
  6. in day VMC
73
Q

SIDs gradient?

A
  1. 3% gradient required or more if stated

2. 5% + 0.8% obstacle clearance gradient

74
Q

SIDs Designed for

A

raffic flow, Obstacles, Airspace segregation, Noise abatement

75
Q

STAR

Designed for

A

Traffic flow, LSALT, Airspace segregation, Noise abatement, reduction in workload

76
Q

Visual Approaches Day:

A
  • Clear of cloud
  • continuous visual reference to the ground or water
  • visibility > 5km or aerodrome is in sight
  • within 30nm
77
Q

Visual Approaches Night:

A 
•	Clear of cloud
•	continuous visual reference to the ground or water
•	visibility > 5km
Within any of the following
circling area
78
Q

Visual Approaches Night PAPI/VASIS:

A

5nm if aligned with the runway centreline and established not below ‘on slope’ on the T-VASIS or PAPI; 7nm ILS

79
Q

Visual Approaches Night GP

A

10nm if established not below the ILS glide path with less than full scale azimuth deflection, 14nm for 16L & 34L YSSY

80
Q

Tracking requirements (IFR):

A

By day
5nm of the aerodrome
By night
within the circling area and the aerodrome in sight

81
Q

A missed approach must be executed if:

A
  1. during the final segment of an instrument approach, the aircraft is not maintained within the applicable navigation tolerance for the aid in use; or
  2. during an instrument approach and below MSA the performance of the radio aid becomes suspect, or the radio aid fails; or
  3. visual reference is not established at or before reaching the MAPT or DA/RH from which the missed approach procedure commences; or
  4. a landing cannot be effected from a runway approach, unless a circling approach can be conducted in weather conditions equal to or better than those specified for circling; or
  5. visual reference is lost while circling to land from an instrument approach.
82
Q

A missed approach is required for any of the following messages if using FMS based approaches

A 
	XTE alert
Position uncertainty: 
	FMC
	NAV ADIRU INERTIAL
	NAV
	UNABLE RNP
	VERIFY POSITION (FMC scratchpad)
As long as ANP remains equal to or less than RNP, the approach may be continued with EICAS GPS.
83
Q

Definitions Wet runway:

A

 surface water < 3 mm deep
 slush or loose snow equivalent to surface water < 3 mm deep
 moisture on the surface to cause it to appear reflective

84
Q

Definitions Contaminated runway:

A

> 25% of the runway within the required length and width being used covered by:
 water, or slush, >3 mm deep
 loose snow >20 mm deep
 compacted snow or ice

85
Q

IFR Altimeters tolerance

86
Q

IFR Altimeters tolerance more than 60ft

A

±60ft < ±75ft ok if ±60ft second check

87
Q

Clearance distance behind engine at slow taxi thrust?

88
Q

Clearance distance behind engine at breakaway thrust?

89
Q

Engine starting, min distance to sealed building?

90
Q

Engine starting, min distance to A/C?

91
Q

Engine starting, min distance to public area?

92
Q

Engine starting, min distance to unsealed building?

93
Q

Wx NSC?

A

Nil Significant cloud

94
Q

Wx BC?

95
Q

Wx MI?

96
Q

Wx DR?

97
Q

Wx PO?

A

Dust devil

98
Q

Wx BR?

99
Q

ILS Categories: I

A

≥ 200ft (60m) ≥ 800m ≥ 550m RVR

100
Q

ILS Categories: II

A

≥ 100ft (30m) but < 200ft (60m) ≥ 300mRVR

101
Q

ILS Categories: IIIa

A

< 100ft (30m) or no decision height ≥ 175m RVR

102
Q

ILS Categories: IIIb

A

< 50ft (15m) or no decision height ≥ 50m but < 175m RVR

103
Q

ILS Categories: IIIc

A

No decision height, No RVR limits (i.e. 0m)

104
Q

Max: Home Standby

105
Q

Max: Hotel Standby

106
Q

Max: Open day

107
Q

Min report/rest:Home Standby

108
Q

Min report/rest: Hotel Standby

109
Q

Min report/rest: Open day

110
Q

Max: FDP

A

18 +2 / +4 (if 4 hour suitable sleeping Accom)

111
Q

Max: Time @ Controls

112
Q

Max: Standby + Duty

A

FDP – Standby >6 hours

113
Q

Max: Flight time 365

114
Q

Max: Flight time 28

115
Q

Max: Duty 7

116
Q

Max: Duty 14

VA (11 decks)

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